AIIMS MDS Entrance Examination MCQs - November 2002

# Edema may be caused by:
A. Constriction of arterioles
B. Increased permeability of capillaries
C. Reduced blood pressure in the capillaries
D. A tissue osmotic pressure that is lower than that of plasma

# The middle meningeal artery is associated with which foramen?
A. Ovale
B. Rotundum
C. Stylomastoid
D. Spinosum

# Behavior problem in the dental office is traced to the fact that a 3-year-old girl heard about dental difficulties from her mother; the most satisfactory method of handling the situation is to:
A. Introduce another child as a good example
B. Modify her fear by familiarization
C. Use small amount of barbiturates
D. Use firmness

# Prolonged administration of Streptomycin may result in damage to the:
A. Optic Nerve
B. Facial Nerve
C. Auditory nerve
D. Trigeminal nerve

# A patient with grand-mal epilepsy would likely be under treatment with:
A. Meprobamate
B. Pentobarbital
C. Trimethadione
D. Phenytoin

# Which one of the following hormones stimulates contraction of the uterus and let down of the milk?
A. Progesterone
B. Prolactin
C. Prostaglandin
D. Oxytocin

# One of the following is not an amino acid:
A. Glycine
B. Hydroxyproline
C. Glutamic acid
D. Choline

# Which of the following is not a part of epidemiological triad?
A. Agent
B. Host
C. Disease
D. Environment

# A bacterial enzyme capable of altering the ground substance of the periodontal ligament is:
A. Amylase
B. Mucinase
C. Dextranase
D. Hyaluronidase

# A two day old developing plaque consists primarily of:
A. Filamentous organisms
B. Spirochetal organisms
C. Gram positive cocci and rods
D. Gram negative motile organisms

# Which of the following is not true about boiling water?
A. It can kill Hepatitis B virus
B. It is used for sterilization of surgical instruments
C. It can kill Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. It can kill vegetative bacterial cells

# Toxoids are most often prepared by treating toxins with:
A. Pepsin
B. Papain
C. Antitoxin
D. Formaldehyde

# Carbamazepine has been utilized to successfully diminish attacks in trigeminal neuralgia. During this therapy, which of the following is indicated?
A. Clinical observation only
B. Clinical observation and complete blood and platelet counts prior to and at frequent intervals during therapy
C. No monitoring
D. Complete blood investigation only if adverse symptom arise

# Physical sign of severe aortic stenosis is:
A. A late peaking holosystolic murmur
B. A delayed carotid upstroke
C. A diastolic rumble
D. An opening snap

# In myocardial infarction, the first enzyme to rise is:
A. CPK - MB
B. LDH
C. SGOT
D. Amylase

# Which of the following may be a feature of acromegaly?
A. Large tongue
B. Micrognathia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Crowded teeth

# If a patient who has Raynaud's disease puts his hands in cold water, the hands appear:
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. White
D. Blue

# The type of maxillofacial bone graft having the best chance of success is the:
A. Isograft
B. Xenograft
C. Allograft
D. Autograft

# A 50 year old man has gradual loss of hearing and loss of vision as well as enlargement of maxilla. A provisional diagnosis should include:
A. Osteomalacia
B. Ameloblastoma
C. Paget's disease
D. Multiple myeloma

# In a 19 year old patient, with a swelling over the left angle of the mandible, temperature 38 degree celcius and negative history of trauma, one should suspect:
A. Spontaneous fracture of the mandible
B. Pericoronal infection
C. Mumps
D. Sjogren's syndrome

# Which syndrome consists of flushing, warmness and perspiration over the cheek and pinna of the ear on the side following the ingestion of highly seasoned food?
A. Fanconi's
B. Auriculotemporal
C. Horner's
D. Cushing's

# Acantholysis is an important diagnostic feature in:
A. Pemphigus
B. Lichen planus
C. Erythema multiforme
D. Lupus erythematosus

# Which of the following is innervated by the vagus nerve?
A. The levator veli palatini
B. The posterior belly of digastric
C. Mylohyoid
D. The tensor veli palatini

# The primary site of action of antidiuretic hormone is on the:
A. distal tubules and collecting ducts in the kidney
B. afferent arterioles of the glomeruli
C. thirst center in the hypothalamus
D. osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus

# One of the following is not true for myelinated nerve fiber:
A. Conduction of impulse through myelinated nerve fiber is slower than that in non myelinated nerve fiber
B. Membrane currents are generated at nodes of Ranvier
C. Myelin sheath is composed of lamellated cylinder of fatty material
D. Local anesthetic solution can be effective only where the nerve is not covered by the myelin sheath

# Which of the following muscles is a prime mover in effecting a left working movement?
A. Left lateral pterygoid
B. Right lateral pterygoid
C. Left medial pterygoid
D. Right medial pterygoid

# DNA is found principally in:
A. Nucleolus
B. Nucleus
C. Cytoplasm
D. Mitochondria

# The diploid number of chromosomes is perpetuated in somatic cells by a process of:
A. Meiosis
B. Mitosis
C. Amitosis
D. Cytokinesis

# Ataxia involves a lesion of the:
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Cerebellum

# Endocrine glands that are not influenced by the pituitary gland include the:
A. Thyroid gland, testes and the adrenal medulla
B. Adrenal medulla, parathyroid and islets of Langerhans
C. Adrenal cortex, parathyroids and ovaries
D. Pancreas, Adrenal medulla and thyroid gland

# Which hormone together with catecholamines enhances the tone of vascular smooth muscles and assist in elevating the blood pressure?
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Glucagon
C. Thyroxine
D. Cortisol

# Iodine is primarily important in the biochemical synthesis of :
A. ACTH
B. Thyroxin
C. Adrenalin
D. Calcitonin

# The vitamin that promotes the synthesis by the liver is:
A. Carotene
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin K
D. Folic acid

# PMA is a symbol for a:
A. Pulp capping material
B. Caries index
C. Periodontal index
D. Materia alba index

# Majority of oral microorganisms are:
A. Strict anaerobes
B. Gram positive bacilli
C. Spirochetes
D. Facultative anaerobes

# The ability of the pathogenic Staphylococci to induce the formation of a plasma clot requires release of the enzyme:
A. Amylase
B. Fibrinolysin
C. Coagulase
D. Lysozyme

# The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to:
A. Kill microbes
B. Removes microbes
C. Inhibit microbial growth
D. Dehydrate microbial cells

# Bacterial spores are a problem in sterilizing instruments and equipments because:
A. They are resistant to antibiotics
B. They are easy to kill but are usually protected by organic matter
C. They are comparatively resistant to physical and chemical injuries
D. Most pathogenic bacteria are spore formers

# Amide type local anesthetics are metabolized in the :
A. Serum
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Kidneys

# Valvular lesion most often resulting from myocardial infarcton is:
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Mitral regurgitation
D. Pulmonary stenosis

# The most common cause of right ventricular failure is:
A. Seconday to left ventricular failure
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Mitral stenosis
D. Aortic stenosis

# One of the earliest signs of cavernous sinus thrombosis is deficit in the function of the:
A. Ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
B. Maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve
C. Oculomotor nerve
D. Abducent nerve

# Pott's puffy tumor is:
A. A malignant tumor
B. An extradural abscess
C. A tumor of pituitary gland
D. An adrenal gland tumor

# Marjolin's ulcer is a:
A. malignant ulcer found on the scar of a burn
B. malignant ulcer found on the infected foot
C. trophic ulcer
D. tropical ulcer characterized by absence of pain

# Visible bleeding of an artery is best controlled via:
A. Pressure
B. Tea bag pressure
C. Tourniquet
D. Clamping and ligation

# In the healing of a wound, the epithelium that eventually will cover the defect is derived from:
A. Intact epithelium from the wound margin
B. Metaplasia of fibroblast to epithelial cells
C. Transformation of fibrous exudates into epithelium
D. Transformation of endothelial cells into epithelial cells

# Which of the following characteristics of inlay wax is its major disadvantage?
A. Flow
B. Rigidity
C. Hardness
D. High thermal expansion

# As the gold content of a dental solder decreases, the:
A. hardness decreases
B. ductility increases
C. Corrosion resistance decreases
D. Ultimate tensile strength decreases

# When porcelain is baked against metal, it should possess a:
A. High fusion temperature
B. Low fusion temperature
C. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than but close to that of metal
D. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than but close to that of metal

# The high copper dental amalgam are superior to other amalgam because high copper dental amalgams:
A. corrode more and corrosion products seal the margin better
B. have less marginal breakdown
C. are workable at lower ratio of tensile to compressive strength
D. generally have a higher ratio of tensile to compressive strength

# In a normal dentition in centric occlusion, opposing contacts are expected at:
A. Buccal slopes of buccal cusps of maxillary posterior teeth
B. Buccal slopes of lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth
C. Lingual slopes of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
D. All slopes of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth

# Before eruption, the position of permanent mandibular incisor buds relative to primary incisors is:
A. Superior and facial
B. Superior and lingual
C. Inferior and facial
D. Inferior and lingual

# The permanent anterior tooth that is most often atypical in size is the:
A. Maxillary canine
B. Mandibular central incisor
C. Maxillary lateral incisors
D. Maxillary canine

# Generally, contact areas between posterior teeth are located in which direction from the center of the proximal surface?
A. Facially and occlusally
B. Facially and gingivally
C. Lingually and gingivally
D. Lingually and occlusally

# The facial surfaces of mandibular molars compared with the anterior border of ascending ramus are located:
A. Medial to the border
B. Lateral to the border
C. Continuous with the border
D. Individual variation exists

# In which of the following areas is the alveolar process the thinnest?
A. Lingual to the maxillary central incisor
B. Buccal to the mandibular central incisor
C. Lingual to the maxillary canine
D. Lingual to the mandibular first molar

# Acanthosis denotes:
A. Hyperchromatism of cells
B. Increased mitotic divisions
C. Increased thickness of spinous cell layers
D. Loss of polarity or disorientation of cell

# Which of the following is a reason for sealing caries into the cavity:
A. To eliminate the need for eventual direct pulp capping
B. To produce an aseptic field when pulp exposure is inevitable
C. To allow the formation of secondary dentin
D. To produce a hard surface as a foundation for subsequent restoration

# The bevel of the cavosurface angle of an inlay preparation permits closer adaptation of the gold margin structure because the:
A. thin margin of gold can be drawn over pronounced margin deficiencies to eliminate the defect
B. Wax pattern can be more accurately carved to margins of the preparation
C. Wax margins are less likely to distort when the pattern is invested
D. Thinner margins of the gold overlying the bevel is more adaptable

# Restoration of the cusp using dental amalgam requires that:
A. All the enamel removed from the cusp to provide bulk to the amalgam
B. Only the carious enamel be removed to conserve tooth structure
C. At least 2 mm of the cusp be removed to provide retention form
D. At least 2 mm of the cusp be removed to provide resistance form

# When removing the rubber dam, the first step should be:
A. Remove the clamp
B. Release the holder
C. Pull off the rubber from the isolated tooth
D. Cut the interseptal rubber with scissors

# Direct pulp capping is indicated when there is:
A. a large exposure
B. pain response to cold
C. no hemorrhage from the exposure
D. an accidental mechanical exposure

# A healthy pulp recovers from minimal injury by:
A. Anachoresis
B. Degeneration
C. Deposition of dentin
D. Formation of polyp

# The most frequent cause of failure in endodontics is:
A. Split roots
B. Root perforation
C. Incomplete obturation
D. Separated instruments

# Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis usually occurs:
A. prior to age 10
B. between ages 13 and 30
C. at the age of onset of the menstrual period
D. during menopause

# A 0.7 cm, pedunculated, white, rough surfaced growth occurring on hard palate is most likely:
A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
B. Pleomorphic carcinoma
C. Keratoacanthoma
D. Papilloma

# CPR should have a ratio of chest compression to mouth breathing of:
A. 10:1
B. 30:2
C. 60:1
D. 20:1

# Post auricular ecchymosis in cases of the fracture of the base of skull is called:
A. Battle's sign
B. Tinel's sign
C. Trousseau's sign
D. Nikolsky's sign

# Selection of the proper kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by:
A. Type of timer
B. Target-film distance
C. Temperature of the developing solution
D. Density of the tissues to be radiographed

# The most effective method of reducing patient somatic exposure when taking a radiograph is to use:
A. A lead apron
B. Speed E film
C. Added filtration
D. An open ended shilded cone

# Abutment teeth for removable dentures should be contoured so that the retentive clasp tip can be placed:
A. On the gingival third of the crown
B. On the middle third of the crown
C. In a distal undercut
D. In a mesial undercut

# Ridge soreness in denture patients may be associated with:
A. Gapping
B. Malocclusion
C. Overextension
D. Lack of retention

# Overextension of the mandibular denture base in the distofacial area will cause dislodgement of the denture during function as a result of the action of:
A. masseter
B. buccinator
C. pterygomandibular raphe
D. superior pharyngeal constrictor

# Water pressure devices are useful in removing:
A. Plaque
B. Pellicle
C. Food debris
D. Calculus

# Periodontal recall following therapy should occur at:
A. 3 months interval
B. 6 months interval
C. Yearly interval
D. Intervals dependent upon, tissue response, patient dexterity, and patient motivation

# In an inflammatory gingival lesion, one would expect to find:
A. a decreased amount of exudates
B. Large amounts of C-reactive protein
C. Increased vascular permeability
D. Decreased vascular permeability

# A patient with severe periodontal involvement requires flap surgery on the complete mandibular arch. A potential problem is damaging to the:
A. Facial nerve
B. Mental nerve
C. Attachment of the mentalis muscle
D. Attachment of the inferior labialis muscle

# Increasing the zone of attached gingiva in the area of mandibular second and third molars is often complicated by the presence of the:
A. Mylohyoid ridge
B. Vestibular fornix
C. Internal oblique ridge
D. External oblique ridge

# The microorganism seen in a 24 hour plaque are:
A. Vibrios
B. Filaments
C. Spirochetes and vibros
D. Rods and cocci

# A major disadvantage of treatment using a cevical headgear is:
A. Impaction of maxillary canines
B. Extrusion of maxillary incisors
C. Extrusion of maxillary molar
D. Potential deformity of the neck

# Which of the following procedures is used to prevent relapse after correction of a rotated permanent maxillary canine?
A. Recontour of the crown
B. Supracrestal fibrotomy
C. Establishment of cuspid protected occlusion
D. Removal of the functional contacts with the canine in the lateral and protrusive excursions

# The band and crib space maintainer is classified as:
A. Bilateral, fixed and functional
B. Unilateral, fixed and functional
C. Unilateral, fixed and non functional
D. Removal of all functional contacts with the canine in the lateral and protrusive excursions

# Surgical procedures of the maxilla may alter its:
A. Anterior portion only
B. Posterior portion only
C. Length and anteroposterior position only
D. Length, width and height

# Primate spaces are found between:
A. all deciduous teeth during growth of the jaws
B. maxillary deciduous canines and molars
C. maxillary deciduous lateral incisors and canine
D. mandibular lateral incisors and canine

# An early prepubertal growth spurt indicates:
A. A longer treatment time
B. A fast maturing child
C. A slow maturing child
D. An endocrine dysfunction, such as hyperthyroidism

# Premature exfoliation of a primary canine may result in:
A. an arch length excess
B. an arch length deficiency
C. a skeletal malocclusion
D. severe crowding in permanent dentition

# In a mixed dentition space analysis, the most careful estimate will only be accurate within:
A. 0.5 mm
B. 2 mm
C. 4 mm
D. 6 mm

# In deciduous teeth, formocresol pulpotomy is preferred over calcium hydroxide pulpotomy because:
A. Formocresol is a strong bactericide
B. Internal resorption is not found
C. The entire pulpal tissue is devitalized and fixed
D. Deposition of secondary dentin is faster and thicker

# The cotton pellet applied to the pulpal stumps in the formocresol pulpotomy technique should be:
A. slightly damped with formocresol
B. saturated with formocresol
C. Left in place for 15 minutes
D. Left in place upto the second visit

# Chronic pulpal infection in primary molars is usually first noted radiographically as:
A. Periapical pathology
B. Internal root resorption
C. Changes in the bony furcation
D. Widening of the apical periodontal ligament space