# Space maintainers are usually needed in the:
A. Mandibular primary incisor teeth area
B. Mandibular primary canine teeth area
C. Mandibular primary second molar area
D. Maxillary primary incisor area
# The term space maintenance refers to:
A. the preservation of space for a permanent tooth in a child's mouth
B. the preservation of total arch length or of all the permanent teeth in the arch in a child's mouth
C. the preservation of mesial drift after the loss of a tooth
D. none of the above
Due to widespread screening services more and more cases of the dreadful cancer are being recorded. Cancer represents Australia’s greatest disease burden, ahead of cardiovascular disease. Cancer is a disease associated with ageing. With the number of people aged over 65 years set to double by 2051, cancer incidence is projected to continue rising. (Ref : 1)
Current evidence indicates that approximately one-third of cancer deaths in Australia can be attributed to known and avoidable risk factors. Appropriate prevention strategies have the potential to reduce cancer incidence.
# Obturation of a root canal should achieve:
A. Tug back
B. Hermetic seal
C. Fluid free seal
D. All of the above
# The purpose of a root canal sealer is to:
A. seal the tubules of the dentine
B. stimulate healing in periapical region
C. prevent discoloration
D. fill the space between solid core material and pulp canal walls
# The treatment of acute periapical abscess is:
A. Endodontic therapy or extraction
B. Incision and drainage only
C. Pulp capping
D. None of the above
# Internal resorption in a tooth is seen as:
A. Ca(OH)2 pulpotomy
B. Replacement resorption
C. Non-proliferating lesion
D. Desensitizing tooth
# The initial pulpal response to any insult is:
A. Necrosis
B. Ulceration
C. Calcification
D. Inflammation
# Patient reports with severe throbbing pain in relation to mandibular second molar. The tooth is sensitive to both hot and cold food and elicits a painful response on percussion. What would be your treatment of choice?
A. Incision and drainage of periapical area
B. Endodontic therapy
C. Indirect pulp capping
D. Partial pulpectomy
# The most important aspect of emergency treatment for an acute apical abscess is to:
A. Produce sedation
B. Obturation
C. Establish drainage
D. None of the above
# In treating a tooth with a non vital pulp and sinus, the sinus should be treated as follows:
A. No special treatment
B. Cauterization
C. Curettage of sinus
D. Use of cautery to eliminate the sinus
# A pulp polyp may arise in connection with:
A. Chronic open pulpitis
B. Pulp necrosis
C. Acute pulpitis
D. Chronic periapical lesion
# Internal resorption is due to:
A. Pulp Necrosis
B. Acute inflammation of pulp
C. Chronic inflammation of pulp
D. None of the above
# Most common cause of pulp pathology is:
A. Microbes
B. Trauma
C. Leakage from filling materials
D. Pressure sensation from condensation of filling materials
# Phoenix abscess is:
A. Reversible pulpitis
B. Acute apical periodontitis
C. Acute exacerbation of an existing chronic inflammation
D. Chronic abscess
# Which of the following is the method of treating internal resorption?
A. Extirpation of pulp and calcium hydroxide dressing
B. Extirpation of pulp and formocresol dressing
C. Pulpotomy
D. Pulp capping
# Acute reversible pulpitis is treated by:
A. Sedative filling , Wait and Watch
B. Pulpectomy
C. Pulpotomy
D. Pulp capping
# Which one of the following is not seen in the acute pulpitis?
A. Pain disappears on removal of stimulus
B. Pain persists on removal of stimulus
C. Increased threshold for stimulus
D. Severe pain
# The treatment of acute pulpitis is:
A. Extraction
B. Pulpotomy
C. Pulpectomy
D. PA curettage
# Blood borne seeding of bacteria into an area of previously damaged or irritated pulp with a resultant inflammation is known as:
A. Bacterial endocarditis
B. Anachoretic pulpitis
C. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis
D. Ulcerative pulpitis
# Pain due to acute "irreversible" pulpitis is:
A. Spontaneous
B. Sharp
C. Lasting for short time
D. Both A and B
# The periapical lesion that would most likely contain bacteria within the lesion is:
A. Periapical abscess
B. Periapical cyst
C. Periapical granuloma
D. Condensing osteitis
# Type of efferent nerve fibers of the pulp is:
A. Somatic motor
B. Sympathetic post ganglionic
C. Parasympathetic post ganglionic
D. Both somatic anf autonomic postganglionic fibers
# A patient feels that his molar is extruded from the socket and is tender to percussion. This can be due to:
A. Periapical cyst
B. Periapical granuloma
C. Periapical abscess
D. Furcation involvement
# Calcification of pulp:
A. is in response to ageing
B. does not relate to the periodontal condition
C. precedes internal resorption
D. indicates presence of additional canal
# Which one of the following does not commonly survive in a periapical lesion?
A. Pseudomonas
B. Streptococcus
C. Porphyromonas
D. Actinomyces
# Cholesterol crystals are occasionally present in which of the following zone?
A. Zone of contamination
B. Zone of irritation
C. Zone of necrosis
D. Zone of stimulation
# The following is not true about phoenix abscess:
A. Symptoms are similar to acute infection
B. Associated with non vital tooth
C. Radiographically does not show radiolucency in the periapical region
D. Tooth is tender on percussion
# Pulpal pain is most intense in:
A. Acute closed pulpitis
B. Acute open pulpitis
C. Pulp hyperaemia
D. Pulp necrosis
# Which one of the following conditions does not require any treatment unless it becomes symptomatic?
A. Subacute pulpitis
B. Chronic pulpitis
C. Pulp fibrosis
D. Apical cyst
# Odontogenic pain is:
A. Tooth and Periodontal ligament pain
B. Bone pain
C. Soft tissue pain
D. Jaw pain
# Condition in which a stimulus provokes pain easily :
A. Analgesia
B. Allodynia
C. Dysasthesia
D. Hyperpathia
# Pulp capillary pressure is:
A. 14cm of water
B. 25 cm of water
C. 80 cm of water
D. 120 cm of water
# Which of the following fibers are responsible for conduction of pain impulse?
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Gamma
# Which of the following is the most difficult pulpal or periapical pathosis to diagnose?
A. Necrotic pulp
B. Chronic pulpitis
C. Internal resorption
D. Acute alveolar abscess
# Enamel infarctions can be detected by:
A. Direct illumination with visible light
B. Ultraviolet light source
C. Magnetic resonance imaging
D. Fibre optic light source
# The stabbing nature of pain in trigeminal neuralgia mimics pain caused by:
A. a cracked tooth
B. acute reversible pulpitis
C. acute irreversible pulpitis
D. acute apical periodontitis
# Hall mark signs of neuropathic pain are mechanical hyperalgesia and:
A. Allodynia
B. Alopecia
C. Allocretia
D. Allogeusia
# Internal resorption:
A. will appear as lesion superimposed over an unaltered canal in a radiograph
B. is associated with a systemic disease
C. is frequently associated with trauma
D. requires deferment of treatment with 'careful watching'
# Which of the following may be used to fill the pathologic void of a non perforating internal resorption?
A. Silver amalgam
B. Gutta percha
C. Zinc oxide Eugenol
D. All of the above
# Pulpal inflammation is marked by:
A. Peripheral vasoconstriction
B. Strangulation of pulp
C. Increased vascular permeability
D. Decreased capillary pressure
# A tooth with a chronic alveolar abscess would have all of the following features EXCEPT:
A. Always symptomatic
B. Detected only during routine radiographic examination
C. Presence of a sinus tract
D. The sinus tract provides continual drainage of the periradicular lesion
# Normal intrapulpal pressure is:
A. 10 mm Hg
B. 5 mm Hg
C. 7 mm Hg
D. 15 mm Hg
# Which of the following can be used to diagnose a cracked tooth ?
A. Methylene blue staining
B. Tooth slooth
C. Transillumination
D. All of the above
# Immediate treatment of a cracked tooth involves:
A. Stabilization with orthodontic band
B. Extraction
C. Relief from occlusion
D. Full coverage crown
# Odontalgia that is occasionally typical in hypertensive patients is a result of:
A. Headache radiating to the teeth
B. Nervous tension and worry
C. Hyperaemia of pulp resulting from increased blood pressure
D. Abnormal stimulation of the systemic nerve system
# A 25 year old male comes with a complaint of throbbing pain in the upper part of the cheek or entire side of face, heavy feeling in the face, which exacerbates on bending down and associated with pyrexia. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Acute dentoalveolar abscess in relation to upper first molar
B. Irreversible pulpitis in relation to upper second molar
C. Acute maxillary sinusitis
D. Acute periodontal abscess in relation to upper first molar
# Pain, temperature, touch from pulp are carried by which one of the following type of nerve fibers?
A. A alpha
B. A beta
C. A delta
D. A gamma
# Predisposing clinical condition for endodontic flare up:
A. Acute periapical abscess
B. Acute apical periodontitis
C. Asymptomatic necrotic pulp with periapical lesion
D. Pain and swelling since the treatment
# Nerve fibers in pulp are:
A. Sympathetic efferent postganglionic
B. Parasympathetic post ganglionic
C. Motor fibers
D. Both autonomic parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers
# Reactive oxygen metabolite in lysosomes is released by:
A. Peroxidase
B. NADPH oxidase
C. Superoxide dismutase
D. Catalase
# Halo effect surrounding the root of tooth on IOPA X ray is seen with:
A. Horizontal root fracture
B. Root caries
C. Widening of periodontal ligament space
D. Periapical periostitis
# Inflammation of the periapical tissue is sustained by which of the following?
A. Stagnant tissue fluid
B. Necrotic tissue
C. Microorganisms
D. Pus cells
# Pulp of involved teeth is vital in the following:
A. Apical cyst
B. Granuloma
C. Apical periodontitis
D. Phoenix abscess
# Which of the following is most susceptible to local anesthetics?
A. A alpha fibers
B. A beta fibers
C. A delta fibers
D. C fibers
# The most important diagnostic test to differentiate between an acute periapical abscess and a phoenix abscess is:
A. Pulp testing
B. Radiographs
C. History
D. Percussion
# Which of the following irrigant is used during opening of a tooth with acute pulpal abscess?
A. Normal saline
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Sodium hypochlorite
D. EDTA
# All of the following are contraindications for root planing except:
A. deficient or overhanging margins of amalgam restorations
B. erosion and/or abrasion
C. recession
D. root caries
# While sharpening curettes and sickles, the internal angle of ________ must be preserved between the face and lateral surface.
A. 50-60
B. 60-70
C. 70-80
D. 80-90
Though we all are aware of the fact that prevention is better and cheaper than cure and it is prudent to take preventive measures in health care rather than curing once we are afflicted by the disease, we seldom apply that in our practice. It is good to see that people are oriented more towards preventive measures and have started to get regular health check up and dental check ups these days. Even the children are getting more care than they used to get in the past, may be because of awareness, availability of health care facilities, or rise in the economic standard of the households. People may not have idea about how they should take care of their child's teeth even if they are willing to. This short article attempts to address the concerns of such parents.
1. When should the first dental visit be?
This is a common question people are unsure about. When should they take their children to the dentist ? The first dental visit should be at around the time of eruption of first deciduous teeth (i.e. 6 months) and not later than 1 year of age of the baby. If your child has teeth since birth (natal teeth) or if a tooth erupts within one month of birth (neonatal teeth), that may traumatize the delicate gums of the opposite arch. You need to check that on your own and consult a dentist if necessary. If your child has got cleft lip and palate since birth, the repair should be done as soon as possible consulting a oral and maxillofacial surgeon.
Administration of fluid by any root other than the alimentary canal (per oral) i.e. intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous or into bone marrow is called Parenteral Fluid Therapy.
Intravenous route is by far the most common method for parenteral fluid therapy. Mostly, the median cubital vein in the cubital fossa is used for venepuncture.
Retainer: The part of Fixed Partial Denture which unites the abutment to the remainder of restoration.
Major retainers are those retainers which cover the entire occluding surface of the tooth. Eg. Full veneer crowns, partial veneer crowns. Minor retainers are small metallic extensions which are cemented on the tooth. Eg. Inlays, Onlays.
Parikrama Students' Family presents with you all a new version of our most successful and most awaited grand program Symposium cum Talk Show - III - Exploring New Frontiers Of Collaboration: Medicine And Humanities on 17th and 18th November 2017.
It will indeed be a great program rife with motivation, philosophy and human emotions in relation to science and medicine.
Indeed, this program will be a power pack for you to recharge yourself and expand the ken of your knowledge. We want to see you all there.
NOTE: We shall also have an opportunity to watch the Premiere Show of the movie : "Jeevan Kada Ki Phool" sitting along with the writer and the person whose life story is the movie and the book of the same title, Jhamak Ghimire on 17th and 18th November. Please secure your seats as soon as possible. Contact any members of Parikrama Students' Family or send us a message at Parikrama Students' Family for the tickets.
It is known as the most serious, late complication of therapeutic radiotherapy (RT) for head and neck (H and N) cancer, as it produces considerable morbidity.
# Coagulative necrosis is:
A. Characteristic of focal bacterial infections
B. Characteristic of hypoxic death
C. Characterized by loss of tissue architecture
D. None of the above
# Dystrophic calcification are calcifications seen in:
A. Skin layers
B. Salivary glands
C. Normal tissues
D. Dead Tissue
NOTE: If you cannot find any books here in the list below, You can search yourself in the Library Genesis Website Database.
DISCLAIMER: We do not store any of these books in our database and these links provided may subject to change. We are simply redirecting you to the website that serves free download of these books. We'll not be held responsible for any damages incurred by the publishers and writers. Please contact us (Email to: dentosphere.worldofdentistry@gmail.com) immediately if some links are not working.
Please Click the Link of the book you would like to download , and click GET for downloading the file.
There are nine different types of Glass Ionomer Cements (GIC) based on their application. We should know which particular type of GIC we are supposed to use for what purpose. The different types of GIC are:
Type I – Luting
Type II - Restorative
Type III - Base / Liner
Type IV – Pit and Fissure Sealants
Type V – Luting for Orthodontic purposes
Type VI – Core Buildup material
Type VII – High Fluoride releasing command set
Type VIII – (ART) Atraumatic restorative treatment
Type IX – Pediatric Glass Ionomer Cement
This can easily be memorized by the Mnemonics : @ LittleRestBetween FussyOrthodonticClasses Flourishes ARTistic Children.
Type I – Luting
Type II - Restorative
Type III - Base / Liner
Type IV – Pit and Fissure Sealants
Type V – Luting for Orthodontic purposes
Type VI – Core Buildup material
Type VII – High Fluoride releasing command set
Type VIII – (ART) Atraumatic restorative treatment
Type IX – Pediatric Glass Ionomer Cement
# Trismus associated with infection of lateral pharyngeal space is related to irritation of the:
A. Buccinator
B. Masseter
C. Lateral pterygoid
D. Medial pterygoid
# Garre's osteomyelitis is:
A. Chronic focal sclerosis and non suppurative osteomyelitis
B. Chronic focal sclerosis and suppurative osteomyelitis
C. Characterized by suppuration and acute pain
D. Chronic diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis
# Which of the following is not a mandibular major connector?
A. Lingual plate
B. Lingual bar
C. Lingual arch
D. Labial bar
# The function of minor connector is:
A. Connects major connector to all the components of RPD
B. Prevents gingival displacement of the RPD
C. Allows a single path of placement of the RPD
D. It is that unit of RPD to which all other parts are directly or indirectly attached
# Which of the following local anesthetic agent would be preferred in prolonged surgical procedure?
A. Bupivacaine
B. Cocaine
C. Lignocaine
D. Prilocaine
# Which of the following is not a theory for local anesthetic action?
A. Membrane expansion theory
B. Calcium displacement theory
C. Electrical potential theory
D. Specific receptor theory
E. None of the above
The worst form of inequality is to try to make unequal things equal.
(Aristotle)
Justice cannot be for one side alone but must be for both.
(Eleanor Roosevelt)
Ethics and equity and the principles of justice do not change with the calendar.
(DH Lawrence)
The genesis of equality and equity as a concept of social justice arose from a history of evolving philosophies of societal organization and distribution of human rights, responsibilities and services. The principles of equity and equality are always relevant in the context of distributive justice as well as variety of social justice issues. These principles all appeal the idea that fair treatment is a matter of giving people what they deserve. In general, people deserve to be rewarded for their effort and productivity, punished for their transgressions, treated as equal persons, and have their basic needs met. However, because these principles may come into conflict, it is often difficult to achieve these goals simultaneously. The central theories underlying the equity paradigm follow, providing a theoretical background for the concept of equality and justice and its relevance in today’s highly unequal world.
# A blue nodular mass on the lateral border of the tongue is soft, smooth and blanches upon pressure. It is most likely to be:
A. Lymphoma
B. Hemangioma
C. Epulis Fissuratum
D. Epithelioma
# Leutic glossitis can occur in connection with:
A. Vitamin B deficiency
B. Vitamin C deficiency
C. Iron deficiency
D. Syphilis
# Of the following four bacterial species, which is least likely to be found in plaque ?
A. Actinomyces viscosus
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Streptococcus salivarius
D. Streptococcus sanguis
# The common etiology of periodontitis is:
A. Occlusal trauma
B. Systemic factors
C. Local irritating factors
D. Hormonal defects
# Predominant bacteria found in two days old plaque is:
A. Streptococci
B. Bacteroides
C. Spirochaetes
D. Actinomyces
# In deep older plaque :
A. Streptococci and Actinomyces are replaced by rod-like organism
B. Streptococci are completely replaced by Neisseria
C. Streptococci, Actinomyces and Veilonella remain prominent
D. Actinomyces are completely replaced by Streptococci
# Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans is commonly associated with:
A. Juvenile periodontitis
B. Adult periodontitis
C. Refractory periodontitis
D. All of the above
# Supragingival plaque causes:
A. Gingivitis
B. Periodontitis
C. Pericoronitis
D. Aphthous ulcers
# The organism least likely to be found in normal gingival crevices is:
A. Fusobacterium
B. Actinomyces
C. Diptheroids
D. Streptococci
# The sticky polysaccharide present in dental plaque is:
A. Dextran
B. Dextrin
C. Glycogen
D. Sucrose
# Which of the following organisms is not implicated in the etiology of periodontal disease:
A. Bacteroides
B. Wolinella
C. Neisseria
D. Eikenella
# Bacteria, which are not found in normal healthy periodontium, are:
A. Actinomyces
B. Capnocytophaga
C. Veillonella
D. Eubacterium
# Most important initiative factor for periodontitis is:
A. Dental plaque
B. Calculus
C. Trauma from occlusion
D. Food debris layer
# Dental plaque adheres to the tooth because:
A. Levans are gummy
B. Dextrans are insoluble and sticky
C. Plaque grows into the irregularities
D. Microorganisms produce sticky lipoproteins
# In which of the following conditions is the role of microbial plaque most obscure:
A. Periodontitis
B. Juvenile periodontitis
C. Desquamative gingivitis
D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
# "Corn-cub" appearance is seen in:
A. Supragingival calculus
B. Subgingival calculus
C. Supragingival plaque
D. Subgingival plaque
# Central gram negative core supporting outer coccal cells are called:
A. Bristle brush arrangement
B. Corncob arrangement
C. Bottlebrush arrangement
D. Hourglass arrangement
# Breakdown of periodontal fibers in periodontitis is due to bacterial enzyme:
A. Collagenase
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Coagulase
D. None of the above
# Pellicle formation involves:
A. Adsorption of acidic glycoproteins from saliva
B. Focal areas of mineralisation
C. Focal areas of necrosis
D. Bacterial colonisation
# Which of the follwing is the common factor for the initiation of both dental caries and periodontal disease?
A. bacterial plaque
B. lactic acid
C. calculus
D. no common factor
# Severe alveolar bone loss, as observed in juvenile periodontitis ia associated with:
A. Cyclic neutropenia
B. Lysis of neutrophils
C. Increased phagocytosis
D. Impaired neutrophil chemotaxis
# The inorganic component of plaque is primary:
A. Calcium and fluoride
B. Calcium and sodium
C. Calcium and phosphorus
D. Sodium and calcium
# Co-aggregation is mainly predominated by:
A. interaction between gram +ve bacteria
B. interaction between gram -ve bacteria
C. interaction between gram +ve and gram -ve bacteria
D. None of the above
# Which of the folowing is a periodontal pathogen?
A. S. sanguis
B. S. mutans
C. A. viscosus
D. P. gingivalis
# Increases in steroid hormones are associated with significant increases in:
A. Actinomyces viscosus
B. Prevotella intermedia
C. Streptococcus sanguis
D. Campylobacter rectus
# The carbohydrate not associated with dental plaque is:
A. Dextrose
B. Levans
C. Glucose
D. Rhamnose
# Specific plaque hypothesis was put forward by:
A. Jenco
B. Listgarten
C. Loesche
D. None of the above
# Which is the most numerous component of plaque?
A. Minerals
B. Food debris
C. Microorganisms
D. Leucocytes
# Which surface of tooth has most of plaque ?
A. Gingival third of tooth surface
B. Incisal one third of tooth surface
C. Middle third of tooth surface
D. Uniform on all surfaces
# A bacterial enzyme capable of altering the ground substance of the periodontal ligament is:
A. Amylase
B. Mucinase
C. Dextranase
D. Hyaluronidase
# In later phases of plaque development the organism which predominates is:
A. Staphylococci
B. Streptococci
C. Rods and filaments
D. Vibrio and Spirochetes
# Which of the following plaque is most harmful and causes spread of inflammation to the connective tissue leading to bone destruction?
A. Subgingival epithelial attached
B. Subgingival unattached
C. Subgingival plaque
D. Supragingival plaque
# Dental plaque is formed by reaction of enzymes on:
A. Sucrose and lipids
B. Glucose and proteins
C. Glucose and lipids
D. Sucrose and saliva
# The bacteria of oral flora which plays least role in periodontitis is:
A. Actinomyces
B. Actinomycetam comitans
C. Spirochetes
D. Bacteriodes
# Majority of oral microorganisms are:
A. Strict anaerobes
B. Gram positive bacilli
C. Spirochetes
D. Facultative anaerobes
# The bacterial flora associated with juvenile periodontitis is mainly:
A. Gram +ve aerobic cocci
B. Gram +ve anaerobic cocci
C. Gram -ve aerobic cocci
D. Gram -ve anaerobic cocci
# The inorganic component of subgingival plaque is derived from:
A. Saliva
B. Crevicular fluid
C. A and B
D. Fluids ingested
# Which of the following is the most likely source of collagenase ?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Bacteroides gingivalis
C. Treponema microdentum
D. Veilonella alkalescens
# Plaque differs from materia alba in:
A. presence of bacteria
B. presence of glycoprotein
C. presence of saliva
D. Absence of glycoprotein
# Bacteria in plaque form:
A. Intracellular polysaccharides
B. Extracellular polysaccharides
C. Both A and B
D. Complex polysaccharides
# Which of the following is first formed after tooth brushing?
A. Materia alba
B. Plaque
C. Pellicle
D. Calculus
# Pellicle is a:
A. Salivary protein
B. Plaque
C. Microorganism
D. Calculus
# Pre-requisite for plaque formation:
A. Pellicle
B. Glycoprotein
C. Mucopolysaccharide
D. Dextran
# Tanerella forsythia is a ___________ periodontal pathogen.
A. Gram positive, non obligate
B. Non pleomorphhic rod
C. non obligate anaerobe
D. non motile, spindle shaped
# Electronic instrument used to measure gingival crevicular fluid is:
A. Pericheck
B. Periotemp
C. Perioscan
D. Periotron
# Ecologic determinants of plaque depend on all except:
A. Sugar content of diet
B. Host resistance
C. Age and sex of the patient
D. Status of dentition
# Salivary pellicle is composed of the following except:
A. Immunoglobulin G
B. Immunoglobulin A
C. Amylase
D. Albumin
# Biofilm in general have:
A. Crystalline structure
B. Stereoline structure
C. Organized structure
D. Disorganized structure
# A test that can be used for typing of class I histocompatibility antigens is:
A. Cell mediated Lympholysis (CML)
B. Donor-recepient mixed lymphocyte response
C. Primed lymphocyte typing
D. Antibody and complement mediated cytotoxicity
# Does sub-gingival scaling alters the microflora of periodontal pocket?
A. never gets altered
B. alters aerobes only
C. gets altered
D. alters anaerobes only
# The primary etiological factor in the development of furcation defect is:
A. Calculus
B. Plaque
C. Cemental caries
D. Root infection
# A glycoprotein that promotes new attachment and increased cell proliferation is:
A. Fibronectin
B. Fibropectin
C. Glycogen
D. Glycosaminoglycans
# In periodontal disease, ground substance is dissolved by:
A. Hyaluronidase
B. Coagulase
C. Phosphorylase
D. Acid phosphatase
# The biofilms found on tooth surface are termed as:
A. Enamel
B. Dental Caries
C. Dental Plaque
D. Saliva
# The lactoperoxidase thiocynate system present in saliva is against:
A. A. actinomycetemcomitans
B. Streptococcus
C. P. Gingivalis
D. Actinomyces
# Which is the enzyme that prevents the adhesion of Actinomyces to the tooth structure?
A. Enolase
B. Glucosyl transferase
C. Xanthine oxidase
D. Myeloperoxidase
# Commonly isolated organism from oral cavity is:
A. Streptococcus sanguis
B. Streptococcus pyogens
C. Neisseria gonorrhoea
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
# Primary colonization of plaque is dominated by:
A. Facultative aerobic gram +ve rods
B. Facultative anaerobic gram -ve rods
C. Facultative aerobic gram negative cocci
D. Facultative anaerobic gram +ve cocci
# Periodontitis is caused by:
A. Malnutrition
B. Supragingival plaque
C. Biofilm
D. Faulty toothbrushing
# The gram negative bacteria most numerous in oral cavity is:
A. Streptococci
B. Veillonella
C. Selenomous
D. Eikenella
# Which one of the following species of Streptococci is usually not found in dental plaque?
A. S. mutans
B. S. sanguis
C. S. pyogens
D. S. salivarius
# Which component of diet affects plaque composition ?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Mineral
C. Protein
D. Fats/lipids
# Microorganism which uses steroids as growth factor is:
A. P. gingivalis
B. P. intermedia
C. S. sanguis
D. S. mutans
# Which of the following is the method of transferring information in a biofilm ?
A. Quorum sensing
B. Conjugation
C. Plasmid transfer
D. All of the above
# The growth of Porphyromonas gingivalis is enhanced by a metabolic byproduct succinate produced by:
A. Streptococcus
B. Capnocytophaga
C. Actinomyces
D. Veillonella
# All of the following organisms can be detected by BANA analysis except:
A. Tannerella forsythia
B. Porphyromonas gingivalis
C. Capnocytophaga
D. A. actinomycetemcomitans
# Bacteria in plaque are held together by:
A. Hydrophobic forces
B. Covalent forces
C. Vander waal's forces
D. All of the above
# Which one of the following complexes of periodontal microorganisms is associated with bleeding on probing?
A. Red complex
B. Orange complex
C. Green complex
D. Yellow complex
# Bacterial communication with each other in a biofilm is known as:
A. Corncob formations
B. Coaggregations
C. Quorum sensing
D. Translocation
# Which is characteristic of supragingival plaque and not of subgingival plaque in Humans?
A. motile bacteria are predominant
B. Spirochaetes are evident microscopically
C. gram negative bacteria are predominant
D. bacterial composition is altered by dietary sugar composition
# The number of bacteria in the oral cavity is greater:
A. in the morning
B. after meals
C. at night
D. after brushing
# Which of the following substances play a major role in regulating cell to cell and cell- matrix interaction in cementum?
A. Sharpey's fibers
B. Intrinsic fibers
C. Proteoglycans
D. Phosphoproteins
# Enterococcus fecalis in post treatment periodontitis:
A. cultured easily and disinfected
B. disinfected with saline and hydrogen peroxide
C. Tolerate pH upto 11.5
D. Treated with intracanal medicaments
# After enamel has been exposed to bacteria, irreversible bacterial colonization takes place in about:
A. 24 hours
B. Few minutes
C. 1-2 hours
D. 2-4 hours
# Supragingival plaque undergoes which of the following changes with time?
A. Plaque mass increases
B. Plaque microflora becomes more gram positive
C. Plaque microflora becomes more gram negative
D. Plaque microflora becomes predominantly spirochetal
# The red complex associated with bleeding in probing comprises of:
A. E. corrodens, A. actinomycetemcomitans, Capnocytophaga
B. A. naeslundii, A. viscosus, A. odontolyticus
C. P. gingivalis, T. forsythia, T. denticola
D. Streptococcus, Fusobacterium, Campylobacter
# Black pigmented bacteroides release ______ as agent responsible for unpleasant smell of breath.
A. methyl mercaptan
B. Hydrogen sulphide
C. dimethyl sulphide
D. Propionic acid
# Which of the following is true about tooth associated subgingival plaque?
A. has both gram +ve and -ve bacteria
B. extends till the junctional epithelium
C. may penetrate cementum
D. associated with gingivitis and periodontitis
# According to Glickman, maximum accumulation of plaque takes place in approximately:
A. 7 days
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
# After cleaning and pumicing the tooth surface, plaque formation takes place within:
A. a few minutes
B. half to one hour
C. 2 to 4 hour
D. after 6 hours
# Which of the following species is found in abundance in adult plaque?
A. Fusobacterium
B. Leptotrichia
C. Bacteroides
D. All of the above
# Bacterial "finger printing" reveals that periodontal pathogens are:
A. Contagious
B. Non - contagious
C. Transmissible within member of same colonies
D. Non transmissible
