# Agranulocytosis refers to:
A. Increased production of agranulocytes
B. Decreased production of granulocytes
C. Decreased production of lymphocytes
D. None of the above
The correct answer is B. Decreased production of granulocytes.
Philadelphia chromosome
# True about Philadelphia chromosome is:
A. Seen in CML
B. Due to reciprocal translocation from chromosome 9 to 22 and vice versa
C. It is a prognostic feature
D. All of the above
The correct answer is D. All of the above.
Chronic Lymphocytic thyroiditis refers to:
# Chronic Lymphocytic thyroiditis refers to:
a) Tuberculous thyroiditis
b) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
c) Dequervain's thyroiditis
d) Riedel's thyroiditis
The correct answer is B. Hashimoto's Thyroiditis.
Hashmimoto's thyroiditis:
• Most common type of thyroiditis
• Autoimmune; raised titres of thyroid antibodies.
• Mild hyperthyroidism may be present initially but hypothyroidism is inevitable.
• Characteristic 'bosselated' feel with soft, rubbery or firm in consistency; Hurthle cells present.
Auer bodies are a characteristic of:
# Auer bodies are a characteristic of:
A. Plasma cells
B. Monocytes
C. Myeloblasts
D. Reticulocytes
A. Plasma cells
B. Monocytes
C. Myeloblasts
D. Reticulocytes
The correct answer is C. Myeloblasts.
Myeloblasts may have intracytoplasmic rods (stain red) called Auer rods. Auer rods are abnormal lysosomes (primary granules) that are pathognomic of myeloblasts and not found in ALL. Auer rods also stain positive with myeloperoxidase. The diagnosis of AML is established by the presence of >20% myeloblasts in blood and/or bone marrow. A positive myeloperoxidase reaction in >3% of the blasts may be the only feature distinguishing AML from acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).
G6PD Deficiency causes
# Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency causes:
A. Haemophilia
B. Hemolytic anaemia
C. Aplastic anaemia
D. Megaloblastic anaemia
The correct answer is B. Hemolytic anemia.
The red blood cells are well protected against oxidation because of adequate generation of reduced glutathione. Individuals with G6PD deficiency (an enzyme required for hexose monophosphate shunt / HMP shunt for glucose metabolism) fail to develop adequate levels of reduced glutathione in their red cells and this results in oxidation and precipitation of hemoglobin within the red cells forming "HEINZ BODIES"
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A. Haemophilia
B. Hemolytic anaemia
C. Aplastic anaemia
D. Megaloblastic anaemia
The correct answer is B. Hemolytic anemia.
The red blood cells are well protected against oxidation because of adequate generation of reduced glutathione. Individuals with G6PD deficiency (an enzyme required for hexose monophosphate shunt / HMP shunt for glucose metabolism) fail to develop adequate levels of reduced glutathione in their red cells and this results in oxidation and precipitation of hemoglobin within the red cells forming "HEINZ BODIES"
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Most common cause of megaloblastic anemia
# Most common cause of megaloblastic anemia is:
A. Lack of folic acid in diet
B. Inability to absorb vit B12
C. Iron deficiency in diet
D. Chronic blood loss
A. Lack of folic acid in diet
B. Inability to absorb vit B12
C. Iron deficiency in diet
D. Chronic blood loss
The correct answer is B. Inability to absorb Vit. B12.
The dietary intake of Vit B12 (Cobalamine) is more than adequate for the body's requirements, except in true vegetarians and their breast fed infants. Thus deficiency of cobalamin is almost always due to malabsorption. Malabsorption can occur at several levels.
In contrast, the dietary intake of folic acid is very less. Also, because the body's store of folate are relatively low, folic acid deficiency can arise rather suddenly during periods of decreased dietary intake or increased metabolic demand as in pregnancy. Folic acid deficiency can also be due to malabsorption.
Nutritional deficiency anemia
# Which of the following is nutritional deficiency anemia?
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Spherocytosis
D. Megaloblastic anemia
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Spherocytosis
D. Megaloblastic anemia
The correct answer is D. Megaloblastic anemia.
Iron deficiency and megaloblastic anemia are called as nutritional deficiency anemias.
Iron deficiency anemia is most common in hookworm infestations in children.
Megaloblastic anemias are due to impaired DNA synthesis and are characterized by delay in the maturation of nucleus. Cells primarily affected are those having relatively rapid turnover, especially hematopoietic precursors and gastrointestinal epithelial cells.
The underlying defect for maturation arrest is due to deficiency of Vitamin B12 and/or folic acid.
Immobilization of head in a non compliant patient
# Which of the following is commonly used for immobilization of the head in a non-compliant patient?
A. Papoose board
B. Pedi-wrap
C. Forearm-body support
D. All of the above
A. Papoose board
B. Pedi-wrap
C. Forearm-body support
D. All of the above
The correct answer is C. Forearm body support.
Physical restraints: Last resort for handling uncooperative patients or handicapped patients.
- Restraints are usually needed for children who are hyperactive, stubborn, or defiant.
- Physical restraints involve restriction of movement of the child's head, hands, feets, or body. It can be:
* Active - restraints performed by the dentist, staff or parent without the aid of a restraining device.
* Passive - with the aid of restraining devices like Papoose board, Posey straps, Pedi-wrap, Head positioner, etc.
Non pharmacological approach of behavior management
# One of the following is not a non-pharmacological approach of behavior management?
A. Voice control
B. Conscious sedation
C. Hypnosis
D. Tell show do technique
A. Voice control
B. Conscious sedation
C. Hypnosis
D. Tell show do technique
The correct answer is B. Conscious sedation.
All the other options, Voice control, hypnosis, and tell show do technique are non pharmacological methods of behavior management.
The best way to help a frightened child to overcome his fear
# The best way to help a frightened child to overcome his fear:
A. Identify the fear
B. Ignore the fear
C. Ridicule the frightened child
D. Divert the patient's attention
A. Identify the fear
B. Ignore the fear
C. Ridicule the frightened child
D. Divert the patient's attention
The correct answer is A. Identify the fear.
First identify whether the child is suffering from anxiety or fear. Fear is related to real events or things, whereas anxiety is related to imaginary conditions. Stress is the result of both fear and anxiety.
Pit and Fissure Sealant
# Teeth that have lost pits and fissure sealant show…
A. The same susceptibility to caries as teeth that have not been sealed
B. Higher susceptibility than non sealed teeth
C. Lower susceptibility than non sealed teeth.
D. The same susceptibility as teeth with full retained sealant
A. The same susceptibility to caries as teeth that have not been sealed
B. Higher susceptibility than non sealed teeth
C. Lower susceptibility than non sealed teeth.
D. The same susceptibility as teeth with full retained sealant
The correct answer is C. Lower susceptibility than non sealed teeth.
Teeth that have been sealed and then have lost the sealant have had fewer lesions than control teeth.This is possibly due to the presence of tags that are retained in the enamel after the bulk of the sealant has been sheared from the tooth surface. When the resin sealant flows over the prepared surface, it penetrates the finger-like depressions created by the etching solution. These projections of resin into the etched areas are called tags.
Best Brushing Technique for Patient with Gingival recession
# Patient comes to you with edematous gingiva, inflamed, loss of gingival contour and recession, what's the best tooth brushing technique?
A. Modified bass.
B. Modified stillman.
C. Charter.
D. Scrub.
The correct answer is B. Modified Stillman.
The brushing technique which is recommended after periodontal surgery is Charter.
The brushing technique which is recommended for areas with progression gingival recession is modified Stillman.
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A. Modified bass.
B. Modified stillman.
C. Charter.
D. Scrub.
The correct answer is B. Modified Stillman.
The brushing technique which is recommended after periodontal surgery is Charter.
The brushing technique which is recommended for areas with progression gingival recession is modified Stillman.
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Third Molar Impaction Extraction
# If impacted 3rd molar is to be extracted in patient planned for bilateral sagittal split osteotomy then extraction should be done:
a) 8-12 weeks after surgery
b) At the time of surgery
c) 1 month after surgery
d) 6 month before surgery
a) 8-12 weeks after surgery
b) At the time of surgery
c) 1 month after surgery
d) 6 month before surgery
The correct answer is D. 6 months before surgery.
The poor split occurs more in cases where the last molar is removed at the time of surgery. Hence it is advised to have the last molar (if needed) to be removed about 6 months prior to surgery.
Ecchymosis and Hematoma Treatment
# Ecchymosis and hematoma are treated with:
a) Intermittent ice pack
b) Continuous ice pack
c) Intermittent hot pack
d) Pressure and pack
a) Intermittent ice pack
b) Continuous ice pack
c) Intermittent hot pack
d) Pressure and pack
The correct answer is: A. Intermittent ice pack
Management of ecchymosis consists of the immediate application of cold followed by heat. In severe cases, antibiotics are given along with proteolytic enzymes which causes break down of coagulated blood.
In the management of hematoma do not apply heat to the area for at least 4 to 6 hours after the incident.
Heat may be applied to the region beginning the next day. Although its benefits are debatable.
Ice may be applied to the region immediately on recognition of a developing hematoma. It acts as
both an analgesic and a vasoconstrictor, and it may aid in minimizing the size of hematoma.
Jorgensen Technique of IV sedation
# In Jorgensen technique on IV sedation for dental procedure drugs used are:
a) Pentobarbital
b) Meperidine
c) Scopolamine
d) All the above
The correct answer is: D. All of the above.
Jorgenson technique includes intravenous administration of opioids. The drugs used in Jorgenson technique are:
a) Pentobarbital
b) Meperidine
c) Scopolamine (Hyoscine)
d) Pethidine, etc.
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a) Pentobarbital
b) Meperidine
c) Scopolamine
d) All the above
The correct answer is: D. All of the above.
Jorgenson technique includes intravenous administration of opioids. The drugs used in Jorgenson technique are:
a) Pentobarbital
b) Meperidine
c) Scopolamine (Hyoscine)
d) Pethidine, etc.
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Sublingual Space vs Submandibular Space
# Sublingual space is divided from submandibular space by:
a) Fibres of mylohyoid
b) Submandibular gland
c) Body of mandible
d) Geniohyoid
a) Fibres of mylohyoid
b) Submandibular gland
c) Body of mandible
d) Geniohyoid
The correct answer is A. Fibres of Mylohyoid.
The mylohyoid muscle, which forms the floor of the oral cavity, is the key to the diagnosis and surgical management of the infections of the sublingual and submandibular spaces. The submandibular space is separated from the overlying sublingual space by the fibers of the mylohyoid muscle.
Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis
# Cavernous sinus thrombosis following infection of anterior maxillary teeth most often from spread of infection along:
a) Facial artery
b) Angular artery
c) Ophthalmic vein
d) Pterygoid plexus
a) Facial artery
b) Angular artery
c) Ophthalmic vein
d) Pterygoid plexus
The correct answer is C. Ophthalmic vein.
Cavernous thrombosis (CST) is the infectious thrombosis of the cavernous sinus, which is a dural venous space present in the middle cranial fossa on either side of the sella turcica.
• It is a paired sinus, anterior and posterior. Infections to cavernous sinus may spread by two
pathways.
• The anterior route composed of ophthalmic veins and their anastomosis with the facial vein;
the angular vein; the infraorbital vein; and the inferior palpebral vein; readily allows the invasion of the cavernous sinus. Spread of infection by this pathway presents the classic picture of a fulminating cavernous .sin us thrombosis and CST through this route is more common than posterior route.
• The pterygoid venous plexus, which constitutes the posterior route, provide a connection between cavernous sinus and the retromandibular vein.
Types of Maxillary Major Connectors
| TYPE | IMPORTANT FEATURES |
| Single palatal bar | • Palatal connector component of less than 8mm in width is referred to as a bar • It is the least logical of all palatal connectors • To maintain rigidity it has to be made bulky • Derives least support from the palate . |
| Palatal strap | • It has suitable rigidity without excessive bulk • Its width should be increased as the edentulous span increases in length . • It is best suited for short span, tooth supported edentulous areas . |
| Anteroposterior Palatal Bar (double palatal bar) | • In comparison to the amount of soft tissue coverage, it is by far the most rigid palatal major connector • It is indicated in the presence of a torus that is not to be removed . • Anterior bar is narrower than the width of palatal strap. • Posterior bar is half oval; its width is equal to single palatal bar but less. bulky . • Derives least support from the bony palate • Not indicated in high narrow palatal vault and if the remaining teeth are periodontally weak |
| Anteroposterior Palatal Strap (Closed horse shoe) | • It is indicated in almost any maxillary partial denture design . • Structurally it is the rigid palatal major connector . • The anterior border should be located posteriorly in the valleys between the rugae crests . • Posterior border located at junction of hard and soft palates . • It is the best designed palatal major connector. |
| U shaped or Horse Shoe shaped | • Least desirable palatal major connector . • Poorest designed palatal major connector because it lacks rigidity • This is indicated only in cases of inoperable tori extending to the posterior limit of t he hard palate . • It lacks rigidity • This design leads to increased flexibility and movement at the open ends . • The wider the coverage, the more it resemble a complete palate (palatal plate) |
| Complete Palate (Palatal plate) | • It is the major connector that provides greatest retention . • Due to accuracy and stability of the cast metal, posterior palatal seal is not necessary. • The posterior border extends to the junction of the soft and hard palate . • It is indicated when anterior or posterior teeth are to be replaced bilaterally . |
Stress breaker in Partial Dentures
# Disadvantage of using a stress breaker in partial dentures is:
a) The partial denture becomes cumbersome
b) Ridge resorption occurs
c) Its is not economical
d) No disadvantages present
a) The partial denture becomes cumbersome
b) Ridge resorption occurs
c) Its is not economical
d) No disadvantages present
The correct answer is B. Ridge resorption occurs.
Stress breaker or equalizer is a device that allows some movement between the denture base and the direct retainer. This type of design protects the vulnerable abutment teeth and concentrates more stresses on the residual ridge.
Its disadvantages are:
• Increased residual ridge resorption
• Difficulty to fabricate and repair
• Less tolerated by the patient
• The need for frequent relining
• High cost
Guiding planes in RPD
# Guiding plane in RPD should be located at:
a) In between edentulous space
b) Abutment surface adjacent to an edentulous area
c) Edentulous areas
d) Abutment area
a) In between edentulous space
b) Abutment surface adjacent to an edentulous area
c) Edentulous areas
d) Abutment area
The correct answer is: B. Abutment surface adjacent to an edentulous area.
Guiding planes are surfaces on proximal or lingual surfaces of teeth that are parallel to each other and, more importantly, to the parts of insertions and removal of a removable partial denture. These planes may be created on enamel surfaces or on the surfaces of dental restorations.
The function of guiding planes are as follows:
• To provide one path of placement and removal of restoration.
• To ensure the intended actions of reciprocal, stabilizing and retentive components.
• To eliminate gross food traps between abutment teeth and components of the denture.
As a rule, proximal guiding plane surfaces should be about one half the width of the distance between the tips of adjacent buccal and lingual cusps or about one third of the buccal lingual width of the tooth. They should extend vertically about 2/3rds of the length of enamel crown portion of the tooth from the marginal ridge cervically.
Dental Surveyor
# Dental surveyor is used to:
a) Measure resiliency of tissues
b) Indicate relative parallelism between two teeth
c) To determine primary stress bearing area
d) To determine the depth of undercut
The correct answer is D. To determine the depth of undercut.
- Surveyor is used to determine the relative parallelism of two or more surfaces of teeth or other parts of dental cast. It is used to:
• Survey the diagnostic and master cast
• Contour wax patterns and crowns
• Measure specific depth of undercut
• Blocking out the master cast
• Place internal rests etc.
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a) Measure resiliency of tissues
b) Indicate relative parallelism between two teeth
c) To determine primary stress bearing area
d) To determine the depth of undercut
The correct answer is D. To determine the depth of undercut.
- Surveyor is used to determine the relative parallelism of two or more surfaces of teeth or other parts of dental cast. It is used to:
• Survey the diagnostic and master cast
• Contour wax patterns and crowns
• Measure specific depth of undercut
• Blocking out the master cast
• Place internal rests etc.
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Advantage of resin teeth over porcelain teeth
# The advantage of resin teeth over porcelain teeth is:
a) Greater wear resistance
b) Increased hardness
c) Better dimensional stability
d) Greater impact resistance
The correct answer is D. Greater Impact resistance.
Resin teeth display greater impact resistance and ductility and are less likely to chip or fracture when compared to porcelain.
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a) Greater wear resistance
b) Increased hardness
c) Better dimensional stability
d) Greater impact resistance
The correct answer is D. Greater Impact resistance.
Resin teeth display greater impact resistance and ductility and are less likely to chip or fracture when compared to porcelain.
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Occlusal Plane for Complete Denture
# The occlusal plane for the complete denture patient is determined by:
a) The face bow device which determines the occlusal plane
b) The position of the upper first molar
c) The height of the retromolar pad and anterior esthetic height
d) The curve of Spee and the anterior esthetics
a) The face bow device which determines the occlusal plane
b) The position of the upper first molar
c) The height of the retromolar pad and anterior esthetic height
d) The curve of Spee and the anterior esthetics
The correct answer is: c) The height of the retromolar pad and anterior esthetic height.
Palatal Hyperplasia due to Denture Irritation
# Treatment of choice for palatal hyperplasia occurring due to denture irritation is:
a) Discontinuation of dentures
b) Radicular excision
c) Supraperiosteal excision
d) No treatment necessary
The correct answer is C. Supraperiosteal excision.
Early treatment for papillary hyperplasia includes prosthesis adjustment, tissue conditioning and proper oral hygiene. Advanced treatment consists of supraperiosteal excision. There is no need to excise full thickness of palatal tissue. The techniques include removal of inflamed mucosa with electrosurgery loops, laser ablation, sharp dissection, dermabrasion brushes, and cryotherapy.
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a) Discontinuation of dentures
b) Radicular excision
c) Supraperiosteal excision
d) No treatment necessary
The correct answer is C. Supraperiosteal excision.
Early treatment for papillary hyperplasia includes prosthesis adjustment, tissue conditioning and proper oral hygiene. Advanced treatment consists of supraperiosteal excision. There is no need to excise full thickness of palatal tissue. The techniques include removal of inflamed mucosa with electrosurgery loops, laser ablation, sharp dissection, dermabrasion brushes, and cryotherapy.
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Denture Cleaning Powder
# Which of the following is the main ingredient of denture cleaning powder or tablets?
a) Hydrogen peroxides
b) Detergents
c) Sodium perborates
d) Alkaline compounds
a) Hydrogen peroxides
b) Detergents
c) Sodium perborates
d) Alkaline compounds
The correct answer is C. Sodium Perborates.
All the denture cleansing powder and tablets contain detergent, flavouring agent, alkaline compounds and sodium perborate. The main component is sodium perborate. It decomposes in water to form a peroxide solution which inturn breaks down to liberate oxygen. It is this oxygen bubbles that remove the debris on the denture surfaces.
Iron carbide in Orthodontic Wire
# The iron carbide in orthodontic wire is in the form of:
a) Martensite
b) Ferrite
c) Carbide
d) Austenite
a) Martensite
b) Ferrite
c) Carbide
d) Austenite
The correct answer is D. Austenite.
Infantile Swallowing
# The positioning of tongue in infantile swallowing is:
a) Posterior
b) Medial
c) Lateral
d) Anterior
a) Posterior
b) Medial
c) Lateral
d) Anterior
The correct answer is D. Anterior.
Tongue thrusting, simply defined, is the habit of thrusting the tongue forward (anterior) against the teeth or in between while swallowing. It is an infantile pattern of swallowing that has been retained by an individual.
Quick Review of Dental Anatomy and occlusion MCQs
A. FDI System
B. Palmer system
C. Universal system
D. ADA system
# Resorption in primary central incisors begin at:
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years
Posterior Bite Plane Indications:
# Posterior bite plane is used in correcting :
a) Deep bite
b) Anterior open bite
c) Anterior cross bite
d) Posterior cross bite
a) Deep bite
b) Anterior open bite
c) Anterior cross bite
d) Posterior cross bite
The correct answer is C. Anterior Cross Bite
Anterior Bite Plane:
• Used for correction of deep bite
• It should provide a clearance of 2-3 mm between upper and lower posterior teeth to provide space for supra eruption.
Posterior Bite Plane:
• Along with Z spring used in treatment of anterior cross bite
Upper anterior inclined Plane
• Provides reinforced or multiple anchorage and is constructed at an angle of 60° to occlusal plane
• The mandible is used to reinforce the anchorage by the engagement of lower incisors on to upper inclined bite plane. Thus a distal force is applied on the maxillary teeth
SVED Appliance
• It is a modification of upper anterior inclined plane with an additional upper incisal capping. It has advantage of splinting the incisors to prevent them being forced labially.
Catlans appliance or lower anterior inclined plane
• The inclined plane is designed to have a 45 degree angulation and is used to treat maxillary anterior teeth in crossbite.
• It can be made of acrylic or cast metal and is designed to treat a single tooth in cross bite or a segment of upper arch in crossbite.
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Anterior Bite Plane Indications
# Anterior bite plane is used in correction of:
a) Anterior cross bite
b) Deep bite
c) Open bite
d) All of the above
Anterior Bite Plane:
a) Anterior cross bite
b) Deep bite
c) Open bite
d) All of the above
The correct answer is B. Deep Bite.
• Used for correction of deep bite
• It should provide a clearance of 2-3 mm between upper and lower posterior teeth to provide space for supra eruption.
Posterior Bite Plane:
• Along with Z spring used in treatment of anterior cross bite
Upper anterior inclined Plane
• Provides reinforced or multiple anchorage and is constructed at an angle of 60° to occlusal plane
• The mandible is used to reinforce the anchorage by the engagement of lower incisors on to upper inclined bite plane. Thus a distal force is applied on the maxillary teeth
SVED Appliance
• It is a modification of upper anterior inclined plane with an additional upper incisal capping. It has advantage of splinting the incisors to prevent them being forced labially.
Catlans appliance or lower anterior inclined plane
• The inclined plane is designed to have a 45 degree angulation and is used to treat maxillary anterior teeth in crossbite.
• It can be made of acrylic or cast metal and is designed to treat a single tooth in cross bite or a segment of upper arch in crossbite.
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MCQs on Pathology of Cell Proliferation and Neoplasia - General Pathology MCQs
A. Hyperplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Dysplasia
D. Neoplasia
# The disordered reversible cellular changes such as pleomorphism, nuclear hyperchromatin are seen in:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Dysplasia
D. Neoplasia
Polyglycolic acid Dexon suture material
# Polyglycolic acid (Dexon) suture material is:
A. Absorbable natural suture
B. Absorbable synthetic suture
C. Non-absorbable natural suture
D. Non-absorbable synthetic suture
The correct answer is B.
Polyglycolic acid (Dexon) and Polygalactin 910 (vicryl), Polyglyconate, Glycomer 631, Polyglytone 6211, Polydioxanone (PDS) are synthetic absorbable suture.
Polygalactic acid (Dexon) is green dyed and Polygalactin 910 (vicryl) is purple dyed while remaining are undyed.
Polygalactin (coated vicryl) is braided. It is commonly used for bowel anastomosis, as a general tie for vessels and as a subcuticular suture for skin. It has 75 percent of its strength at 2 weeks and 50 percent at three weeks. It causes a minimal tissue reaction and is very close to being the ideal suture for almost all purposes.
Polyglyconate has some some superior strength. It retains 75 percent of original strength at two weeks of post-implantation. Advantages over other sutures, such as improved handling properties, lacks memory, passes easily through tissues and demonstrates good strength. Absorption is essentially complete by 180 days.
Polydioxanone (PDS) suture has greater pliability than polypropylene suture and has greater strength than that of other monofilament sutures. In the body, Polydioxanone suture retains its strength for longer periods than other synthetic absorbable sutures.
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A. Absorbable natural suture
B. Absorbable synthetic suture
C. Non-absorbable natural suture
D. Non-absorbable synthetic suture
Polyglycolic acid (Dexon) and Polygalactin 910 (vicryl), Polyglyconate, Glycomer 631, Polyglytone 6211, Polydioxanone (PDS) are synthetic absorbable suture.
Polygalactic acid (Dexon) is green dyed and Polygalactin 910 (vicryl) is purple dyed while remaining are undyed.
Polygalactin (coated vicryl) is braided. It is commonly used for bowel anastomosis, as a general tie for vessels and as a subcuticular suture for skin. It has 75 percent of its strength at 2 weeks and 50 percent at three weeks. It causes a minimal tissue reaction and is very close to being the ideal suture for almost all purposes.
Polyglyconate has some some superior strength. It retains 75 percent of original strength at two weeks of post-implantation. Advantages over other sutures, such as improved handling properties, lacks memory, passes easily through tissues and demonstrates good strength. Absorption is essentially complete by 180 days.
Polydioxanone (PDS) suture has greater pliability than polypropylene suture and has greater strength than that of other monofilament sutures. In the body, Polydioxanone suture retains its strength for longer periods than other synthetic absorbable sutures.
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Maxillary root removal technique
# Elevators should not be used to remove palatal root of an:
A. Upper incisor
B. Upper canine
C. Upper premolar
D. Upper molar
A. Upper incisor
B. Upper canine
C. Upper premolar
D. Upper molar
The correct answer is D. Upper molar.
- Elevators should not be used to remove the palatal root of an upper molar.
- The buccal wall of socket does not form satisfactory fulcrum and can be crushed by the elevating force.
- Furthermore, there is always the danger of forcing the root into antrum.
- The palatal root must be seen clearly, which usually implies the removal of both buccal roots and if necessary some surrounding bone, which can be done with a bur.
- Gentle dislocation with a narrow coupland chisel or rotation with upper root forceps should deliver the root.
Radix Entomolaris / Radix Paramolaris
The radix entomolaris is an additional root in human's mandibular molar teeth. The human mandibular teeth have two roots usually. In rare cases, however, a root may develop between the distal and the mesial roots which is called entomolaris, if it is located lingual to the tooth.
Such a phenomenon is named radix paramolaris in case an extra root is buccal to a molar tooth. It is important to remember that an extra root can appear both in the first and second molars.
Such a phenomenon is named radix paramolaris in case an extra root is buccal to a molar tooth. It is important to remember that an extra root can appear both in the first and second molars.
 |
| Three roots on mandibular molar, radix entomolaris |
 |
| Radix entomolaris on a mandibular left first molar |
 |
| Mandibular molar three roots, Radix Entomolaris |
 |
| Radix entomolaris, apical view |
Straight Elevator
# A straight elevator is properly used to advantage when the:
A. Adjacent tooth is the fulcrum
B. Tooth is isolated
C. Interdental bone is fulcrum
D. Adjacent tooth is not to be extracted
The correct answer is C. Interdental bone is fulcrum.
Straight elevator (Coupland, London Pattern) is the most commonly used. Usually used to luxate and elevate mandibular third molar and when multiple extractions are needed. It is not recommended in upper arch. This utilizes principle of lever mechanism. Alveolar crest acts as fulcrum. Adjacent teeth should never be used as fulcrum.
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A. Adjacent tooth is the fulcrum
B. Tooth is isolated
C. Interdental bone is fulcrum
D. Adjacent tooth is not to be extracted
The correct answer is C. Interdental bone is fulcrum.
Straight elevator (Coupland, London Pattern) is the most commonly used. Usually used to luxate and elevate mandibular third molar and when multiple extractions are needed. It is not recommended in upper arch. This utilizes principle of lever mechanism. Alveolar crest acts as fulcrum. Adjacent teeth should never be used as fulcrum.
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Teeth in Line of Fire
# Teeth in line of fire means:
A. Teeth in the area of planned therapeutic radiation
B. Teeth in the line of fracture
C. Teeth within the cancerous region
D. None of the above
A. Teeth in the area of planned therapeutic radiation
B. Teeth in the line of fracture
C. Teeth within the cancerous region
D. None of the above
The correct answer is A. Teeth in the area of planned therapeutic radiation.
EACA in Hemophilia Mechanism of Action
# Epsilon aminocaproic acid (EACA) is one of the agents useful in the treatment of haemophilia A. Mechanism of action of EACA is:
A. It is rich in factor VIII, which is deficient in hemophilia
B. Antifibrinolytic activity
C. It accelerates the coagulation process which is delayed in hemophilia
D.By unknown mechanism
The correct answer is B. Antifibrinolytic activity.
The main action of epsilon aminocaproic acid (EACA) is by its antifibrinolytic activity.
EACA is replaced by tranexamic acid, because of its more potent and longer acting properties and less side effects.
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A. It is rich in factor VIII, which is deficient in hemophilia
B. Antifibrinolytic activity
C. It accelerates the coagulation process which is delayed in hemophilia
D.By unknown mechanism
The correct answer is B. Antifibrinolytic activity.
The main action of epsilon aminocaproic acid (EACA) is by its antifibrinolytic activity.
EACA is replaced by tranexamic acid, because of its more potent and longer acting properties and less side effects.
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MCQs on Hand Instruments and Instrumentation - Conservative Dentistry and Endodontics
A. They are generally made of stainless steel
B. Nickel-cobalt-chromium is never used in its fabrication
C. Carbon steel is more efficient than stainless steel
D. It can be made with stainless steel with carbide inserts
# Most of the hand cutting instruments are made up of:
A. Chromium cobalt
B. Carbon steel
C. Tungsten carbide
D. Stainless steel
MCQs on Cariology : Diagnosis and Treatment Planning
A. It is infectious and transmissible
B. Non infectious but transmissible
C. Multifactorial, transmissible but not infectious
D. Not multifactorial, not transmissible
# Which of the following microorganisms are associated with the active progression of cavitated lesions?
A. Mutant Streptococci
B. Streptococcus ferus
C. Lactobacilli
D. Streptococcus rattus
Cleansable dentin
# Slow caries leading to formation of black, hard, cleansable dentin is called as:
A. Reparative dentin
B. Secondary dentin
C. Eburnated dentin
D. Arrested dentin
The correct answer is C. Eburnated Dentin.
An arrested dentinal lesion typically is 'open', dark and hard, and this dentin is termed as sclerotic or eburnated dentin.
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A. Reparative dentin
B. Secondary dentin
C. Eburnated dentin
D. Arrested dentin
The correct answer is C. Eburnated Dentin.
An arrested dentinal lesion typically is 'open', dark and hard, and this dentin is termed as sclerotic or eburnated dentin.
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Root caries of tooth
# Root caries is alarming because:
A. It is near to apex
B. It is symptomatic
C. It is not seen
D. It has rapid progression
The correct answer is D. It has rapid progression.
- Root surface caries may occur on the tooth root that has been exposed to the oral environment.
- Root caries is usually more rapid than other forms of caries, and thus should be detected and treated early.
- Root caries is becoming more prevalent because an increasing number of older persons are retaining more of their teeth and experiencing gingival recession, both of which increase the likelihood of root caries development.
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A. It is near to apex
B. It is symptomatic
C. It is not seen
D. It has rapid progression
The correct answer is D. It has rapid progression.
- Root surface caries may occur on the tooth root that has been exposed to the oral environment.
- Root caries is usually more rapid than other forms of caries, and thus should be detected and treated early.
- Root caries is becoming more prevalent because an increasing number of older persons are retaining more of their teeth and experiencing gingival recession, both of which increase the likelihood of root caries development.
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Remineralization of Tooth
# The pH at which the remineralisation of damaged tooth structure occurs is said to be:
A. 5.5
B. 2.5
C. 3.5
D. 6.2
The correct answer is A. 5.5.
5.5 for 20 to 50 minutes is called as critical pH below which the tooth demineralizes and above remineralization occurs.
The critical pH for root surface demineralization is approximately 6 to 6.7
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A. 5.5
B. 2.5
C. 3.5
D. 6.2
The correct answer is A. 5.5.
5.5 for 20 to 50 minutes is called as critical pH below which the tooth demineralizes and above remineralization occurs.
The critical pH for root surface demineralization is approximately 6 to 6.7
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Absolute Contraindication for extraction of teeth
# An absolute contraindication for extraction of teeth is:
A. Hypertension
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Central hemangioma
The correct answer is D. Central hemangioma.
Hemorrhagic lesions: There are two entities that constitute absolute contraindications to exodontics: arteriovenous or sinusoidal aneurysms and central hemangiomas. (KRUGER)
Extraction of a tooth associated with a central hemangioma results in profuse bleeding and death of patients.
Relative contraindications:
- six months after a myocardial infarction
- extraction of teeth in previously irradiated areas
- presence or suspicion of hemangioma
- uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
- acute blood dyscrasias
- untreated coagulopathies
- necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
- Adrenal insufficiency
- Thyrotoxicosis
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A. Hypertension
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Central hemangioma
The correct answer is D. Central hemangioma.
Hemorrhagic lesions: There are two entities that constitute absolute contraindications to exodontics: arteriovenous or sinusoidal aneurysms and central hemangiomas. (KRUGER)
Extraction of a tooth associated with a central hemangioma results in profuse bleeding and death of patients.
Relative contraindications:
- six months after a myocardial infarction
- extraction of teeth in previously irradiated areas
- presence or suspicion of hemangioma
- uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
- acute blood dyscrasias
- untreated coagulopathies
- necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
- Adrenal insufficiency
- Thyrotoxicosis
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Wound tissue and repair
A. Disease
B. Suffering
C. Treatment
D. To cure
# "Sign of compression" is characteristically seen in:
A. Lipoma
B. Hernia
C. Vascular swelling
D. Sebaceous cyst
MCQs on Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation and Airway Maintenance
A. Tongue obstruction
B. Bronchospasm
C. Laryngospasm
D. Aspiration
# Among the following, which is the rescue breathing in adult?
A. 6 times/min
B. 18 times/min
C. 12 times/min
D. 24 times/min
MCQs on Respiratory System Part 2
A. an abscess
B. Empyema
C. Emphysema
D. Anasarca
# Not true about Pleurisy:
A. Pleural pain
B. Pleuropericardial rub
C. Usually secondary to lung infection
D. None of the above
Rapid Palatal Expansion
# Typically rapid palatal expansion is done with a jack screw that is activated at the rate of:
a) 1.0 to 2.0 mm/week
b) 1.0 to 2.0 mm/day
c) 0.5 to 1.0 mm/week
d) 0.5 to 1.0 mm/day
a) 1.0 to 2.0 mm/week
b) 1.0 to 2.0 mm/day
c) 0.5 to 1.0 mm/week
d) 0.5 to 1.0 mm/day
The correct answer is D. 0.5 to 1.0 mm/day.
Rapid expansion typically is done with two turns daily of the Jackscrew (0.5mm) activation. This creates 10 to 20 pounds of pressure across the mid palatal suture, which is enough to create microfractures of interdigitating bone spicules. In slow palatal expansion, approximately 0.5mm per week is the maximum rate at which the tissues of the midpalatal suture can adopt.
Best space maintainer
# Best space maintainer is:
a) Active space maintainer
b) Passive space maintainer
c) Band and loop
d) Pulpotomised primary tooth
The correct answer is D. Pulpotomised primary tooth.
Natural tooth if preserved by endodontic treatment is the best space maintainer because it provides easiness and more patient compliance and doesn't affect the eruption of the succedaneous tooth.
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Respiratory System MCQs Part 1
A. Lecithin
B. Dipalmitoyl Phosphatidyl choline
C. Dipalmitoyl Phosphatidine serine
D. Sphingosine
# Heimilch Maneuver is carried out in:
A. Syncope
B. Airway obstruction
C. Carotid blow out
D. Cardiac arrest
Ideal Orthodontic Tooth Movement
# Resorption in case of ideal orthodontic tooth movement should be:
a) Undermining
b) Indirect
c) Frontal
d) Necrotic
a) Undermining
b) Indirect
c) Frontal
d) Necrotic
The correct answer is C. Frontal.
Application of light orthodontic forces will result in frontal/ direct resorption. Frontal resorption occurs only when the forces applied are close to the capillary pressure, i.e. 20 -26 gm/ sq. cm of root surface area.
Oppenheim and Schwarz have been given credit for discovering the optimum orthodontic force levels usually light continuous forces are recommended for tooth movement.
Scissor Bite
# Scissor bite is seen in:
a) Anterior cross-bite
b) Complete deep-bite
c) Total maxillary lingual cross-bite
d) Total maxillary buccal cross-bite
a) Anterior cross-bite
b) Complete deep-bite
c) Total maxillary lingual cross-bite
d) Total maxillary buccal cross-bite
The correct answer is D. Total maxillary buccal cross bite.
When all the teeth are in scissors bite, the condition is called as Bodie syndrome.
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Charcot Leyden Crystals
# Charcot Leyden crystals are breakdown products of:
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophil granules
C. Bile
D. Cholesterol granules or clefts
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophil granules
C. Bile
D. Cholesterol granules or clefts
The correct answer is B. Eosinophil granules.
Charcot-Leyden crystals are seen in bronchial asthma. They are diamond shaped crystal seen in association with eosinophils. Repeated attacks may induce chronic bronchitis condition which in turn may develop into emphysema.
Oxygen in histotoxic hypoxia
# The beneficial effect of oxygen therapy in histotoxic hypoxia is about:
A. 0 %
B. 50 %
C. 100 %
D. 30 %
A. 0 %
B. 50 %
C. 100 %
D. 30 %
The correct answer is A. 0%
Histotoxic hypoxia refers to hypoxia secondary to the inability of the cells to utilize oxygen.
In histotoxic hypoxia, oxygen therapy is not beneficial as tissue oxygenation is itself defective.