Least reliable sign of pulpal disease in primary teeth:

Q. Which of the following is the least reliable sign of pulpal disease in primary teeth?
 A. Electronic pulp test
B. Spontaneous pain
C. Internal resorption
D. Furcal radiolucency
E. Swelling

The correct Answer is A. Electronic pulp test

Electronic pulp testing is very unreliable in primary teeth because the A fibers that are more easily stimulated by electricity appear late in pulpal maturity.

The accuracy of the pulp testing may also be affected by the patient's ability to describe their response to the stimuli, to which, pediatric patients are typically not as able to describe their experiences in a clinically relevant way.

Local anesthetic technique for Hemophilics:

# Which of the following is the preferred local anesthetic technique for hemophilics?
A. Nerve block
B. Supraperiosteal
C. Intraligamentary
D. Field block

The correct answer is C. Intraligamentary
In hemophilics, to avoid complications, Intraligamentary (an intraosseous technique) method of local infiltration technique is preferred. In this technique, the solution is deposited in depth of gingival sulcus. The needle should be inserted apically into the bone until resistance is met.

Local anesthetic with longest duration of action:

# In peripheral nerve block, which of the following local anesthetics has the longest duration of action?
A. Bupivacaine
B. Cocaine
C. Lignocaine
D. Prilocaine

The correct answer is A. BUPIVACAINE

Etidocaine (200 mins) followed by Bupivacaine (180 mins) are long acting anesthetics and this is due to their increased protein binding property.

Past Questions Periodontics AIIMS, July 2014. SR ship

PERIODONTICS
Questions Perio AIIMS, July 2014. SR ship

1.       Which of the following is a non resorbable suture
a.  Vicryl
b.  PGA/PGA
c.   Surgical
d.  Ethicon

2.       Which of the following is the most important virulent factor or P. Gingivalis?
a.  Proteases
b.  Hmbrac
c.   Capsule
d.  Polysaccharides

3.       Which of the following microbial group is associated with Aa?
a.  Yellow
b.  Red
c.  Green
d.  Purple

4.       RPP is caused by

a.  P. Gingivalis and T. Denticola
b.  P. Gingivalis and Aa
c.   P. Gingivalis and T. Forsythia
d.  P. Gingivalis and P. Intermedia


5.       The pH of regular non-stimulated saliva is
a.  5-6
b.  6-7
c.   7-8
d.  >7 always

6.       What are calcispherites?

a.  The calcium which is found in supragingival plaque
b.  The calcium found in subgingival plaque
c.  The calcium found at minerlisation front
d.  The calcium bound phosphate in matrix vesicles


7.       Which of the following is the long acting anesthesia?
a.  Bupivacaine
b.  Mapivaicaine
c.   Articaine
d.  Prilocaine

8.       Which of the following is the most potent APC?
a.  Macrophage
b.  Neutrophil
c.   B-Cell
d.  Langerhans cell

9.       Most bacterial species of RPP found under
a.  Provetella group
b.  Bacteroid group
c.   Filamentous
d.  Black pigmented

10.     The salivary gland acini are lined by

a.  Cuboidal cells
b.  Columnar cell (pyramidal)
c.   Myoepithelial cells
d.  Columnar ciliated


11. A father presented his son who is 5 years of age, with swelling in the parotid region. The
child is having fever and malaise from last 3 days. He has difficulty swallowing and general
malaise. Biopsy of  the parotid gland revealed chronic inflammatory cell infiltration and pus
discharge. The probable diagnose would be

a.  Acute bacterial parotitis
b.  Mumps
c.   Parotid gland tumor
d.  Sialolithiasis



12.     The artery which loops around superficial temporal artery is

a.  Middle meningeal artery
b.  Maxillary artery
c.   Masseteric artery
d.  Temporal artery


13.     The posterior pillar of the palatine tonsils is formed by which of the following muscle?

a.  Palatoglossal
b.  Palatopharyngeal
c.   Buccinators
d.  Glossopharyngeal


14.     The following is the function of a fixer in the development of radiographic films

a.  It removes the extra silver halides which are unfixed
b.  It strengthens/ fixes the silver halids onto the x-ray film
c.   It takes away extra developer solution
d.  It binds the developer to the film


15.     Which of the following antibiotic can’t be given to a pregnant lady?

a.  Doxycycline
b.  Penicillin
c.   Streptomycin
d.  Aminoglycosides

16.     The most effective and modern diagnostic aid used for the detection of fractures in the head
and neck region is

a.  CBCT
b.  0.8 mm CT
c.   MRI
d.  Scans using radio-isotopes


17.     Which of the following autogenous bone graft is not preferred for grafting- (doubt)

a.  Tibial graft
b.  Sternal graft
c.   Rib graft
d.  Ileac crest graft

18.     Which of the following mineral is essential for wound healing- (if magnesium is there in
the option then answer will be mg)

a.  Selenium
b.  Copper
c.   Lithium
d.  Calcium

19.     Which  of  the  following  is  a  diagnostic  indicator  of  viral  replication  in
hepatitis- b

a.  Presence of Hbs-Ag in blood
b.  Presence of Hbs-c in blood
c.  Presence of Hbs-e in blood
d.  Presence of Hbs-ab in blood


20.     The MMP,s most commonly associated with acute periodontitis is-

a.  MMP-1
b.  MMP-2
c.   MMP-9
d.  MMP-8

21. A known case of Diabetes mellitus has entered the medical emergency/ casualty in the subconscious state, the first step towards the management of this patient would be :
a.  Dextrose 5% IV
b.  Insulin injection
c.  Blood test to monitor the blood glucose
d.  HBS IV

22.     The time taken for the complete collagen fibres to form during wound healing is

a.  1 week
b.  3 weeks
c.   1 month
d.  6 week

23.     The bone graft which is best suited for periodontal regeneration is

a.  DMFD
b.  FDBG
c.   Cortical bone chips from the bone bank
d.  Anorganic bone

24.     Which of the following treatment modality is safest for the sinus lift procedure

a.  Soft lasers
b.  Piezoelectric appliances
c.   Osteotomes
d.  Shwartz membrane lifters

25.     The smooth muscles cells have the following shape

a.  Cylindrical
b.  Spindle
c.   Flattened
d.  Branched fusiform

26.     Which of the following is absent in periodontal ligament fibres

a.  Dermatan sulphate
b.  Mature elastin fibre
c.   Chondroitin sulphate
d.  Intermediate plexus

27.     The gingival enlargement is the most common finding in the following type of leukemia

a.  AML
b.  ALL
c.   CML
d.  CLL

28.     Which of the following is not a conditional gingival enlargement

a.  Pubertal
b.  Pregnancy
c.  Drug induced
d.  Leukaemic

29.     Which of the following are the most radio-sensitive cells in the body

a.  Basal cells
b.  Lymphoid tissues
c.   RBC;s
d.  Smooth muscles

30. A child of 5 years of age comes to the department of periodontology with necrotic, bleeding,
gingival, which name one can assign to the present condition-

a.  Acute necrotizing gingivitis
b.  Necrotizing gingival enlargement
c.   Necrotizing gingiva of HIV
d.  Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis

31.     Which of the following is not a component of posterior triangle of the neck

a.  Pheranic nerve
b.  External jugular vein
c.   Subclavian vessels
d.  Hypoglossal nerve

32. A mother brings her daughter of 11 years of age to the clinic severe gingival recessions and
acute gingivitis, the mother said that she had the same problem when she of her age and there was a
complaint of early exfoliation of teeth of her mother. Till the time her mother reached puberty she
lost all her teeth. The probable diagnosis would be

a.  RPP
b.  AP
c.   Chronic periodontitis associated with systematic illness
d.  Chronic periodontitis

33.     The most effective way to clean the root concavities is –

a.  Tooth brush
b.  Dental floss
c.  Interdental brush
d.  Tooth pick

34.     The cells that forms the myeline shieth of cranial nerves

a.  Schwann cells
b.  Oligodendrocytes
c.   Glial cells
d.  Astral cells

35.     The form cells in arteromatous plaque is formed by

a.  Oxidized LDL and macrophages
b.  LDL and lymphocytes
c.   Macrophages and cholesterol
d.  Smooth muscles and macrophages

36.     Rabies is not caused by

a.  Cats
b.  Rats
c.   Dogs
d.  Monkeys

37.     The unit to measure the absorbed radiation dose is

a.  Siverts
b.  Roentgen
c.   Joule
d.  Rad

38.     The premolar which is commonly found to have only one pulp horn

a.  Maxillary first
b.  Maxillary second
c.   Mandibular first
d.  Mandibular second


39.     The last primary teeth to erupt is

a.  Mandibular second molar
b.  Mandibular third molar
c.  Maxillary second molar
d.  Maxillary third molar

40.     Inter nuclear inclusion bodies are most commonly found in:

a.  Condyloma
b.  Papilloma
c.  CMV
d.  HSV

41.     Osseous coagulum is formed by

a.  Blood and cortical bone
b.  Saline and cortical bone
c.   Blood and cancellous bone
d.  Saline and cancellous bone

42.     The best result after periodontal surgery can be expected in

a.  One wall defect
b.  Two wall defect
c.  Three wall defect
d.  Horizontal defect

43.     Which of the following local delivery agent is approved by FDA to be used as a monotherapy?

a.  Chlorhexidine chip
b.  Doxycyclin gel
c.  Minocyclin microspheres
d.  Tetracycline fibres

44.     Lack of primary stability of dental implant will result in

a.  Fibrous encapsulation
b.  Anti-titanium antibody formation
c.   Peri-implant abscess formation
d.  Occasional osseointegration

45.     Which of the following enhances the cytotoxic effect of aldehydes on human gingival
fibroblasts

a.  Gelatin
b.  Triclosan
c.   Polylactic acids
d.  Alcohol containing mouthwashes

46.     The cementum of periodontally weak root surfaces may exhibit all of the following except

a.  Increased minerlization
b.  Decreased minerlization
c.   Endotoxin adhesion
d.  Increased collagen cross bands

47.     The commonly occurring species in human gingival crevice are F. nucleatum and

a.  C. rectus
b.  P. Gingivalis
c.   B. Forsythus
d.  A. naeslundii

48.     The following antifungal is commonly used in immunocompromised patients for invasive and
systemic infections

a.  Terbinafin
b.  Flycytosine
c.   Griseofulvin
d.  Amphotericin B

49.     Longest half-life is of

a.  Diazepam
b.  Larazapam
c.   Triazolam
d.  Chlorazipam

50.     GTR is contraindicated in

a.  One wall defect
b.  Two wall defect
c.   Three wall defect
d.  Narrow defects

51.     Purple line which follows the contour of the gingival is seen in position of

a.  Lead
b.  Bismuth
c.   Arsenic
d.  Mercury

52.     Which of the following at the primary colonizers of gingival sulcus

a.  Streptococcus and actinomyces
b.  Filamenetous spirochetes
c.   Gram –ve anerobes
d.  Gram +ve anerobes

53.     The largest among the tongue papilla are

a.  Fungiform
b.  Fungiform
c.   Filiform
d.  Circumvallate

54.
The patient has high cholesterol, strong family history of CHD, smoker and
age… are II variables of –
a.  Multiple regression model
b.  Linear regression model
c.   Linear logistic regression
d.  Multiple logistic regression

55.     A test can tell 24 out of 80 positive. B test can tell 70 out of 80 positive. And
p value is <0.0005, which means

a.  B is more significant in testing a disease than A
b.  There are chances that almost every time the same outcome will occur after testing both A and B
c.   Test A is more specific than test B
d.  Both the test will do qualitative analysis

56.     Repeat-1

57.     Repeat 19

58.     FDA pregnancy-b category NSAID is
a.  Tolmetin
b.  Naproxen
c.   Mefenamic acid
d.  Paracetamol

59.
Where the defect is through and through but covered by soft tissue is what
kind of furcation involvement?
a.  Grade-I
b.  Grade-II
c.  Grade-III
d.  Grade-IV

60.     All are synthetic bone grafts except
a.  Bioplast
b.  Dentogen
c.   Nanogen
d.  Nova-bone

61.     Which of the following of fibres are absent from intermediate plexus (doubt)
a.  Horizontal
b.  Vertical
c.   Oblique
d.  Wavy

62.     The first formed bone in an extraction socket is
a.  Woven bone
b.  Spongy bone
c.   Cancellous bone
d.  Cortical bone

Prosthodontics Past Questions - February 2018

[LM 675]                               FEBRUARY 2018              Sub. Code: 4220

FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM
(Common to Final Year Paper VII - Modified Regulation III Candidates and Final Year Paper V - New
Modified Regulation Candidates)
PAPER V – PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE
Q.P Code: 544220
Time: 180 Minutes                                                               Maximum: 70 Marks

I. Elaborate on:                                                                                 
(2 x 10 = 20)

1.   Define face bow. Discuss the types of face bow and how do you transfer a face bow?

2.   Define a major connector. Discuss in detail about various types of maxillary major connector
with diagram.

II. Write Notes on:                                                                             
(10 x 5 = 50)

1.   Selective pressure impression.
2.   Significance of rest position of mandible.
3.   Abutment’s in FPD.
4.   Objectives of surveying.
5.   Stability in complete denture.
6.   Metal ceramic crowns.
7.   Primary stress bearing areas in mandible for complete denture.
8.   Methods of establishing support in distal extension partial denture.
9.   Gingival retraction techniques.
10.   Implant fixture designs.
*******

Prosthodontics Past Questions- August 2017

[LL 675]                                    AUGUST 2017                Sub. Code: 4220

FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM
(Common to Final Year Paper VII - Modified Regulation III Candidates and Final Year Paper V - New
Modified Regulation Candidates)
PAPER V – PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE

Q.P Code: 544220
Time: 180 Minutes                                                               Maximum: 70 Marks

I. Elaborate on:                                                                                 
(2 x 10 = 20)

1. Define complete denture impression. Write in detail the principles of impression making. Justify
the method you select in complete denture impression.

2.   Discuss various components of removable partial denture. Write in detail the direct retainer.

II. Write Notes on:                                                                             
(10 x 5 = 50)

1.   Semi adjustable articulators.
2.   Principles of retention in complete dentures.
3.   Parts of a face bow.
4.   Methods to register vertical dimensions in complete denture.
5.   Parts of a surveyor.
6.   Finish line in Fixed Partial Denture.
7.   Classify direct retainers.
8.   Relining methods in Complete Denture.
9.   Two stage implants used in prosthodontics.
10.  Abutment evaluation in F.P.D.
**

Prosthodontics Past Questions - February 2017

[LK 675]                                FEBRUARY 2017                Sub. Code: 4220

FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM
(Common to Final Year Paper VII - Modified Regulation III Candidates and Final Year Paper V - New
Modified Regulation Candidates)
PAPER V – PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE
Q.P Code: 544220
Time: 180 Minutes                                                               Maximum: 70 Marks

I. Elaborate on:                                                                                 
(2 x 10 = 20)

1.   Define Balanced Occlusion. Write in detail the laws to achieve Balanced Occlusion.

2.   Define Surveyor and discuss the parts of surveyor in detail with the help of a diagram.

II. Write Notes on:                                                                             
(10 x 5 = 50)

1.   Classification of Face bow and mention the parts of a face bow with the help of a diagram.
2.   Types of Obturators.
3.   Remounting procedures in Complete Dentures.
4.   Posterior palatal seal in Complete Denture.
5.   Component parts in Removable Partial Denture.
6.   Finish lines used in Fixed Partial Denture.
7.   Adhesive bridges.
8.   Parts of two stage implant system with the help a diagram.
9.   Post insertion complaints in Complete Denture.
10.  Classification system in Removable Partial Denture.
*******

August 2016 Past Questions - Prosthodontics

[LJ 675]                                   AUGUST 2016                  Sub. Code: 4220

FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM
(Common to Final Year Paper VII - Modified Regulation III Candidates and Final Year Paper V - New
Modified Regulation Candidates)
PAPER V – PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE
Q.P Code: 544220
Time: 180 Minutes                                                               Maximum: 70 Marks

I. Elaborate on:                                                                                 
(2 x 10 = 20)

1.   Define centric relation and mention various methods to register centric relation in complete
denture. Discuss one method in detail.

2.   Define  pontic  in  Fixed  Partial  Denture.  Discuss  the  selection  of pontics in clinical
practice.

II. Write Notes on:                                                                             
(10 x 5 = 50)

1.   Direct sequale in wearing CD.
2.   Indirect retainers in removable partial dentures.
3.   Design of a Class I maxillary partial denture with help of a diagram.
4.   Fluid control in Fixed Partial Denture.
5.   Hanau’s law of Balanced Occlusion.
6.   Rebasing in Complete Denture.
7.   Osseointegration in Implants.
8.   Phonetics in Complete Denture.
9.   Alloys used in Cast Partial Denture.
10.  Maxillofacial materials.
******

FEBRUARY 2016 Past Question FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION PAPER V – PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE

[LI 675]                                          FEBRUARY 2016                             Sub.  Code: 4183
FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION PAPER V – PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE
Q.P. Code : 544183
Time : Three Hours                                                                         Maximum
: 70 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on:                                                                                 
             (2 x 10 = 20)
1. Define Retention, Stability and Support. Write in detail about the various factors influencing
it in complete denture.
2. Discuss the components of removable partial denture. Write in detail about Major connectors.
II. Write Notes on:                                                                               
           (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Implant Biomaterials.
2. Preprosthetic surgery.
3. Articulators.
4. Minor connector.
5. Tripoding.
6. Distal extension denture base.
7. Pier abutment.
8. Richmond crown.
9. Partial veneer crown.
10. Neutral zone.

AUGUST 2015 Past Question FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION PAPER V – PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE

[LH 675]                                          AUGUST 2015                                 Sub.
Code: 4183
FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION PAPER V – PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE
Q.P. Code: 544183
Time : Three Hours                                                                         Maximum
: 70 marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on:                                                                                   
             (2 x 10 = 20)
1. Discuss in detail about principles of tooth preparation in fixed partial denture.

2. Write in detail on mouth preparation in complete dentures.

II. Write notes on :                                                                               
           (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Immediate Denture.

2. Gingival Finish Line.

3. Bar clasp.

4. Posterior palatal seal.

5. Obturator.

6. Balanced occlusion.

7. Denture stomatitis.

8. Combination syndrome.
9. Impression techniques in removable partial denture.
10. Sanitary pontic.
*******

FEBRUARY 2015 PAST QUESTION FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM PAPER V - PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE

[LG 675]                                  FEBRUARY 2015                      Sub. Code: 4183
FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM
PAPER V - PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE
Q.P Code: 544183
Time: 180 Minutes                                                               Maximum: 70 Marks

I. Elaborate on:                                                                               
(2 x 10 = 20)

1.  Describe in detail the various components of fixed partial dentures and its clinical
application.

2.  Discuss in detail the teeth selection for complete edentulous patients.

II. Write Notes on:                                                                             
(10 x 5 = 50)
1.  Phonetics.
2.  RPI system.
3.  Compensatory curves.
4.  Custom made impression trays.
5.  Questionable abutments.
6.  Flabby alveolar ridge.
7.  Free way space.
8.  Implant biomaterials.
9.  Face bow.
10. Surveyor.
*******

AUGUST 2014 Past Question FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM PAPER V - PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE

[LF 675]                                           AUGUST  2014                  Sub. Code: 4183
FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM PAPER V - PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE
Q.P Code: 544183
Time: 180 Minutes                                                              Maximum: 70 marks

I. Elaborate on:                                                                                   
(2X10=20)

1.  Define vertical jaw relation. Discuss the different types of vertical jaw relation.

2.  Define surveyors Discuss the different types of surveyors and uses of it.

II. Write Notes on:                                                                               
(10X5=50)

1.  Pontic design
2.  Aluminous porcelain
3.  Addition silicone
4.  Non Anatomic teeth
5.  Factors of  balanced occlusion
6.  Kennedy class1design – Mandibular arch
7.  Impression Techniques in fixed partial dentures
8.  Root form implants
9.  Over dentures
10. Isolation Procedure in Fixed partial dentures
*******

FEB 2014 Past Question FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM PAPER V - PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE

[LE 675]                            FEBRUARY 2014                        Sub. Code:4183
FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM PAPER V - PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE
Q.P Code: 544183
Time: 180 Minutes                                                        Maximum: 70 marks


I. Elaborate on:                                                                           
(2X10=20)

1.  Define facebow. Discuss the types of facebow and how do you transfer a facebow.
2.  Define pontic. Discuss the Different types of pontic.


II. Write Notes on:                                                                       
(10X5=50)
1.  Surveyors
2.  Neutral zone
3.  Gingivally approaching clasp
4.  Combination syndrome
5.  Non-Arcon articulators
6.  Kennedy class 1 design – Maxillary arch
7.  Burs used for tooth preparation for fixed prosthesis
8.   Fluid control
9.  Tissue conditioners
10. Impression Techniques in removable partial dentures
*******

Tracheostomy Procedure

# In tracheostomy, the entry into the trachea is through the:
A. Cricoid cartilage
B. First tracheal ring
C. Second and third tracheal ring
D. Fourth and fifth tracheal ring

The correct answer is C. Second and third tracheal ring

In tracheostomy, the entry into the trachea is through 2nd - 4th tracheal rings. Entry through 1st ring results in tracheal stenosis and entry through 5th - 7th rings is very difficult. 

Entry through cricothyroid membrane is called cricothyroidotomy which ia a life saving procedure when endotracheal intubation is not possible.

Maximum permissible dose of radiation:

# The maximum permissible dose of radiation to the operator of an X ray machine is:
A. 0.05 rem per year
B. 0.5 rem per year
C. 5.0 rem per year
D. 50 rem per year

The correct answer is C. 5.0 rem per year.

Occupational dose limit	Maximum permissible dose per year
1. Gonad/ Bone marrow	5 rem
2. Skin	15 rem

Non occupational dose limit	Maximum permissible doses per year
1. Embryo/ Fetus gestation period	0.5 rem
2. General public	0.5 rem
3. Skin	15 rem
NOTE: 1 Sievert = 100 rem

What is the real color of this Dress? #Blueblack or #whitegold?

1. Black and Blue or
2. White and gold??

People say that we should believe some rumors only after our eyes see the thing. we. After seeing this picture and various opinions of people regarding its color, we doubt even our own eyes. What color do you see?? Would you bet all the money you have in the color you see if anyone claims that they see otherwise? For more details about the dress and the illusion, watch the Wikipedia page: The Dress

Share with your friends and ask what color do they see.

MCQs in Oral Radiology - Radiation Physics

# The target of the X ray tube is angulated to produce all of the following except:
A. To decrease the effective focal spot
B. To increase the image sharpness
C. To energize the photons
D. To dissipate heat

# Which of the following statements is false?
A. X rays travel at the speed of 297600 km/sec
B. X rays can be focused
C. The nucleus of an atom contains protons and neutrons
D. Cathode rays can be converged to a point

# The 'heel effect' results:
A. In low intensity X ray beam on anode side of central ray
B. In high intensity beam of X rays towards cathode
C. Both of them are true
D. None of the above are true

# Half value layer refers to:
A. The rate at which an X ray photon transfer its energy to irradiated matter
B. The thickness of a substance required to reduce the number of X ray photons by half
C. The time taken for X ray photons to travel half the distance from the source to the object
D. The heel effect seen when the anode is placed at an angle to the electron stream in the X ray cathode tube

# What is the function of filtration process while taking radiographs?
A. Remove the short wavelength photons
B. Remove the portion of long wavelength photons
C. To increase the radiation dose to patient
D. To increase scatter of secondary radiation

# At 90 kVp and 15 mA at a source film distance of 8 inches, the exposure time for a film is 1/2 second using the same amount of kVp and mA the exposure time at 16 inches is:
A. 1/2 second
B. 1.5 second
C. 1 second
D. 2 seconds

# The maximum penetration among the following is seen with which ray:
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Gamma
D. Electron beam

# Mathematical representation of inverse square law is:
A. I2/I1=(D2)^2/(D1)^2
B. I1/I2=(D2)^2/(D1)^2
C. I2/I1=(D2)/(D1)
D. I1/I2=(D2)/(D1)

# X rays are produced in:
A. Anode
B. Cathode
C. Glass wall
D. Molybdenum focusing cup

# Quality of the X ray beam is governed by:
A. kVp
B. mAs
C. Filament current
D. Length of the X ray tube

# _________ is not a property of X rays.
A. Ionization
B. Action on photographic film
C. Excitation
D. Collimation

# Reducing the size of X ray beam is achieved by:
A. Filtration
B. Photoelectric effect
C. Collimation
D. Bezold-Brucke effect

# The wavelength of X ray photon depends upon:
A. Milliampearage
B. Kilovoltage
C. Distance between the source and object
D. Quantity of electrons in the cathode stream

# The X ray collimators commonly used in dentistry include the followiing EXCEPT:
A. Diaphragm collimator
B. Tubular collimator
C. Rectangular collimator
D. Square collimator

# A film badge is a type of:
A. Identification plate
B. Sonometer
C. Dosimeter
D. Tachometer

# To restrict X ray beam, which of the following is done?
A. Collimation of the beam
B. Increase kVp
C. Decrease target object distance
D. Use a grid

# Filter of which metal is used to remove long wave length X rays from the primary beam?
A. Platinum
B. Aluminium
C. Copper
D. Lead

# The speed with which the electrons travel from the filament of cathode to anode depends upon:
A. Potential difference between the two electrodes
B. Number of milliamperes in the tube circuit
C. Angle between the filament and the target
D. Voltage of the filament

# The principal reason for placing an aluminium filter in the primary beam of radiation is:
A. Potential difference between the two electrodes
B. Number of milliamperes in the tube circuit
C. Angle between the filament and the target
D. Voltage of the filament

# In a patient having dense bones, penetration is best achieved by:
A. Increase in mA
B. Increase in kVp
C. Increased exposure time
D. Increased developing time

# The X ray which are most likely to be absorbed by the tissues and produce an injury:
A. X rays of long wavelength
B. X rays of short wavelength
C. Filtered X rays
D. Central rays

# X rays are type of:
A. Atomic radiation
B. Ultrasonic radiation
C. Electromagnetic radiation
D. Particulate radiation

# X rays were discovered in:
A. Nov 1897
B. Oct 1895
C. Nov 1895
D. Nov 1890

# Collimating the X ray beam reduces the formation of scattered radiation by:
A. Selective removal of soft radiation
B. Selective removal of hard radiation
C. Reducing the size of X ray beam
D. Reducing the beam intensity by 50%

# Quantity of current can be increased by:
A. Increased milliampearage
B. Increased time
C. Increased tube current
D. All of the above

# Which of the following is electromagnetic radiation?
A. X rays
B. Alpha rays
C. Beta rays
D. None of the above

# Commonly used collimating device:
A. Aluminium filter
B. Lead diaphragm
C. Molybdenum cup
D. Tungsten filament

# The inherent filtration of x ray machines range from _________ thickness of aluminium.
A. 0.5-2 mm
B. 1.5-2.5 mm
C. 2.5-5 mm
D. 1.0-2.5 mm

# Rotating anode is mainly used to:
A. Focus photons
B. To avoid heel effect
C. To dissipate heat from focal spot
D. Increase the energy of photons

# The size of actual focal spot is:
A. 1*3 mm
B. 1*1 mm
C. 1*4 mm
D. 1*2 mm

# Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential?
A. Electron
B. Proton
C. Helium ion
D. Gamma photon

# Density of radiograph is affected by all EXCEPT:
A. mAMP
B. kVp
C. Cone angulation
D. Thickness of object

# The conversion of kinetic energy to X ray energy by the deceleration of a fast moving electron produces:
A. Bremsstrahlung radiation
B. Characteristic radiation
C. Particulate radiation
D. Orbital radiation

# The milliampearage affects the:
A. Speed at which electrons move from cathode to anode
B. Cooling of the target
C. Heating the filament
D. Penetrating ability of X rays produced

# The term used to designate a single unit of electromagnetic radiation is:
A. Particle
B. Proton
C. Photon
D. Quanta

# Penetration power is more for:
A. Hard X rays
B. Soft X rays
C. X rays with long wavelength
D. Grenz rays

# The following is not an ionizing radiation:
A. MRI
B. CT
C. USG
D. Both A and C

# Units of radiation exposure is:
A. Rad
B. Roentgen
C. Rem
D. Sievert

# The darkening of radiograph depends on all except:
A. Thickness of object
B. Quality and quantity of X rays
C. Angulation cone
D. Velocity of electron emitted from cathode

# Consistent radiographs require:
A. Long cone technique
B. Fixed kVp and mA
C. Automatic processing
D. Proper developing

# The quantity of X rays is controlled by:
A. Kilovoltage
B. Milliampearage
C. Total filtration
D. Exposure time

# Disadvantages of grids are:
A. Skin exposure of patient
B. Increase exposure time
C. Doesn't improve image
D. Overall density of radiograph is increased

# Use of an angled target in the X ray tube:
A. Increases the penetrating power of X rays
B. Reduces penetrating power of X rays
C. Increases image sharpness
D. Reduces image sharpness

# Size of focal spot influence radiographic:
A. Definition
B. Density
C. Contrast
D. All of the above

# Which one of the following is a type of electromagnetic radiation?
A. Alpha rays
B. Beta rays
C. X rays
D. Cathode rays

# Effective dose in radiation at 2 m is 1 Gray. At 1 m, it will be:
A. 0.25
B. 0.5
C. 2
D. 4

# Among the following, example of non-ionising radiation is:
A. UV
B. X rays
C. Gamma rays
D. Cosmic rays

# Which of the following is false?
A. Tungsten target is set in a copper block
B. Dental X ray tube is self rectified
C. Filtration reduces the exposure time
D. Grid reduces the secondary radiation reaching the film

# During the production of X rays, how much of electron energy is converted into heat?
A. 99%
B. 94%
C. 89%
D. 84%

# The unit of measurement of absorbed dose in X ray is:
A. Curie
B. Sievert
C. Gray
D. Kerma

# Which of the following is true:
A. Cathode is negatively charged
B. Cathode is positively charged
C. Anode emits electrons
D. Anode is connected to step down transformer

# An example of a isotope that is predominantly a beta emitter is:
A. 125 iodine
B. 32 phosphorous
C. 51 chromium
D. 99m Technetium

# Which of the following interactions does not cause film fog?
A. Coherent scattering
B. Transient scattering
C. Photoelectric absorption
D. Compton scattering

# The maximum interactions with matter in a dental X ray beam occurs in the form of:
A. Coherent scattering
B. Photoelectric absorption
C. Compton scattering
D. Characteristic radiation

# To take bite wing radiography which ISO film is used?
A. ISO #2 / ISO#1
B. ISO #1
C. ISO #3
D. ISO #4

# When the time of exposure is doubled:
A. The number of photons generated is doubled
B. The energy of photons generated is doubled
C. The velocity of photons is doubled
D. The mass of photons is doubled

# In medical radiotherapy linear particle accelerator emits:
A. Electrons and photons
B. Electrons and positrons
C. Neutrons and positrons
D. Neutrons only

Filtration of X ray Beam

# What is the function of the filtration process while taking radiographs?
A. Remove the short wavelength photons
B. Remove the portion of long wavelength photons
C. To increase the radiation dose to the patient
D. To increase the scatter of secondary radiation

The correct answer is: B. 

X-ray photons with short-wavelength have high penetration energy and are useful for diagnostic radiology X-ray photons of long-wavelength have low penetration energy and contribute to patient exposure only. These photons are removed by keeping aluminum filters in their path. The half-value layer is about 1.5 mm for an X-ray tube of 70 kVp and is about 2.5 mm for higher voltages.

Paired and Unpaired Sinuses

# Which one of the following is an unpaired sinus?
A. Cavernous sinus
B. Sigmoid sinus
C. Straight sinus
D. Superior petrosal sinus

The correct answer is C. Straight Sinus.

Venous sinuses of dura mater are:

Paired - 1. Cavernous sinus, 2. Superior petrosal sinus, 3. Inferior petrosal sinus, 4. Transverse sinus, 5. Sigmoid sinus, 6. Sphenoparietal sinus, 7. Petrosquamous sinus, 8. Middle meningeal sinus

Unpaired:

1. Superior sagittal sinus, 2. Inferior sagittal sinus, 3. Straight sinus, 4. Occipital sinus, 5. Anterior intercavernous sinus, 6. Posterior intercavernous sinus, 7. Basilar plexus of veins, 8. Sphenoid air sinus

Mixed tumors of the salivary glands

# Mixed tumors of the salivary glands are:

A. Most Common in Submandibular gland

B. Usually malignant

C.Most Common In parotid gland

D. Associated with calculi

The correct answer is C. Most Common in parotid gland.