A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Glycogen storage diseases
C. Hereditary fructose intolerance
D. Galactosemia
# Excessive intake (hypervitaminosis) of which of the following vitamins is associated with increased risk of congenital malformations?
A. Vitamin A
B. Biotin
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin K
# Gold standard surgical procedure for prevention of aspiration is:
A. Thyroplasty
B. Tracheostomy
C. Tracheal division and permanent tracheostome
D. Feeding gastrostomy / jejunostomy
# The presence of small size platelets on the peripheral smear is characteristic of:
A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Bernard Soulier syndrome
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D. Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome
# Which one of the following therapeutic mode is commonly employed in intra operative radiotherapy?
A. X-rays
B. Gamma rays
C. Photon
D. Electrons
# Radiation therapy to hypoxic tissue may be potentiated by the treatment with:
A. Methotrexate
B. Metronidazole
C. Meiphalan
D. Mycostatin
# The most accepted theory of dental caries is:
A. Proteolytic theory
B. Proteolysis-chelation theory
C. Parasitic theory
D. Miller's acidogenic theory or Chemicoparasitic theory
# The iatrogenic traumatic facial nerve palsy is most commonly caused due to:
A. Myringoplasty
B. Stapedectomy
C. Mastoidectomy
D. Ossiculoplasty
# Which of the following disorders is likely to result in a prolonged bleeding time?
A. Hemophilia A
B. Hemophilia B
C. Hemophilia C
D. Thrombocytopenia
# The most successful treatment for a vital primary second molar with a large carious pulp exposure is:
A. Formocresol pulpotomy
B. Indirect pulp capping
C. Pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide
D. Pulp capping with calcium hydroxide
# The origin of calcium ions in a calcified bridge formed by calcium hydroxide is:
A. from calcium hydroxide itself
B. from underlying dentin
C. through blood stream via pulp
D. from periapical tissues
# A radiograph shows an abscessed primary second molar with severe furcation involvement. The developing bud of the second premolar is partially enclosed within its roots. To resolve this problem without disturbing the permanent tooth bud, the proper treatment is:
A. Section the tooth and remove portions individually
B. Lift a flap and remove sufficient alveolar bone to allow extraction
C. Remove the tooth with a short-beak dental forceps by luxating slowly
D. Perform pulp therapy and postpone extraction until sufficient root resorption has occurred
# The undesirable side effect most commonly associated with the use of a buccal coil spring to regain space for a mandibular second premolar is:
A. Pain
B. Gingival irritation
C. Tendency for the first molar to intrude
D. Tendency for the first premolar to rotate
# A child accidentally swallows 10cc of a 10% fluoride solution. The most effective immediate action is to:
A. Have the child drink copious quantities of water
B. Have the child drink a 10% sodium bicarbonate solution
C. Have the child drink milk or some other calcium containing liquid
D. Send the child to family physician
# Which of the following local anesthetic is an ester?
A. Procaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Etidocaine
D. Prilocaine
# A 7 year old patient has a unilateral cross bite due to functional shift of the mandible. The management involves:
A. Bilateral expansion of the maxillary arch
B. Unilateral expansion of maxillary posterior teeth on the side of functional shift
C. Expansion of the maxilla opposite to the side of functional shift
D. Observation
# The most effective means of limiting applied loads to abutment teeth in a distal extension RPD is by:
A. Splinting abutments
B. Using a stress breaker
C. Using acrylic replacement teeth
D. Maintaining a stable base-tissue relationship
# When porcelain is baked against metal, it should possess a:
A. High fusion expansion
B. High fusion temperature
C. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than but close to that of the metal
D. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than but close to that of the metal
# The modulus of elasticity means:
A. Rigidity or stiffness of the material
B. Ability to be stretched with permanent deformation
C. Ductility of the material
D. Malleability of the material
# When a simple tipping force is applied to the crown of a single rooted tooth, the center of rotation is usually located:
A. At the apex
B. Within the apical 1/3rd of the root
C. Within the middle 1/3rd of the root
D. Within the coronal 1/3rd of the root
# Most common cause of bruxism is:
A. Occlusal prematurity
B. Emotional stress
C. Periodontal disease
D. Muscle hypertrophy
# A patient complains of dull pain in the TMJ on awakening. He is suffering from:
A. Bruxism
B. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
# In the treatment of pericoronitis, :
A. Antibiotics are given only if fever and trismus is present
B. Antibiotics are always given
C. Antibiotics are never given
D. Antibiotics are given with steroids
# The treatment for TMJ dislocation is:
A. No treatment
B. Condylectomy
C. Manual reduction
D. Intermaxillary fixation
# The drug used in dissociative anesthesia is:
A. Phosphoric acid
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Ketamine
D. Fentanyl dorperidol
# Laryngeal mask airway (LMA) is used for:
A. Maintenance of the airway
B. Facilitating laryngeal surgery
C. Prevention of aspiration
D. Removing oral secretions
# Which of the following organism is found in periodontal diseases?
A. Bacteroides
B. Wolinella
C. Neisseria
D. Eikenella
# The most common response to frustration is:
A. Denial
B. Aggression
C. Submission
D. Fantasy
# The principal component of plaque is:
A. Dextrans
B. Lactic acid
C. Microorganisms
D. Materia alba
# All of the following are pneumatic bone EXCEPT:
A. Maxilla
B. Parietal
C. Ethmoid
D. Mastoid
# In a disclosing solution, the main component is:
A. Erythrosine
B. Basic fuschin
C. Methylene blue
D. Crystal violet
# Mites are the vectors for all EXCEPT:
A. Rickettsial pox
B. Scabies
C. Scrub typhus
D. Kyasanur forest disease
# Nosocomial infection can be caused by all EXCEPT:
A. Mycobacterium
B. Staphylococci sureus
C. Pseudomonas
D. Enterobacteriaceae
# Drains must be removed from a wound after:
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. drainage is complete
# The recurrent laryngeal nerve is closest to:
A. Inferior thyroid artery
B. Superior thyroid artery
C. Middle thyroid vein
D. Superior thyroid vein
# Pyronaridine is:
A. Antimalarial drug
B. Antifungal drug
C. Antibacterial drug
D. Anti HIV drug
# Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is transferred by:
A. Conjugation
B. Transformation
C. Transduction
D. Binary fission
# Edema may be caused by:
A. Constriction of arterioles
B. Increased permeability of capillaries
C. Reduced blood pressure in the capillaries
D. A tissue osmotic pressure
# In a study, the data is collected from 100 pregnant women as to the status of usage of calcium supplements and to the status of the decrease of incidence of caries in their children. The appropriate statistical test of hypothesis is:
A. Paired t-test
B. Unpaired or independent t-test
C. Analysis of variance
D. Chi-square test
# Prognosis following fracture of the root of a permanent maxillary incisor is most favourable if the fracture is in the:
A. apical third of the root
B. middle third of the root
C. coronal third of the root
D. unrelated to the location of the fracture
# In a 18 year old person with a 10 mm incisor overlap, a 14 mm horizontal overlap and a ANB = 11 and a facial appearance of mandibular retrusion, all teeth are present with 3 mm crowding in the mandibular arch. Which of the following is required for a successful correction of the problem ?
A. Treatment with combined orthodontics + surgery
B. Orthodontic + Orthopaedic surgery
C. Multibanded orthodontic treatment for 2 years
D. Good patient cooperation with a functional orthodontic appliance
# When using the acid etch technique to restore a class IV fracture, exposed dentin should first be covered with:
A. Cavity varnish
B. A calcium hydroxide liner
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Zinc oxide eugenol cement
# Environmental factors contributing to dental caries include the following:
A. Actinomyces viscosus, Streptococci mutans, and plaque
B. Decreased salivary flow and gingival recession
C. Pits, fissures and irregularities
D. Nutrition, Oral hygiene and Fluoride
# The distolingual extension of a mandibular impression for a complete denture is limited by the action of which muscle?
A. Superior constrictor of pharynx
B. Stylohyoid
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Lateral Pterygoid
# Which of the following factors is most critical in determining whether or not to extract a tooth involved with periodontal diseases?
A. Depth of pockets
B. Mobility of tooth
C. Amount of attachment loss
D. Relationship of adjacent teeth
# What is the primary consideration for saving decisuous teeth?
A. Esthetics
B. Phonetics
C. Maintaining arch length
D. Mastication
# The treatment for aneurysmal bone cyst is:
A. Treatment
B. Curettage
C. Excision
D. Resection
# A patient without prior medication breathes a gas mixture consisting of 50% oxygen and 50% nitrous oxide by volume. Which of the following effects would be expected?
A. analgesia
B. surgical anesthesia
C. excitement
D. ptosis
# Silver amalgam is superior as:
A. better esthetics
B. superior strength
C. ability to bond with the tooth
D. all of the above
# As the filler particle size in composites is increased:
A. Surface smoothness is improved
B. Strength is improved
C. Viscosity is decreased
D. More exposure time is required for curing
# The ideal medium for growing fungi is:
A. Sabourad's agar
B. Thioglycolate broth
C. Blood agar
D. Tissue culture
# Which of the following enzymes is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot in pathogenic Staphylococci?
A. Coagulase
B. Lysozyme
C. S protein
D. Fibrinolysin
# The amount of force needed to compact direct filling gold properly is influenced most by the:
A. Surface area of the condenser
B. Angle of compaction
C. Bulk of the surrounding tooth
D. Temperature at which the gold is annealed
# The gingival crevicular fluid has a predominance of:
A. Neutrophils
B. B-lymphocytes
C. T lymphocytes
D. Macrophages
# Which of the following dental materials is easily confused with caries when viewed radiographically?
A. Calcium hydroxide
B. ZOE
C. Polycarboxylate
D. Zinc phosphate
# The histology of pulp inadvertently exposed during cavity preparation of deep carious lesions shows:
A. Acute inflammatory cells at site of exposure below which chronic inflammatory cells are there on normal pulp
B. Only acute inflammatory cells at site of exposure on a normal pulp
C. Predominantly chronic inflammatory cells at site of exposure
D. None of the above
# The maximum growth of the skull takes place during what age?
A. Birth to 5 years
B. 5-6 years
C. 6-7 years
D. 7-10 years
# When a heavy object in hand is lowered, the extension at the elbow is brought about by:
A. Active shortening of the extensors
B. Passive shortening of the extensors
C. Active lengthening of the flexors
D. Active shortening of the flexors
# If a patient with Raynaud's disease puts his hand in cold water, the hand appears:
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. White
D. Blue
# Carbonic anhydrase in the kidney tubular cells is associated with the reabsorption of:
A. Chloride
B. Urea
C. Bicarbonate
D. Carbohydrate
# All of the following could result from infection within the right cavernous sinus EXCEPT:
A. Loss of papillary blink reflex
B. Loss of corneal blink reflex
C. Ptosis
D. Right Ophthalmoplegia
# Mitochondria is involved in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. ATP production
B. Apoptosis
C. TCA cycle
D. Fatty acid biosynthesis
# A buffer that is most effective at a pH of about 4.5 is:
A. Acetate
B. Bicarbonate
C. Phosphate
D. Tris buffer
# The fasting blood glucose levels for a group of diabetics is found to be normally distributed with a mean of 105mg/100ml of blood and a standard deviation of 10mg/100 ml of blood. From this data, it can be inferred that, approximately 95% of diabetics will have their fasting blood glucose levels within limits of:
A. 75-135 mg/100ml
B. 85-125 mg/100ml
C. 95-115 mg/100ml
D. 65-145 mg/100ml
# The following is true about prevalence and incidence:
A. both are rates
B. prevalence is a rate but incidence is not
C. incidence is a rate but prevalence is not
D. both are not rates
# Implants normally fail in:
A. Chronic smokers
B. Hypertension
C. Diabetics
D. Old people
# Maximum permissible dose of radiation during pregnancy is:
A. 0.5 rads
B. 1 rads
C. 1.5 rads
D. 3 rads
# In a cold curing denture resin, the activator is :
A. Hydroquinone
B. Sodium sulfite
C. Benzoyl peroxide
D. A tertiary amine
# In a double blind clinical drug trial:
A. each patient recieves a placebo
B. each patient receives both (double) treatments
C. the patients do not know which treatment they are receiving
D. the patient do not know that they are in a drug trial
# A 22 year old woman developed small itchy wheals after physical exertion, Walking in the sun, eating hot spicy food and when she was angry. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Chronic idiopathoc urticaria
B. Heat urticaria
C. Solar urticaria
D. Cholinergic urticaria
# If you calculate the plasma osmolality of a child with plasma Na 125mEq/L, glucose 108 mg/dL and BUN (blood urea nitrogen) 140 mg/dL, the most appropriate answer would be:
A. 300 mOsm/kg
B. 306 mOsm/kg
C. 312 mOsm/kg
D. 318 mOsm/kg
# Which of the following disease of endocrine origin can be cured?
A. Phenylketonuira
B. Gaucher's disease
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. MEN disease
# Transition from G2 to M phase of the cell cycle is controlled by:
A. Retinoblastoma gene product
B. p53 protein
C. Cyclin E
D. Cyclin B
# Hyper coagulability due to defective factor V gene is called:
A. Lisbon mutation
B. Leiden mutation
C. Antiphospholipid syndrome
D. Inducible thrombocytopenic syndrome
# A one year old boy presented with hepatosplenomegaly and delayed milestones. The land biopsy and bone marrow biopsy revealed presence of histiocytes with PAS positive diastase resistant material in the cytoplasm. Electron microscope examination of these histiocytes is most likely to reveal the presence of:
A. Birbeck granules in the cytoplasm
B. Myelin figures in the cytoplasm
C. Parallel rays of tubular structures in lysosomes
D. Electron dense deposit in the mitochondria
# Use of folic acid to prevent congenital malformation should be best initiated:
A. During first trimester of pregnancy
B. During second trimester of pregnancy
C. During third trimester of pregnancy
D. Before conception
# Several hormones regulate the tubular absorption of water and electrolytes at different in the nephron. Which of the following combination is correct?
A. Angiotensin in distal tubule
B. Aldosterone in collecting ducts
C. ADH in proximal tubule
D. ANP in loop of Henle
# NADPH is produced by:
A. Glycolysis
B. Citric acid cycle
C. HMP pathway
D. Glycogenesis
# MRI rooms are shielded completely by a continuous sheet or wire mesh of copper or aluminium to shield the imager from external electromagnetic radiations. This is called:
A. Maxwell cage
B. Faraday cage
C. Edison's cage
D. Ohm's cage
# At the end of anesthesia after discontinuation of nitrous oxide and removal of endotracheal tube, 100% oxygen is administerd to the patient to prevent:
A. Diffusion hypoxia
B. Second gas effect
C. Hyperoxia
D. Bronchospasm
# Marjolin's ulcer is a:
A. malignant ulcer found on the scar of a burn
B. malignant ulcer found on the infected foot
C. trophic ulcer
D. tropical ulcer characterized by absence of pain
# Lymph spread can be detected by:
A. Palpation
B. Angiography
C. X rays
D. Percussion
# A child patient is always fearful of the dental situation. The dentist decides to permit the child to observe his working with a cooperative younger during an operative procedure. The behaviour modification technique used is:
A. Modelling
B. Reinforcement
C. Desensitization
D. Contracting
# In primary molar RCT, the filling material of choice is:
A. Chlorpercha
B. Cavit
C. ZOE without catalyst
D. Calcium hydroxide
# Least maligannt thyroid cancer is:
A. papillary carcinoma
B. follicular carcinoma
C. medullary carcinoma
D. anplastic carcinoma
# The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Amphotericin B
C. 5 - fLuorouracil
D. Griseofulvin
# After applying a statistical test, the investigator gest the p value as 0.01. It means that:
A. the probability of finding a significant difference is 1 %
B. the probability of declaring a significant difference, when there is truly no difference is 1 %
C. the difference is not significant 1 % times and significant 99% times
D. the power of the test used is 99%
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