A. Aplastic anemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Spherocytosis
D. Megaloblastic anemia
# Megaloblastic anemia is related to:
A. Folic acid and vitamin B12 deficiency
B. Iron deficiency
C. Vitamin C deficiency
D. Vitamin K deficiency
# Most common cause of megaloblastic anemia is:
A. Lack of folic acid in diet
B. Inability to absorb vit B12
C. Iron deficiency in the diet
D. Chronic blood loss
# Pernicious anemia is characterized by all of the following exxcept:
A. Absence of extrinsic factor in gastric juice
B. Tingling sensation of fingers due to loss of myelin sheath
C. Painful burning tongue
D. Generalized weakness
# The morphology of RBC in pernicious anemia can be described as:
A. Hypochromic and macrocytic
B. Hyperchromic and macrocytic
C. Hypochromic and microcytic
D. Hypochromic and microcytic
# The protein that carries iron from the gut to the body tissues is called:
A. Ferritin
B. Haemosiderin
C. Myoglobin
D. Transferrin
# Response to iron in iron deficiency anemia is denoted by:
A. Reticulocytosis
B. Increased iron binding capacity
C. Increase in hemoglobin
D. All of the above
# Pallor, spoon-shaped nails, atrophic glossitis, with accompanied dysphagia iss a typical feature of:
A. Plummer vinson syndrome
B. Trotter's syndrome
C. Vincent stomatitis
D. None of the above
# Leptocytosis(target cells) or unusually thin red cells are found in all of the following except:
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Post-splenectomy
# Classical punctate basophilic stippling is seen in:
A. Aplastic anemia and thalassemia
B. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Megaloblastic anemia
# Howel-jolly bodies and hypersegmented nucleus of neutrophils is seen in:
A. Leukemia and polycythemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia
D. Megaloblastic anemia and sickle cell anemia
# Increased iron binding capacity and decreased serum iron is seen in:
A. Thalassemia
B. Chronic infections
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Sideroblastic anemia
# The type of anemia seen in hemolytic anemia, acute blood loss and chronic diseases is:
A. Microcytic and hypochromic
B. Normocytic and normochromic
C. Macrocytic and hyperchromic
D. Normocytic and hyperchromic
# Which of the following is the feature of iron deficiency anemia?
A. Increased MCV, MCHC, and MCH
B. Decreased MCV, MCHC, and MCH
C. Increased MCH, but decreased MCV and MCHC
D. Increased MCHC, but decreased MCV and MCH
# Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency causes:
A. Haemophilia
B. Haemolytic anaemia
C. Aplastic anaemia
D. Megaloblastic anaemia
# Which of the following show racial predilections?
A. Sickle cell anemia and thalassemia
B. Pernicious anemia and iron deficiency anemia
C. Sickle cell anemia and iron deficiency anemia
D. Pernicious anemia and thalassemia
# Sickle cell anemia precipitates when:
A. Oxygen tension goes down
B. Increased viscosity of blood
C. There is dehydration
D. All of the above
# The rate of sickling in sickle cell anemia is directly correlated with the following factors except:
A. Higher concentration of HbS
B. Lower concentration of HbA
C. Higher concentration of HbF
D. Higher deoxygenation
# In a patient who is homozygous for a defective gene, substitution of valine by glutamic acid at the position in beta chain of globin molecule results in:
A. Thalassemia
B. Sickle cell disease or anemia
C. Spherocytosis
D. Megaloblastic anemia
# Which of the following is a haemolytic anemia?
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Aplastic anemia
# Cooley's anemia, mediterranean anemia or erythroblastic anemia is another name for:
A. Beta Thalassemia Major
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Spherocytosis
# In B-Thalassemia:
A. There will be normal beta chain synthesis
B. There will be deficient beta chain synthesis
C. Change in amino acid sequence of beta chain occurs
D. None of the above
# Molecular pathogenesis of alpha thalassemia involves:
A. Mutation in transcription promoter sequence
B. Gene deletion
C. Codon termination mutation
D. mRNA splicing defect
# Increased levels of hemoglobin A is characteristic of:
A. Sickle cell trait
B. B thalassemia trait
C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
D. Alpha-thalassemia
# Crew-hair cut appearance of skull and Gandy-Gamma bodies are seen in the spleen of patients with:
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Iron deficiency anemia
# A patient reports with dyspnoea on slight exertion. He also has multiple petechial spots and spontaneous hemorrhage. His RBC count is less than one lakh per cu. mm. His hematocrit and hemoglobin is low. Most probable diagnosis is:
A. Pernicious anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Aplastic anaemia
D. Sprue
# A 14 year old boy complains with gingival bleeding, oral ulcers, anemia with hepatomegaly but no lymphadenopathy, total leukocyte count of one lakh cells per mm cube, is suffering from:
A. Acute myeloid leukemia
B. Chronic monocytic leukemia
C. Chronic lymphoblastic leukemia
D. Chronic myeloid leukemia
# Auer bodies are a characteristic of:
A. Plasma cells
B. Monocytes
C. Myeloblasts
D. Reticulocytes
# The most common cause of gingival enlargements in leukemia is:
A. Capillary dilation
B. Eythrocyte engorgement
C. Oedema
D. WBC infiltration
# Philadelphia chromosome, a chromosome marker, is associated with:
A. Acute myeloid Leukemia (AML)
B. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)
C. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
D. Chronic Lymphoblastic Leukemia (CLL)
# True about Philadelphia chromosome is:
A. Seen in CML
B. Due to reciprocal translocation from chromosome 9 to 22 and vice versa
C. It is a prognostic feature
D. All of the above
# The characeristic finding in chronic myeloid leukemia is:
A. Reduced score of alkaline phosphatase in granulocytes
B. Reduced score of acid phosphatase in granulocytes
C. Total lack of platelets
D. Total lack of neutrophils
# Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) scores are elevated in:
A. AML
B. CML
C. Myeloid metaplasia
D. Myeloid Leukemoid reaction
# The type of acute myelogenous leukemia associated with a high incidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation is:
A. Acute erythroleukemia
B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
C. Acute megakaryocytic leukemia
D. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
# The degradation products of fibrin help in detection of:
A. DIC
B. Hemophilia
C. Thrombocytic purpura
D. Thrombasthenia
# Peripheral blood picture of malignant lymphoma closely resembles:
A. Lymphoblastic leukemia
B. Myeloid leukemia
C. Polycythemia
D. Sickle cell anemia
# Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is seen in:
A. ALL
B. CLL
C. CML
D. AML
# Radiation exposure is related to the following types of leukemias except:
A. AML
B. CML
C. ALL
D. CLL
# Which of the following is not a feature of chronic lymphocytic leukemia?
A. Occurs in children
B. Associated with thrombocytopenia
C. Associated with anemia
D. Lymphadenopathy may be a feature
# In leukemia increased bleeding time is due to:
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Agranulocytosis
C. Anaemia
D. Neutropenia
# Agranulocytosis refers to:
A. Increased production of agranulocytes
B. Decreased production of granulocytes
C. Decreased production of lymphocytes
D. None of the above
# In leukemia peripheral blood picture shows:
A. Increase in number of neutrophils
B. Increase in number of immature white blood cells
C. Increase in number of lymphocytes
D. Increase in number of RBC
# Pancytopenia is a feature:
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Leukemia
C. Typhoid
D. Sickle cell anemia
# Normal myeloid:erythroid ratio in bone marrow is:
A. 1:1
B. 2:1
C. 3:1
D. 5:1
# A reduction in the total leukocyte count is called:
A. Leucocytosis
B. Leucopenia
C. Leucorrhoea
D. Leukemia
# The medical field most commonly affected by leukemia is:
A. Dentistry
B. Medicine
C. Radiology
D. Surgery
# Anemia caused by leukemia is of:
A. Megaloblastic type
B. Macrocytic type
C. Hemolytic type
D. Myelopthistic type
# Which of the following myelodysplastic syndromes has the worst prognosis?
A. Refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts (RARS)
B. Refractory anemia with excess of blasts (RAEB)
C. Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML)
D. Refractory anemia with excess of blasts in transformation (RAEB-T)
# Gingival hypertrophy is a feature of the following FAB type type of AML:
A. FAB type M1
B. FAB type M2
C. FAB type M3
D. FAB type M4
# ESR is increased in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Polycythemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Leukemia
D. Multiple myeloma
# Increased clotting time is seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
A. Haemophilia
B. Von Willebrand's disease
C. Patients on anticoagulant therapy
D. Patients with alcoholic cirrhosis of liver
# Commonest mode of inheritence of von Willebrand's disease is:
A. Co-dominant
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Autosomal recessive
D. X linked recessive
# The most common coagulation disorders hemophilia A and von Willebrand's disease are due to:
A. Factor IX deficiency
B. Vitamin K deficiency
C. Factor X deficiency
D. Factor VIII deficiency
# Deficiency of which of the following component of factor VIII causes classic hemophilia?
A. Clot promoting factor
B. Factor VIII antigen
C. Von willebrand's factor
D. All of the above
# Von Willebrand's factor is:
A. Platelet aggregating factor
B. Platelet aggregating inhibitor
C. Plasminogen activator
D. None of the above
# In von willebrand's disease:
A. Characterized by defective platelet function
B. Absence of von Willebrand factor due to which the levels of factor VIII fall
C. Both bleeding time and clotting time are prolonged
D. All of the above
# A patient with a bleeding disorder with increased bleeding time and normal clotting time is suffering from:
A. Classic hemophilia
B. Christmas disease
C. Vitamin K deficiency
D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
# Disease characterized by normal platelet count but increased bleeding time:
A. Hemophilia A
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Hemophilia C
D. Glanzmann disease
# Immune ITP (Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura) which is false:
A. BT normal
B. PT, PTT normal
C. Elder women more occurrence
D. Splenomegaly is absent
# The one stage prothrombin test is an index of the function of:
A. Extensive pathway of coagulation
B. Intrinsic pathway of coagulation
C. Platelet function
D. Capillary function
# Reduced number of platelet is found in all the conditions EXCEPT:
A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Acute myelocytic leukemia
D. Von Willebrand disease
# Spontaneous bleeding occurs when platelet count of:
A. Below 50000/mm^3
B. 50000-75000/mm^3
C. 75000-100000/mm^3
D. 100000-150000/mm^3
# A reliable screening test for platelet function is:
A. Thrombin test
B. Clot retraction
C. Partial thromboplastin time
D. Prothrombin time
# Thrombocytosis is seen in:
A. Osteopetrosis
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Thiazide therapy
# Christmas disease or Hemophilia B is due to the deficiency of:
A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor XI
D. Factor VII
# Males are most affected in classic hemophilia. This is due to the fact that it is a:
A. Sex linked (X) dominant
B. Sex linked (X) recessive
C. Autosomal recessive
D. Autosomal dominant
# A reliable screening test for hemophilia is:
A. Partial thromboplastin time
B. Bleeding time
C. Prothrombin time
D. Thrombin time
# Hemophilia is best treated by:
A. Dried freezed plasma
B. Factor VIII concentrate
C. Whole blood
D. Cryoprecipitate
# Which hemoglobin has protective effect on sickling?
A. Hb A
B. Hb B
C. Hb D
D. Hb F
# In hemophilic patient which of the following should not be given?
A. Factor VII concentrate
B. Cryoprecipitate
C. EACA
D. Platelet factor
# Reed Sternberg cells are seen in histopathological examination of:
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Hodgkin's disease
C. Burkitt's lymphoma
D. Eosinophilic granuloma
# All the following can be transmitted through blood transfusion EXCEPT:
A. Malaria
B. Leukemia
C. Hepatitis
D. AIDS
# A shift to the left indicates an increase in number of:
A. Mature neutrophils
B. Immature neutrophils
C. Segmented neutrophils
D. Erythrocytes and platelets
# A shift to right is seen in:
A. Pernicious anemia
B. Agranulocytosis
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Leukemia
# Increase in number of RBS is seen in:
A. Anemia
B. Leukemia
C. Neutropenia
D. Polycythemia
# Megaloblastic anemia is related to:
A. Folic acid and vitamin B12 deficiency
B. Iron deficiency
C. Vitamin C deficiency
D. Vitamin K deficiency
# Most common cause of megaloblastic anemia is:
A. Lack of folic acid in diet
B. Inability to absorb vit B12
C. Iron deficiency in the diet
D. Chronic blood loss
# Pernicious anemia is characterized by all of the following exxcept:
A. Absence of extrinsic factor in gastric juice
B. Tingling sensation of fingers due to loss of myelin sheath
C. Painful burning tongue
D. Generalized weakness
# The morphology of RBC in pernicious anemia can be described as:
A. Hypochromic and macrocytic
B. Hyperchromic and macrocytic
C. Hypochromic and microcytic
D. Hypochromic and microcytic
# The protein that carries iron from the gut to the body tissues is called:
A. Ferritin
B. Haemosiderin
C. Myoglobin
D. Transferrin
# Response to iron in iron deficiency anemia is denoted by:
A. Reticulocytosis
B. Increased iron binding capacity
C. Increase in hemoglobin
D. All of the above
# Pallor, spoon-shaped nails, atrophic glossitis, with accompanied dysphagia iss a typical feature of:
A. Plummer vinson syndrome
B. Trotter's syndrome
C. Vincent stomatitis
D. None of the above
# Leptocytosis(target cells) or unusually thin red cells are found in all of the following except:
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Post-splenectomy
# Classical punctate basophilic stippling is seen in:
A. Aplastic anemia and thalassemia
B. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Megaloblastic anemia
# Howel-jolly bodies and hypersegmented nucleus of neutrophils is seen in:
A. Leukemia and polycythemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia
D. Megaloblastic anemia and sickle cell anemia
# Increased iron binding capacity and decreased serum iron is seen in:
A. Thalassemia
B. Chronic infections
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Sideroblastic anemia
# The type of anemia seen in hemolytic anemia, acute blood loss and chronic diseases is:
A. Microcytic and hypochromic
B. Normocytic and normochromic
C. Macrocytic and hyperchromic
D. Normocytic and hyperchromic
# Which of the following is the feature of iron deficiency anemia?
A. Increased MCV, MCHC, and MCH
B. Decreased MCV, MCHC, and MCH
C. Increased MCH, but decreased MCV and MCHC
D. Increased MCHC, but decreased MCV and MCH
# Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency causes:
A. Haemophilia
B. Haemolytic anaemia
C. Aplastic anaemia
D. Megaloblastic anaemia
# Which of the following show racial predilections?
A. Sickle cell anemia and thalassemia
B. Pernicious anemia and iron deficiency anemia
C. Sickle cell anemia and iron deficiency anemia
D. Pernicious anemia and thalassemia
# Sickle cell anemia precipitates when:
A. Oxygen tension goes down
B. Increased viscosity of blood
C. There is dehydration
D. All of the above
# The rate of sickling in sickle cell anemia is directly correlated with the following factors except:
A. Higher concentration of HbS
B. Lower concentration of HbA
C. Higher concentration of HbF
D. Higher deoxygenation
# In a patient who is homozygous for a defective gene, substitution of valine by glutamic acid at the position in beta chain of globin molecule results in:
A. Thalassemia
B. Sickle cell disease or anemia
C. Spherocytosis
D. Megaloblastic anemia
# Which of the following is a haemolytic anemia?
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Aplastic anemia
# Cooley's anemia, mediterranean anemia or erythroblastic anemia is another name for:
A. Beta Thalassemia Major
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Spherocytosis
# In B-Thalassemia:
A. There will be normal beta chain synthesis
B. There will be deficient beta chain synthesis
C. Change in amino acid sequence of beta chain occurs
D. None of the above
# Molecular pathogenesis of alpha thalassemia involves:
A. Mutation in transcription promoter sequence
B. Gene deletion
C. Codon termination mutation
D. mRNA splicing defect
# Increased levels of hemoglobin A is characteristic of:
A. Sickle cell trait
B. B thalassemia trait
C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
D. Alpha-thalassemia
# Crew-hair cut appearance of skull and Gandy-Gamma bodies are seen in the spleen of patients with:
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Iron deficiency anemia
# A patient reports with dyspnoea on slight exertion. He also has multiple petechial spots and spontaneous hemorrhage. His RBC count is less than one lakh per cu. mm. His hematocrit and hemoglobin is low. Most probable diagnosis is:
A. Pernicious anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Aplastic anaemia
D. Sprue
# A 14 year old boy complains with gingival bleeding, oral ulcers, anemia with hepatomegaly but no lymphadenopathy, total leukocyte count of one lakh cells per mm cube, is suffering from:
A. Acute myeloid leukemia
B. Chronic monocytic leukemia
C. Chronic lymphoblastic leukemia
D. Chronic myeloid leukemia
# Auer bodies are a characteristic of:
A. Plasma cells
B. Monocytes
C. Myeloblasts
D. Reticulocytes
# The most common cause of gingival enlargements in leukemia is:
A. Capillary dilation
B. Eythrocyte engorgement
C. Oedema
D. WBC infiltration
# Philadelphia chromosome, a chromosome marker, is associated with:
A. Acute myeloid Leukemia (AML)
B. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)
C. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
D. Chronic Lymphoblastic Leukemia (CLL)
# True about Philadelphia chromosome is:
A. Seen in CML
B. Due to reciprocal translocation from chromosome 9 to 22 and vice versa
C. It is a prognostic feature
D. All of the above
# The characeristic finding in chronic myeloid leukemia is:
A. Reduced score of alkaline phosphatase in granulocytes
B. Reduced score of acid phosphatase in granulocytes
C. Total lack of platelets
D. Total lack of neutrophils
# Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) scores are elevated in:
A. AML
B. CML
C. Myeloid metaplasia
D. Myeloid Leukemoid reaction
# The type of acute myelogenous leukemia associated with a high incidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation is:
A. Acute erythroleukemia
B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
C. Acute megakaryocytic leukemia
D. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
# The degradation products of fibrin help in detection of:
A. DIC
B. Hemophilia
C. Thrombocytic purpura
D. Thrombasthenia
# Peripheral blood picture of malignant lymphoma closely resembles:
A. Lymphoblastic leukemia
B. Myeloid leukemia
C. Polycythemia
D. Sickle cell anemia
# Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is seen in:
A. ALL
B. CLL
C. CML
D. AML
# Radiation exposure is related to the following types of leukemias except:
A. AML
B. CML
C. ALL
D. CLL
# Which of the following is not a feature of chronic lymphocytic leukemia?
A. Occurs in children
B. Associated with thrombocytopenia
C. Associated with anemia
D. Lymphadenopathy may be a feature
# In leukemia increased bleeding time is due to:
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Agranulocytosis
C. Anaemia
D. Neutropenia
# Agranulocytosis refers to:
A. Increased production of agranulocytes
B. Decreased production of granulocytes
C. Decreased production of lymphocytes
D. None of the above
# In leukemia peripheral blood picture shows:
A. Increase in number of neutrophils
B. Increase in number of immature white blood cells
C. Increase in number of lymphocytes
D. Increase in number of RBC
# Pancytopenia is a feature:
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Leukemia
C. Typhoid
D. Sickle cell anemia
# Normal myeloid:erythroid ratio in bone marrow is:
A. 1:1
B. 2:1
C. 3:1
D. 5:1
# A reduction in the total leukocyte count is called:
A. Leucocytosis
B. Leucopenia
C. Leucorrhoea
D. Leukemia
# The medical field most commonly affected by leukemia is:
A. Dentistry
B. Medicine
C. Radiology
D. Surgery
# Anemia caused by leukemia is of:
A. Megaloblastic type
B. Macrocytic type
C. Hemolytic type
D. Myelopthistic type
# Which of the following myelodysplastic syndromes has the worst prognosis?
A. Refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts (RARS)
B. Refractory anemia with excess of blasts (RAEB)
C. Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML)
D. Refractory anemia with excess of blasts in transformation (RAEB-T)
# Gingival hypertrophy is a feature of the following FAB type type of AML:
A. FAB type M1
B. FAB type M2
C. FAB type M3
D. FAB type M4
# ESR is increased in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Polycythemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Leukemia
D. Multiple myeloma
# Increased clotting time is seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
A. Haemophilia
B. Von Willebrand's disease
C. Patients on anticoagulant therapy
D. Patients with alcoholic cirrhosis of liver
# Commonest mode of inheritence of von Willebrand's disease is:
A. Co-dominant
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Autosomal recessive
D. X linked recessive
# The most common coagulation disorders hemophilia A and von Willebrand's disease are due to:
A. Factor IX deficiency
B. Vitamin K deficiency
C. Factor X deficiency
D. Factor VIII deficiency
# Deficiency of which of the following component of factor VIII causes classic hemophilia?
A. Clot promoting factor
B. Factor VIII antigen
C. Von willebrand's factor
D. All of the above
# Von Willebrand's factor is:
A. Platelet aggregating factor
B. Platelet aggregating inhibitor
C. Plasminogen activator
D. None of the above
# In von willebrand's disease:
A. Characterized by defective platelet function
B. Absence of von Willebrand factor due to which the levels of factor VIII fall
C. Both bleeding time and clotting time are prolonged
D. All of the above
# A patient with a bleeding disorder with increased bleeding time and normal clotting time is suffering from:
A. Classic hemophilia
B. Christmas disease
C. Vitamin K deficiency
D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
# Disease characterized by normal platelet count but increased bleeding time:
A. Hemophilia A
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Hemophilia C
D. Glanzmann disease
# Immune ITP (Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura) which is false:
A. BT normal
B. PT, PTT normal
C. Elder women more occurrence
D. Splenomegaly is absent
# The one stage prothrombin test is an index of the function of:
A. Extensive pathway of coagulation
B. Intrinsic pathway of coagulation
C. Platelet function
D. Capillary function
# Reduced number of platelet is found in all the conditions EXCEPT:
A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Acute myelocytic leukemia
D. Von Willebrand disease
# Spontaneous bleeding occurs when platelet count of:
A. Below 50000/mm^3
B. 50000-75000/mm^3
C. 75000-100000/mm^3
D. 100000-150000/mm^3
# A reliable screening test for platelet function is:
A. Thrombin test
B. Clot retraction
C. Partial thromboplastin time
D. Prothrombin time
# Thrombocytosis is seen in:
A. Osteopetrosis
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Thiazide therapy
# Christmas disease or Hemophilia B is due to the deficiency of:
A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor XI
D. Factor VII
# Males are most affected in classic hemophilia. This is due to the fact that it is a:
A. Sex linked (X) dominant
B. Sex linked (X) recessive
C. Autosomal recessive
D. Autosomal dominant
# A reliable screening test for hemophilia is:
A. Partial thromboplastin time
B. Bleeding time
C. Prothrombin time
D. Thrombin time
# Hemophilia is best treated by:
A. Dried freezed plasma
B. Factor VIII concentrate
C. Whole blood
D. Cryoprecipitate
# Which hemoglobin has protective effect on sickling?
A. Hb A
B. Hb B
C. Hb D
D. Hb F
# In hemophilic patient which of the following should not be given?
A. Factor VII concentrate
B. Cryoprecipitate
C. EACA
D. Platelet factor
# Reed Sternberg cells are seen in histopathological examination of:
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Hodgkin's disease
C. Burkitt's lymphoma
D. Eosinophilic granuloma
# All the following can be transmitted through blood transfusion EXCEPT:
A. Malaria
B. Leukemia
C. Hepatitis
D. AIDS
# A shift to the left indicates an increase in number of:
A. Mature neutrophils
B. Immature neutrophils
C. Segmented neutrophils
D. Erythrocytes and platelets
# A shift to right is seen in:
A. Pernicious anemia
B. Agranulocytosis
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Leukemia
# Increase in number of RBS is seen in:
A. Anemia
B. Leukemia
C. Neutropenia
D. Polycythemia
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