# The most common side effect of the oral administration of ampicillin is: (MAN-94, AIIMS-93)
a) Anaphylactic shock
b) Diarrhoea
c) Oral candidiasis
d) Renal failure
# Which of the following drugs is likely to damage the eighth cranial nerve when administered for a long period of time? (MAN-94)
a) Ethambutol
b) Isoniazid
c) Rifampicin
d) Streptomycin
# Which of the following is primarily a bactericidal drug? (MAN-95)
a) Chloramphenicol
b) Gentamicin
c) Sulphadiazine
d) Tetracycline
# Penicillin is effective against: (MAN-95)
a) Neisseria meningitis
b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c) Treponema pallidum
d) All of the above
# The therapeutic advantage that penicillin V has over penicillin G is: (MAN-98)
a) More reliable oral absorption
b) Greater resistance to pencillinase
c) Slower renal excretion
d) Broader antibacterial spectrum
# Concurrent administration of tetracyclines is most likely to impair the action of: (MAN-98)
a) Lincomycin
b) Chloramphenicol
c) Erythromycin
d) Penicillin
# Chloramphenicol can cause: (MAN-99)
a) Staining of teeth
b) Aplastic anaemia
c) Bone marrow suppression
d) B & C
# Which drug causes photosensitivity? (MAN-99)
a) Tetracycline
b) Aminoglycoside
c) Penicillin
d) Cephalosporin
# The antibiotic of choice in patients sensitive to penicillin is : (MAN-98, KAR-03)
a) Erythromycin
b) Streptomycin
c) Tetracycline
d) Chloramphenicol
# Which of the following penicillins can be given by IV route? (MAN-99)
a) Benzathine
b) Procaine
c) Crystalline
d) Benzathamine
# Tetracycline is contraindicated in: (MAN-99)
a) Children
b) Pregnancy
c) Renal failure
d) All the above
# Fluconazole is used for the treatment of: (MAN-2001)
a) Pemphigus
b) Herpes simplex
c) Candidiasis
d) Syphilis
# Mechanism of action of quinolones is: (MAN, AIPG-2K)
a) Inhibits DNA gyrase
b) Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis
c) Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
d) Inhibits intake of folic acid
# A child with permanently stained teeth reports. He was most probably administered: (MAN-99)
a) Diphenyl hydantoin
b) Diphenhydramine
c) Digoxin
d) Doxycycline
# The bacterial resistance to tetracycline is due to: (MAN-2K, AIPG-93)
a) Alteration of drug binding sites
b) Alteration of dihydrofolate reductase
c) Inactivation of drug by enzymes
d) uptake of drug by bacteria
# In the treatment of intestinal and extraintestinal amoebiasis which of the following drug is useful: (AIPG-99)
a) Metronidazole
b) Cefaclor
c) Chloroquine
d) Diloxane
# A patient taking which of the following drug should not eat cheese, etc: (AIIMS-98, A P-04)
a) Doxycycline
b) Amoxycillin
c) Triamterene
d) Tetracycline
# Antifungal drug not used in the treatment of intestinal candidiasis: (MAN-2K)
a) Clotrimazole
b) Amphotericin
c) Nystatin
d) Ketoconazole
# Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity is caused by: (AIPG-97)
a) Antibiotic
b) Antiemetic
c) Antifungal
d) Antiviral
# Which one of the following antibiotics chelates with calcium? (AIIMS-95, 01, AIPG-04)
a) Tetracycline
b) Cephalosporins
c) Erythromycin
d) Penicillin
# Prolonged administration of streptomycin results in damage to the: (AIIMS-02)
a) Facial nerve
b) Auditory nerve
c) Optic nerve
d) Trigeminal nerve
# Stepwise mutation for drug resistance is seen with: (KAR-98)
a) Streptomycin
b) Kanamycin
c) Penicillin
d) Garamycin
# Desfuroxamide is a drug used for: (AIPG-95)
a) Pernicious anaemia
b) Thalassemia
c) Kala-azar
d) Pain control
# The oropharyngeal and oesophageal candidiasis following long-term therapy with a broad spectrum antibiotic can be best treated with: (KAR-97)
a) Sulfonates
b) Griseofulvin
c) Fluconazole
d) Amphotericin
# Cephalosporins have all of the following interactions except: (AIIMS-95)
a) Have a broad spectrum but are inactive against anaerobes
b) Are used in upper respiratory tract infections
c) Show cross sensitivity with penicillins
d) Are penicillinase resistant
# Which antibiotic is effective against pseudomonas and indole +ve proteus? (AIIMS-92)
a) Oxacillin
b) Methicillin
c) Lincomycin
d) Carbenicillin
# Oral infection by penicillinase producing organisms should be treated with: (AIIMS-94)
a) Ampicillin
b) Erythromycin
c) Dicloxacillin
d) All of them
# A distinct advantage that tetracyclines have over penicillins is that tetracyclines: (AIPG-03)
a) Have no side effects
b) Do not cause superinfections
c) Are safer to use during pregnancy
d) Have a wider range of antibacterial activity
# Peripheral neuritis is a complication of:
a) Rifampicin
b) Ethambutol
c) Pirazinamide
d) Isoniazid
# Which of the following antibiotics is most frequently associated with pseudomembranous colitis? (AIIMS-95, AP-08)
a) Penicillin
b) Clindamycin
c) Ampicillin
d) Cephalosporin
# Antibiotic that interferes with DNA function is: (AIIMS-2K)
a) Tetracycline
b) Nystatin
c) Sulphonamides
d) Metronidazole
# Which one of the following is penicillinase-resistant penicillin: (AIIMS-2K, AIPG-96)
a) Amoxycillin
b) Penicillin G
c) Ampicillin
d) Cloxacillin
# One of the below-mentioned penicillin is NOT given orally: (KAR-97)
a) Phenoxymethyl penicillin
b) Amoxicillin
c) Carbenicillin
d) Cloxacillin
# The drug of choice for treatment of typhoid is
a) Tetracycline
b) Cefotaxim
c) Metronidazole
d) Ciprofloxacin
# When broad-spectrum antibiotics are administered with coumarin anticoagulants, the anticoagulant action may be: (AIIMS-2K)
a) Reduced because of increased protein-binding
b) Reduced because of enhanced hepatic drug metabolism
c) Increased because of decreased renal excretion of the anticoagulant
d) Increased because of reduction of vitamin K sources
# Granesetron, has antiemetic properties because of: (AIPG-99)
a) Gaba-inhibitory actions
b) Dopaminergic receptor - blocking actions
c) Gabamimetic actions
d) Serotonin receptor-blocking action.
# A patient suffering from syphilis is given pencillin. He may develop: (MAN-2K)
a) Grey syndrome
b) Jarisch - Herxheimer reaction
c) Cholestatic Jaundice
d) Fanconi Syndrome
# A patient has seasonal allergic rhinitis and is on terfenadine. He develops cardiac arrhythmias after a course of antibiotics. Which of the following antibiotic could have been given?
a) Cotrimoxazole
b) Erythromycin
c) Tetracycline
d) Ampicillin
# Which of the following penicillins is given by oral route? (AIPG-95)
a) Benzathine penicillin
b) Penicillin V / Phenoxymethyl penicillin
c) Benzyl penicillin
d) Procaine pencillin
# The drug for choice for treatment of infection involving non-penicillinase producing staphylococcus is: (AIIMS-99)
a) Erythromycin
b) Penicillin G
c) Ampicillin
d) Methicillin sodium
# Drug chemically related to penicillins is: (AIPG-94)
a) Lincomycin
b) Sulphonamide
c) Tetracycline
d) Cephalosporin
# The drug which gives orange colour to the urine is: (AIIMS-98)
a) Streptomycin
b) INH
c) Rifampicin
d) Ethambutol
# Clavulanic add added to ampicillin causes: (AIIMS-98)
a) Increase effectivity against gram-positive organisms
b) Inhibition of beta lactamases
c) Increase effectivity against gram-negative organisms
d) Increases the effectiveness against delta lactamase producing organism
# Which of the following is caused by Amphotericin B? (AIIMS-2004)
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypermagnesemia
c) Hyponatremia
d) Hypokalemia
# The mechanism of action of chloramphenicol is the inhibition of synthesis of: (KAR-97)
a) Cell wall
b) Cell membrane
c) Protein
d) DNA
# Combination chemotherapy is used in tuberculosis in order to reduce: (KAR-97)
a) Dosage of drugs
b) Side effects of drugs
c) Cost of therapy
d) Development of drug resistance
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