AIIMS MDS Entrance Examination MCQs - November 2001

# If during the activation of orthodontic appliance, the force level declines to zero between activations, then the force is classified as:
A. Continuous force
B. Interrupted force
C. Intermittent force
D. Differential force

# The most penetrating power is in:
A. Alpha radiation
B. Beta radiation
C. Gamma radiation
D. Electron beam

# Elastic cartilage is found in:
A. Auditory tube
B. Articular catilage
C. Costal cartilage
D. Nasal septum

# Following an elective Le Fort 1 surgery, a patient develops 24 hours later temperature of 102 degree F without local edema and tenderness. He is probably suffering from:
A. Infective endocarditis
B. Sinusitis
C. Infected hematoma
D. Atelectasis

# The prime action of topical fluoride is:
A. conversion of hydoxyapatite to fluorapatite
B. decrease in the plaque bacteria
C. form a resevoir in saliva
D. improve morphology of teeth

# The common complication of the local anesthetic prilocaine is:
A. Agranulocytosis
B. Hepatic dysfunction
C. Methemoglobinemia
D. Loss of taste

# The most common problem with blood transfusion is:
A. Hemolytic reaction
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Hypokalemia
D. Remission of disease

# Guddu, a 16 year old boy is brought to hospital with 60% burns. Management includes:
A. Packed red cells
B. Whole blood
C. Plasma
D. Fibrinogen

# Dermatologic manifestation of drug allergy afe managed by:
A. Lorazepam
B. Pirenzepine
C. Ranitidine
D. Chlorpheniramine

# Osteomyelitis of the mandible is caused by:
A. Nocardia asteroids
B. Borrhelia vincentii
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Actinomyces bovis

# To restrict the mandibular growth in a skeletal class III malocclusion, the minimum amount of force from a chin cup should be:
A. 1.5 - 2 gm/mm2 area of condylar head
B. 6 - 7 gm/mm2 area of condylar head
C. 15 - 20 gm/mm2 area of condylar head
D. 25 - 30 gm/mm2 area of condylar head

# The proximal fragment in a fracture of angle of mandible is displaced:
A. Anteriorly and Superiorly
B. Only posteriorly
C. Only inferiorly
D. Inferiorly and anteriorly

# The microorganism implicated in infective endocarditis is:
A. Streptococcus mitis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus viridans
D. Staphylococcus pyogenes

# The case control studies following the distribution of smokers and non smokers in patients of oral carcinoma and control is as follows. Smokers with oral cancer: 30, Non smokers with oral cancer:20, Control Smokers: 20, Control Non smokers: 30. The odds ratio of getting oral cancer in smokers to that of non smokers is:
A. 0.44
B. 1.0
C. 1.5
D. 2.25

# Iron and folic acid supplement given to children is a form of:
A. Primordial prevention
B. Specific protection
C. Health promotion
D. Early intervention

# In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a:
A. hapten
B. carrier
C. super antigen
D. toxin

# Enzyme that catalyses the transfer of a functional group from one molecule to another is called:
A. Oxidases
B. Peptidases
C. Transferases
D. Lipases

# The artery most commonly involved in stroke is the:
A. Lenticulostriate
B. Anterior cerebral
C. Posterior cerebral
D. Middle meningeal

# The primary germ layers develop during:
A. Pre somite period
B. Somite period
C. Fetal period
D. Post somite period

# Maxillary marrow contains:
A. all fatty marrow
B. red marrow
C. fibrous marow
D. Fatty and fibrous marrow

# Epiphora is:
A. Cerebral tumor
B. Leak of cerebrospinal fluid through the nose due to fracture of anterior fossa
C. Abnormal overflow of tears following obstruction to the nasolacrimal duct
D. Eversion of the lower eyelid

# Sensory supply of the palate is through all of the following except:
A. Facial nerve
B. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve

# Calcium ions trigger muscles contraction by binding to:
A. Actin
B. Myosin
C. Troponin
D. Tropomysin

# Which of the following is present in the plasma but absent in serum ?
A. Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Lecithin
D. Fibrinogen

# Which of the following functions of bone is most prominent ?
A. Calcium reservoir
B. Sodium reservoir
C. Phosphate source
D. Buffering

# Significant decrease in serum calcium will cause:
A. Hyperirritability of nerves and muscles
B. Positive ionotropic and chronotropic effect on the heart
C. Sudden increase in the thyroid and parathyroid
D. Hyperirritability of nerves and muscles

# Magnesium is needed for the activity of which enzyme?
A. Phosphatase
B. Aldolase
C. Dismutase
D. ATPase

# The following host tissue responses can be seen in acute inflammation EXCEPT:
A. Exudation
B. Vasodilation
C. Margination
D. Granuloma formation

# If both the parents have cleft lip and cleft palate, the probability of first child having the same condition is:
A. 1:5 (20%)
B. 1:25 (4%)
C. 1:10 (10%)
D. 3:5 (60%)

# Toxoids are prepared by treating the toxins with:
A. Formaldehyde
B. Pepsin
C. Papain
D. Trypsin


# Which of the following is an obligate intracellular parasite?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Rickettsia
D. Gram positive bacilli

# All of the following drugs cause dry mouth EXCEPT:
A. Atropine
B. Chlorpheniramine
C. Imipramine
D. Neostigmine

# In a patient with fixed respiratory obstruction, helium is used along with oxygen instead of plain because:
A. It decreases oxygenation
B. It decreases turbulence
C. It provides analgesia
D. It decreases the dead space

# Renal osteodystrophy differs from the nutritional and genetic form of osteomalacia in having:
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia

# Bhanu, a 8 year old child has fever, bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy preceded by a sore throat. There is no hepatomegaly. Peripheral blood shows >20% lymphoplasmacytoid cells, no anemia or thrombocytopenia. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Influenza
B. Tuberculosis
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

# Gastric lavage is indicated in all cases of acute poisoning ideally because of:
A. Fear of aspiration
B. Danger of cardiac arrest
C. Danger of respiratory arrest
D. Inadequate ventilation

# Rajesh, a 7 months old, presents with failure of gaining weight and noisy breathing which becomes worse when the child cries. Laryngoscopy shows a reddish mass in subglottis. Treatment modality may include all except:
A. Radiation
B. Steroids
C. Tracheostomy
D. Carbondioxide laser treatment

# A 50 year old male which is a chronic smoker, complains of hoarseness of voice for the past 4 months. Microlaryngoscopic biopsy shows it to be keratosis of larynx. All are suggested treatment modalities for this condition, EXCEPT:
A. Laser vaporizer
B. Stop smoking
C. Stripping of vocal cord
D. Partial laryngectomy

# A patient with carcinoma of the tongue also has enlarged lymph nodes of the lower neck. Treatement involves:
A. Suprahyoid dissection
B. Supraomohyoid neck dissection
C. Radial neck dissection
D. Teleradiotherapy

# Correct about cystic hygroma is:
A. It is cavernous hemangioma
B. Complication of hyperhidrosis
C. Brilliantly translucent
D. Variety of hydradenitis

# The setting time of zinc phosphate may be retarded by:
A. Increasing the rate of addition of power to liquid
B. Increasing the powder to liquid ratio
C. Diluting the liquid with small amount of water
D. Decreasing the rate of addition of power to liquid

# A thinner mix of gypsum bonded investment will result in:
A. Produce a smoother casting
B. Decrease setting expansion
C. Increase setting expansion
D. Increase thermal expansion

# Cobalt chromium alloys contain:
A. 30% Cobalt and 60% Chromium
B. 60% Cobalt and 30% Chromium
C. 15% Platinum
D. 20% Gold

# Direct wax pattern may distort due to:
A. Release of internal stresses
B. Composition of wax
C. Method of heating the wax
D. The placement of reservoir

# Which is true for high copper amalgam alloy as compared with a conventional alloy ?
A. Poor tensile and compressive strength
B. Good tarnish and corrosion resistance
C. Lower edge strength
D. Mercury content in the final restoration is more

# Tooth buds which develop after birth are:
A. All permanent teeth
B. All permanent teeth and some primary teeth
C. First premolar, second premolar, second molar, third molar
D. First molar

# Before eruption, the position of permanent mandibular incisor buds relative to primary incisors is:
A. Superior and facial
B. Superior and lingual
C. Inferior and lingual
D. Inferior and facial

# Primary function of the dental pulp is to:
A. Form dentin
B. Provide nutrition
C. Provide sensation
D. Assure root end closure

# The vascular supply of the periodontal ligament is:
A. Greatest in the middle third of a multi-rooted tooth
B. Greatest in a middle third of a single rooted tooth
C. A net-like plexus that runs closer to the cementum than to the bone
D. A net-like plexus that runs closer to the bone than to cementum

# The most frequently found salivary gland tumor is:
A. Mucoepidermoid tumor
B. Warthin's tumor
C. Acinic cell tumor
D. Pleomorphic adenoma

# The most common tumor of the mandible in India is:
A. Adamantinoma
B. Osteogenic sarcoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Pleomorphic tumor

# The most common site of Ameloblastoma is:
A. Upper alveolar margin in the midline
B. Mandibular symphysis menti
C. Mandibular molar region
D. Hard palate

# Radiographic finding in Pindborg tumor is:
A. Sun-burst appearance
B. Onion peel appearance
C. Driven-snow appearance
D. Cherry blossom appearance

# The microorganism most commonly cultured from chronic bilateral ulcer at the corner of the mouth is:
A. Mucor
B. Candida
C. Treponema
D. Aspergillus


# What contrast is needed for proper radiographic image in a heavy bony built person?
A. Increase in mA
B. Increase in kVp
C. Increase in exposure time
D. Increase in developing time

# In a post operative ward, a patient wound infection after 48 hours of an oral surgical procedure done, 3 more patients also develop postoperative infection. Most effective method to prevent further spread is:
A. Prescribe broad spectrum antibiotics to all patients
B. Fumigation of the ward with formaldehyde
C. Cleaning with 10% formaldehyde
D. Hand washing of all staff

# The clinical findings in subcondylar fracture of the left side are:
A. Trismus and bilateral crepitus
B. Inability to deviate mandible to the right
C. Deviation of the mandible to the right on protrusion
D. Premature molar contact on the right

# The action of long acting muscle relaxants used during GA may be terminated by:
A. Neostigmine
B. Atropine
C. Ketamine
D. Succinylcholine

# The distolingual extension of mandibular impression is limited by:
A. Stylohyoid muscle
B. Medial Pterygoid muscle
C. Lateral pterygoid muscle
D. Superior constrictor muscle

# An imaginary occlusal curve that contacts the buccal and lingual cusp tips of mandibular buccal teeth is called the:
A. Catenary curve
B. Curve of Spee
C. Monson curve
D. Wilson curve

# An overload of mucosa will occur if:
A. Prosthetic teeth used for replacement are non anatomic teeth
B. The bases covering the supportive area are too small
C. Bases covering the supportive area are too large
D. Bases covering the supportive area are overextended distally

# A mucostatic impression for a prosthesis is taken for which of the following cases?
A. Lower RPD with Kennedy I classification
B. Lower RPD with Kennedy II classification
C. Upper RPD with Kennedy IV classification
D. Full upper and lower denture

# Resilient silicine denture lining materials are superior to plasticized acrylic resin as:
A. Bond strength with a denture is increased
B. They remain resilient for a short time
C. They do not support fungal growth
D. Tissue adaptation is better

# The terms most closely related to each other in recording jaw relations are the:
A. Face bow transfer and centric relation
B. Hinge axis transfer and protrusive guidance
C. Hinge axis transfer and incisal guidance
D. Protrusion records and condylar articular guidance

# Before an arbitrary face bow transfer record, the dentist must determine:
A. Physiologic rest position
B. Inhalation of mercury vapors
C. Axial centre of rotation of condyle
D. Kinetic axis of movement of condyle

# An adverse pulpal reaction is likely to occur if the following material is placed directly into a deep cavity:
A. Amalgam
B. Composite resin
C. Calcium hydroxide
D. Polycarboxylate

# The greatest potential hazard of chronic mercury toxicity occurs due to:
A. Skin contact with mercury
B. Inhalation of mercury vapors
C. Amalgam restoration in a patient
D. Ingestion of amalgam scrap during removal of old restoration

# Core built on a molar tooth should preferably be done with a chemically cured composite as:
A. Light cure resin lacks sufficient strength for a core
B. Core made with a light cure resin would be too opaque and esthetically unacceptable
C. Core made with a light cure resin would be too brittle and would fracture easily
D. Its lower viscosity allows free flow of resin also around pins and post

# Tooth in the mandibular arch which is most likely to be displaced due to arch size discrepancy is:
A. First molar
B. Second molar
C. First premolar
D. Second premolar

# Baker's anchorage is a type of:
A. Intramaxillary anchorage
B. Intermaxillary anchorage
C. Extraoral anchorage
D. Muscular anchorage

# Which of the following is not a tooth borne functional appliance?
A. Activator
B. Bionator
C. Herbst appliance
D. Frankel appliance

# Which of the following clasp is preferable on a partially erupted tooth for an adequate retention of a removable orthodontic appliance?
A. Circumferential clasp
B. Adam's clasp
C. Jackson's clasp
D. Southend clasp

# Which of the following enzymes decreases the rate of orthodontic movement?
A. Cyclooxygenase
B. Metalloproteins
C. Alkaline phosphatase
D. Protein kinase

# Which of the following appliances is not used for slow maxillary expansion?
A. Jack screw
B. Coffin spring
C. Quad helix appliance
D. Hyrax appliance

# Which of the following analysis helps in determining the disproportion in the size between maxillary and mandibular teeth?
A. Pont's analysis
B. Bolton's analysis
C. Peck and Peck's analysis
D. Carey's analysis

# Which of the following is true about Catlan's appliance?
A. It is used to treat cross bite of the maxillary posterior teeth
B. It is constructed on the anterior lower teeth with an inclined plane
C. If used for a long period it results in anterior deep bite
D. If constructed on the upper anterior teeth, has a 45 degree angulation

# Which of the following adhesives is preferred for lending an orthodontic bracket on a patient of Amelogenesis imperfecta?
A. BIS-GMA composite resin
B. Acrylic resin
C. Glass ionomer cement
D. No mix adhesive

# The number of sites examined to assess the stages of bone maturation in Fishman's skeletal maturation index are:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

# Which of the following classification uses the 'canine law' malocclusion in sagittal direction?
A. Bennet's classifcation
B. Simon's classification
C. Dewey's classification
D. Lischer's classification

# In orthdontics, "DOCKRELL's equation" is associated with:
A. Classifcation of malocclusion
B. Etiology of malocclusion
C. Dewey classification
D. Prognosis of Malocclusion

# Which of the following cephalometric analysis does not reveal the severity of anteroposterior jaw dysplasia?
A. Down's analysis
B. Steiner's analysis
C. Tweed's analysis
D. Wit's analysis

# Which of the following head gear is preferred while treating a class II div 1 malocclusion with a horizontal growth trend?
A. High pull head gear
B. Medium pull head gear
C. Cervical head gear
D. Reverse head gear

# The best method to show the association between height and weight of children in class is by:
A. Bar chart
B. Line diagram
C. Scatter diagram
D. Histogram

# The systolic blood pressure in normal healthy males of age group 40-60 has a normal distribution with mean 130 in a sample of 100. People with systolic blood pressure more than 130 will be:
A. 100
B. 75
C. 50
D. 20

# In a study, variation in cholesterol was seen before and after giving drug. The test which would give its significance is:
A. Unpaired t-test
B. Paired t-test
C. Chi square test
D. Fischer test

# Green Vermillion index measures:
A. Periodontal disease
B. Oral hygiene
C. Bone level
D. Gingival health

# The stiffness of the bristles of the nylon tooth brush is dependent on the:
A. Diameter and length of filament
B. Amount of polish of filament
C. Color of filament
D. Consistency of shape of filament

# Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a:
A. ELISA
B. Immunodot
C. RIPA
D. Western blot

# Which of the following movements are performed by a non working condyle?
A. Straight forward
B. Downwards forward lateral
C. Downwards forward medial
D. Downward backward medial