A. Virus
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Protozoans
# Which of the following is characteristic only of viruses?
A. They are intracellular organisms
B. They affect the production of interferon and are sensitive to it
C. They reproduce by binary fission
D. They can be grown on an inanimate media
# Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following EXCEPT:
A. Tissue culture
B. Embryonated eggs
C. Animals
D. Chemically defined media
# All of the following are true for identification of viruses EXCEPT:
A. Nature of viral nucleic acid
B. Ability to be grown on differential media
C. Neutralisation with specific antisera makes antiviral vaccines a possibility
D. Nature of protein coat
# Viruses cause disease by:
A. Lysing host cells
B. Malignant transformation of normal cells
C. Interfering immunological defensive mechanisms
D. All of the above
# Viruses are sharply differentiated from bacteria by:
A. Presence of either DNA or RNA
B. Simple structure
C. Complex multiplication
D. All of the above
# The component of virus particle mainly responsible for its pathogenecity is:
A. Nucleic acids
B. Glycoproteins
C. Lipid layer
D. Core
# DNA covering material in a virus is called:
A. Capsomere
B. Capsid
C. Nucleocapsid
D. Envelope
# The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell culture is:
A. Cytopathic changes in culture cells
B. Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
C. Haemagglutinin test
D. Haemagglutinin inhibition test
# Cytopathic effect is shown by:
A. New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
B. Fall into the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
C. Contain equal proportions of protein, lipopolysaccharides and nucleic acids
D. Contain DNA but no RNA
# The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is:
A. Transformation
B. Translation
C. Conjugation
D. Lysogeny
# Some bacteriophages become stably associated with bacterial host. Such bacteriophages are called:
A. Temperate phage
B. Virulent phage
C. Stable phage
D. Permanent phage
# The viral genome associated stably with bacteria is called:
A. Prophage
B. Virulent phage
C. Stable phage
D. None of the above
# True about prions:
A. Composed largely of proteins without any nucleic acids
B. Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
C. Viruses which are genetically deficient
D. Viral components may be synthesized but maturation and assembling is defective
# Virion is defined as:
A. Extracellular infectious virus particle
B. Smallest virus
C. A smallest particle similar to virus
D. None of the above
# The presence of which of the following factors in viruses make protective vaccines a possibility?
A. Enzymes
B. Protein coat
C. Polysaccharide
D. Lipids
# Certain viruses have been isolated in crystalline form and have been found to be:
A. Nucleotides
B. Phospholipids
C. Scleroproteins
D. Nucleoproteins
# Eclipse stage of a viral infection refers to:
A. Development of lysogenic phase
B. Absence of demonstrable virus particle
C. Increase in number of virus particles
D. None of the above
# Late proteins synthesized in viral replications are:
A. Viral structural proteins
B. Proteins that inhibit formation of host DNA
C. Proteins that inhibit formation of RNA
D. None of the above
# Mumps virus spreads by:
A. Salivary droplets
B. Faeces
C. Food
D. Blood products
# EB virus belongs to the group of:
A. Retro virus
B. Herpes virus
C. RNA virus
D. Pox virus
# Which of the following viruses does not cause skin lesions?
A. Picorna
B. Herpes virus
C. Orthomyxo virus
D. Paramyxoviridae
# The presence of which of the following is a characteristic feature of retrovirus?
A. Ribonuclease
B. Reverse transcriptase
C. DNA polymerase
D. Restriction endonuclease
# Rubella virus belongs to:
A. Paramyxoviridae
B. Picornaviridae
C. Retroviridae
D. Orthomyxoviridae
# Hepatitis C belongs to which one of the following virus groups?
A. Picorna virus
B. Herpes virus
C. Hepadna virus
D. Flavi virus
# The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route:
A. Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B virus
B. Hepatitis B and Hepatitis D virus
C. Hepatitis D and Hepatitis E virus
D. Hepatitis A and Hepatitis E virus
# Hepatitis D virus (delta agent) is a defective virus that can replicate only in cells already infected with which of the following viruses?
A. Herpes Virus
B. Epstein Barr virus
C. HIV
D. Hepatitis B virus
# All of the following are true except:
A. Hepatitis A has less incubation period than hepatitis B
B. Hepatitis A has high mortality rate compared to hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis A is commonly transmitted by orofecal route but can be transmitted by blood products
D. Hepatitis B is commonly transmitted by blood products
# All of the following infections may be transmitted by dental instruments EXCEPT:
A. HIV
B. Hepatitis C
C. Hepatitis B
D. Hepatitis E
# Long incubation period is characteristic feature of:
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Measles
D. Mumps
# Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion, disease manifests in:
A. 1 week
B. 6 weeks
C. 3 months
D. 6 months
# Enterically transmitted NANB hepatitis is:
A. Hepatitis C
B. Hepatitis D
C. Hepatitis E
D. Hepatitis F
# Presence of HBeAg in patients with hepatitis indicates:
A. Simple carriers
B. Late convalescence
C. High infectivity
D. Carrier status
# True about immune response of Hepatitis B:
A. Antibody of HBsAg is associated with resistance to infection
B. Antibody to HBC is not protective
C. Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBsAg
D. CMI disappears soon after recovery
# Serological marker for acute serum hepatitis is:
A. HBsAg
B. HBeAg
C. Core antibody
D. HBcAg
# S4 dane particle refer to:
A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Hepatitis C virus
D. Hepatitis E virus
# Australia antigen is associated with:
A. Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
B. AIDS
C. Chronic leukemia
D. Basal cell carcinoma
# There is risk of hepatitis B transmission from patients carrying all of the following except:
A. HBsAb
B. HBcAg
C. DNA polymerase
D. HBeAg
# A rise in the anti HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates:
A. Acute infection
B. Carrier state
C. Prodromal phase
D. Convalescence
# All of the following have carrier state EXCEPT:
A. Hepatitis A and Measles
B. Hepatitis B and mumps
C. Herpes simplex
D. Typhoid and Streptopyogenes
# Hepatitis B is communicable at which stage?
A. Incubation period
B. Infection state
C. Convalescent period
D. All of the above
# Which is that common to both Hepatitis B and tuberculosis?
A. Both are bacterial diseases
B. Both are viral diseases
C. Both have long contagious incubation periods
D. Both are symbionts to human beings
# AIDS virus is a:
A. Picadano virus
B. Retrovirus
C. DNA virus
D. Enterovirus
# Major route of transmission of HIV is:
A. Sexual
B. Parenteral
C. Familial
D. All of the above
# HIV infection is known to be transmitted during all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Breastfeeding
B. Childbirth
C. Heterosexual intercourse
D. Kissing
# Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true EXCEPT:
A. Failure to thrive
B. Have infections
C. 50% chance to have AIDS
D. All are true
# AIDS is caused by human retrovirus that kills:
A. Helper lymphocytes or CD4 positive cells
B. Suppressor cells or CD8 positive cells
C. Both suppressor and helper cells
D. B lymphocytes
# Human immunodeficiency virus HIV, affects:
A. Red blood cells
B. Fibroblasts
C. Helper T lymphocytes
D. Mast cells
# The number of CD4 cells in AIDS is:
A. Below 600
B. Below 500
C. Below 400
D. Below 200
# The virus HIV is produced and propagated in:
A. Dendritic cells of the lymph node germinal epithelium
B. Circulating T4 lymphocytes
C. B-lymphocytes
D. Epithelial cells of the sex organs
# Which of the following cells escape HIV infection?
A. Macrophages
B. T4 helper cells
C. Monocytes
D. Neutrophils
# Half life of free HIV in plasma is:
A. 24 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 3 months
# The "window period" in HIV infection means:
A. The time lapse between the infection and the detection of viral antibodies
B. The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
C. The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
D. Non of the above
# ELISA is:
A. name of a scientist
B. a radiologic procedure
C. a pioneer in dentistry
D. an enzymatic immune reaction
# Regarding AIDS, ELISA is done for:
A. Only screening antibodies
B. Detecting antigens
C. It is a confirmatory test
D. All of the above
# Confirmatory test for HIV infection is:
A. ELISA
B. Immunodot
C. RIPA
D. Western blot
# Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection?
A. Virus isolation
B. Western blot followed by ELISA
C. ELISA followed by western blot technique
D. Polymerase chain reaction
# HIV can be detected and confirmed by:
A. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
B. Reverse transcriptase - PCR
C. Real time PCR
D. Mimic PCR
# Which one of the following tests is most useful in detecting the progression of disease to symptomatic AIDS in a HIV positive patient?
A. CD4 lymphocyte count
B. HIV antibody test
C. HIV RT PCR
D. HIV p24 antigen
# Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is:
A. Cryptococcosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Candidiasis
D. Aspergillosis
# The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is:
A. Aphthous stomatitis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
D. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
# The only virus which has double stranded RNA is:
A. Bunya virus
B. Reo virus
C. Calci virus
D. Rhabdo virus
# All of the following are RNA virus except:
A. Rhabdo virus
B. Adeno virus
C. Hepatitis A virus
D. Arenavirus
# All of the following viruses are DNA viruses except:
A. Pox virus
B. Paramyxovirus
C. Herpes virus
D. Papova virus
# Which of the following viruses does not cause known carcinoma in humans?
A. Adeno virus
B. Hepatitis B
C. H. Simplex virus
D. HTLV-1
# Cervical carcinoma that is most commonly associated with sexually transmitted diseases that is caused by which of the following viruses?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Papillomavirus
C. Epstein Barr virus
D. Herpes Simplex Virus
# The degradation of p53 through ubiquitous dependent proteolysis by the binding of high risk HPV protein is:
A. E6 and E7
B. E7
C. E6
D. E6, E7 and E8
# Influenza is caused by:
A. Orthomyxovirus, which is a DNA virus
B. Paramyxovirus, which is a RNA virus
C. Paramyxovirus, which is a DNA virus
D. Orthomyxovirus, which is a RNA virus
# All of the following are pox viruses except:
A. Small pox
B. Cow pox
C. Chicken pox
D. None of the above
# The virus which causes Herpes zoster is same as that which causes:
A. Herpes virus
B. Herpangina
C. Chicken pox
D. Measles
# All of the following viruses are capable of causing human cancers EXCEPT:
A. Papilloma virus
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Epstein Barr virus
D. Parvovirus B19
# A virus that can persist life long in most individuals is:
A. Rubella virus
B. Herpes zoster
C. Herpes simplex
D. Varicella
# Which of the following oncogenic viruses with their tumors are correctly matched?
A. EB virus - African Burkitt's jaw lymphoma
B. CMV - Kaposi's Sarcoma
C. Herpes Simplex II - Cervix Carcinoma
D. All of the above
# In higher socioeconomic individuals the primary infection with herpes simplex results in:
A. Dermal rash
B. Unilateral vesicles on trunk
C. Encephalitis
D. Sub clinical disease
# Herpes virus:
A. Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
B. Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
C. Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmic membrane
D. None of the above
# A disease characterized by unilateral distribution of painful vesicles along the dermatome supplied by sensory nerve is caused by:
A. Herpes simplex
B. Herpes zoster
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Herpangina
# Herpes Zoster (Shingles) occurs after primary attack of:
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Chickenpox
D. Rubella
# Which of the following do not have latent infection?
A. Smallpox
B. Chickenpox
C. Mumps
D. All of the above
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