AIIMS MDS ENTRANCE EXAM PAST QUESTIONS NOVEMBER 2009

# Infarction of anterior inferior cerebellar artery may cause damage to:
A. Vestibular nuclei
B. Pyramidal tract
C. Corticospinal tract
D. Spinal nucleus of trigeminal nerve

# Chief cells are located in gastric gland in the region?
A. Fundus
B. Isthmus
C. Neck
D. Equally spread

# GALT(Gut associated lymphoid tissue) is primarily located in:
A. Submucosa
B. Muscularis mucosa
C. Serosa
D. Lamina propria

# Disinfection can be done by all EXCEPT:
A. 5% chlorxylene
B. 2-3% cetremide
C. 100% alcohol
D. 2% lysole

# Chemotactic cytokine is:
A. IL-1
B. IL-6
C. IL-8
D. TNF

# Cytokine found in periapical region is:
A. IL-1
B. IL-6
C. IL-8
D. TNF

# Lepromin test is used to confirm:
A. Diagnosis
B. Prognosis
C. Treatment
D. Epidemiological studies

# Which stage of Plasmodium vivax is infectious to mosquito?
A. Gametocyte
B. Trophozoite
C. Merozoite
D. Sporozoite

# Principle of phase contrast microscope is:
A. Light scatter
B. Refraction of light
C. Difference in refractive index of objects
D. Difference in reflective index of objects

# A dental surgeon has recovered from Hepatitis B by 3 months rest. His laboratory findings are normal but he is not allowed to attend to patients as per medical board as he is a:
A. Healthy carrier
B. Active carrier
C. Convalescent carrier
D. Paradoxical carrier

# In pseudomonas aeruginosa all are TRUE except:
A. Strict aerobes
B. Children with cystic fibrosis commonly affected
C. Infection mostly due to endogenous source
D. Can grow in disinfectants in hospital

# About N. gonorrhoeae, all are true EXCEPT:
A. Most common cause of male urethritis
B. Wide spread exogenic strains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
C. All strains are susceptible to penicillins
D. Found only in human beings

# True about meningococcal vaccine is:
A. Capsule polysaccharide act as a virulent factor for the production of group specific antibody
B. Conjugate vaccine is not given in outbreaks
C. Polysaccharide vaccine should be given to children below 2 years of age
D. Vaccine with polysaccharide B is immunogenic

# All are true about widal test EXCEPT:
A. Baseline titre may vary in various endemic areas
B. O antibodies last longer hence not dictative of recent infection
C. Diagnostic and cannot differentiate between subtypes
D. High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative

# All are true about bacteroids EXCEPT:
A. Susceptible to many antibiotics
B. Present mainly in mixed infections
C. Most common species is B. fragilis
D. Bile resistant anerobes

# Which is associated with defect in DNA repair?
A. Xeroderma pigmentosum
B. Ichthyosis
C. Albinism
D. Sickle cell anemia

# Which of the following syndrome is related to HOX gene?
A. Polysyndactyly
B. Holoprosencephaly
C. Mayer Rokitansky syndrome
D. Gorlin syndrome

# Anti pseudomonal Cephalosporin is:
A. Cefaperazone
B. Cefadroxil
C. Cefuroxime
D. Cefoxitin

# Antidote of heparin is:
A. Protamine sulphate
B. Phylloquinone
C. Ticlopidine
D. Warfarin

# Slidenafil is inhibitor of:
A. cAMP
B. cGMP
C. PDE-5
D. PGI2

# True about penicillin G?
A. It is excreted by kidney
B. Acid resistant
C. Broad spectrum antibiotic
D. Resistance to penicillinase

# Obesity is associated with all EXCEPT:
A. Growth hormone deficiency
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Thyroid hormone deficiency
D. Oestrogen deficiency

# A 9 year old girl child shows profuse bleeding after tonsillectomy, blood shows normal platelet count, normal PT but increased APTT. Condition can be:
A. Von willebrand's disease
B. Hemophilia A
C. Hemophilia B
D. Factor V deficiency

# Increased intracranial pressure does not cause:
A. Headache
B. Vomitting
C. Somnolence
D. Muscle twitching

# Cooley's anemia is commonly known as:
A. Beta Thalassemia Major
B. Beta Thalassemia Minor
C. Beta Thalassemia Intermedia
D. Alpha Thalassemia

# Increase in height of the mandible and appearance of interdental spaces in an elderly patient is associated with:
A. Hyperpituitarism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hypopituitarism
D. Hypothyroidism

# Transformation into Osteosarcoma is seen with:
A. Paget's disease and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
B. Pagets disease and osteopetrosis
C. Cherubism and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
D. Cherubism and Paget's disease

# Burning tongue might not be associated with:
A. Ranula
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Local irritation

# Dental plaque adhere to tooth surface by:
A. Bacteria
B. Epithelial cells
C. Dextran
D. Sucrose

# A 9 year old child shows extra cusp on lingual side of anterior maxillary tooth. Which of the following conditions may not be associated?
A. Mohr syndrome
B. Rubenstein Taybi syndrome
C. Sturge Weber syndrome
D. Proteus Syndrome

# Among Hepatitis, syphilitic glossitis, plummer vinson syndrome, Mikulicz's syndrome, Squamous cell carcinoma is most likely to occur in:
A. Syphilitic glossitis and Plummer vinson syndrome
B. Syphilitic glossitis and Mikulicz disease
C. Plummer vinson disease and Hepatitis A
D. Hepatitis A and Mikulicz disease

# Oral and dermal symptoms are most commonly seen in which leukemia:
A. Monocytic
B. Myelocytic
C. Lymphocytic
D. Aleukemia

# Bilateral mandibular enlargement is seen in which of the following conditions:
A. Cherubism
B. Osteoma
C. Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
D. Ameloblastoma

# Generalized hypercementosis is seen in:
A. Hypophosphatasia
B. Paget's disease
C. Fibrous dysplasia
D. Cherubism

# Which of the following is the most preferred route of drug administration in the management of chronic pain?
A. Intrathecal
B. Oral
C. Subdermal
D. Intravenous

# Maximum amount of phosphate is seen in:
A. Enamel
B. Bone
C. Dentin
D. Cementum

# If the rate of loading is decreasing the mechanical properties of material?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains unchanged
D. Becomes unpredictable

# Which cement is most kind to the pulp?
A. Silicate
B. Zinc polycarboxylate
C. Zinc phosphate
D. GIC

# Nickel is added to wrought base metal alloys as:
A. Strengthener
B. Hardener
C. Alloy whitener
D. Scavenger

# Dustless alginate is produced by:
A. Reducing the diatomaceous earth
B. Adding heavy metals
C. Coating with dihydric alcohol
D. Altering the matrix

# Which of the following does not occur in reaction between ZnO and Eugenol?
A. Zinc oxide hydrolysis to hydride
B. Autocatalytic reaction
C. Water is the byproduct of reaction
D. Dehydrated ZnO reacts with dehydrated eugenol

# Which of the following does not occur in high copper amalgam?
A. Electromechanical corrosion
B. Chemical corrosion
C. Penetrating corrosion
D. Corrosion does not occur at all

# Proximal caries in a 6 year old child can be best detected by:
A. Bitewing paralleling technique
B. Bitewing bisecting angle technique
C. Bitewing with RVG
D. OPG

# Patients cross infection with bite block of OPG machine is prevented by:
A. Cover the machine with autoclaved cloth after each use
B. Using disposable bite blocks
C. Clean with 100% alcohol
D. Cover with impervious barrier

# Digital radiographs differs from conventional in:
A. X rays not used
B. Rays other than X rays used
C. Radiation receptor are different
D. No hard copy is formed

# Fibroblasts in pulp produce which type of collagen?
A. Type I
B. Type II and III
C. Type I and III
D. Type II and I

# Period of splinting for fracture in cervical 1/3rd of root fracture of tooth is:
A. 14 days
B. 4 weeks
C. 40 days
D. 4 months

# Injury that can cause protective layer damage is:
A. Intrusion
B. Extrusion
C. Avulsion
D. Lateral luxation

# Dental caries is associated with:
A. Streptococcus mitis
B. Streptococcus salivarius
C. Streptococcus rattus
D. Staphylococcus

# Which of the following tissue occupies the greatest volume of the tooth?
A. Enamel
B. Dentin
C. Pulp
D. Cementum

# With slowly advancing enamel caries and rapid involvement of dentin, the type of dentin formed is:
A. Secondary
B. Tertiary
C. Reparative
D. Sclerotic

# During the formation of reparative dentin the odontoblasts which are lost is differentiated from undifferentiated mesenchymal cells cells in:
A. 1 week
B. 15 days
C. 4-6 weeks
D. 1 month

# Minimum demineralization of enamel by caries to be evident on a radiograph is:
A. 100 microns
B. 200 microns
C. 400 microns
D. 500 microns

# Distance of the blade from the shank to have anti-rotational stability of the instrument is:
A. 2 mm
B. 3 mm
C. 4 mm
D. 5 mm

# Percentage of phosphoric acid where dicalcium phosphate monohydrate is formed that cannot be rinsed off:
A. 25%
B. 37%
C. 50%
D. 80%

# Material that acts as pulpal medicament and thermal insulator is:
A. Solution liner
B. Suspension liner
C. Cement liner
D. Cement base

# Pulpal medication and thermal protection is given by:
A. Solution liners (2-5 micrometer)
B. Suspension liner (25-30 micrommeter)
C. Traditional liner (0.2-0.3 micrometer)
D. Cement bases

# Nd:YAG laser has a wavelength of:
A. 10.6 microns
B. 1.06 microns
C. 0.6 microns
D. 110.6 microns

# Zone of carious dentin with demineralization of intertubular dentin and formation of fine crystals in tubule lumen?
A. Subtransparent dentin
B. Transparent dentin
C. Affected dentin
D. Normal dentin

# Acid dissolution of enamel rods is:
A. More in head than in tail
B. More in tail than in head
C. Uniform all over
D. More in periphery

# Patient with complete denture complains of pain while swallowing and there is overextension in the distolingual aspect. The muscle involved is:
A. Superior constrictor
B. Palatopharyngeus
C. Palatoglossus
D. Stylopharyngeus

# For a loose CD, relining and rebasing can be done in which of the following conditions?
A. Excessive alveolar bone loss
B. When centric relation and centric occlusion do not coincide
C. The patient is poor and cannot afford a new denture
D. More than 2mm loss of alveolar bone height

# A patient with poor neuromuscular control presents with occlusal prematurities. Occlusion can be corrected by:
A. Direct correction in patient's mouth
B. No need to establish correct occlusion in such places
C. Patient is asked to bite on carborundum paste
D. Take new interocclusal record and correct on articulator

# New pair of complete dentures show edge to edge relation in centric occlusion, correction can be done by grinding:
A. Grind in such a way that the cuspal inclinations of maxillary teeth are slides buccally and mandibular teeth are lingually placed
B. Grind the central holding cusp
C. Grind the central fossa
D. Grind the teeth in such a way that incline of upper cusp inclines lingually and lower cusp slides buccally

# If the maxillary teeth are placed more anteriorly in denture. The sound effected is:
A. Ch
B. S
C. V
D. F

# The most frequent fracture of root tips in extraction of primary molar is:
A. Ankylosis of tooth
B. Improper use of cowhorn forceps
C. Presence of supernumerary Premolar
D. Resorption between Apex and Bifurcation

# Absorption of fluorides in children is mostly through:
A. Gingiva
B. Lungs
C. Oral Cavity
D. Intestine

# In behaviour management which is the most common route of premedication?
A. Oral
B. Intramuscular
C. Subdermal
D. Intravenous

# The type of profile seen in patient suffering with chronic mouth breathing:
A. Convex profile, long face
B. Concave profile, long face
C. Convex profile, short face
D. Concave profile, short face

# Sodium bicarbonate when given with Local anesthetic has the following effect:
A. Increases rapidity of action
B. Helps intraneural spread of LA
C. Decreases onset and quality of block
D. Increases rate of drug absorption from site

# Hemophilia A is caused by gene encoding:
A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor V
D. Factor XIII

# Intravertebral injection does not spread to:
A. Epidural space
B. Inferior and superior paravertebral spaces
C. Intercostal space
D. Subarachnoid space

# Cause of death during the second peak in a patient with severe injuries is:
A. Spinal injury
B. Epidural and subdural hemorrhage
C. Aortic arch rupture
D. Sepsis

# Treatment of solitary Langerhans histiocytoma of mandible is by:
A. Curettage
B. Radiotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. No treatment

# Which film is recommended for caries detection in children?
A. D speed
B. E speed
C. B speed
D. F speed

# A patient with history of fall after hypoglycemic episode presents with pain in bilateral preauricular region and deviation of the mandible to the right side on mouth opening. Probable diagnosis is:
A. Fracture of right condyle
B. Fracture of left condyle
C. Dislocation of the left condyle
D. Dislocation of the both condyles

# Open reduction and fixation of fracture of mandibular condyle is indicated when:
A. Shortening of ramal height more than 5 mm
B. Superior 5 mm condyle fracture
C. Greenstick fracture in children
D. Condylar fracture which is not dislocated

# Propofol, all are true EXCEPT:
A. has a rapid recovery rate
B. used for induction of anesthesia
C. causes vomitting after use
D. causes sedation

# Infection of masticatory space is usually associated with:
A. Tonsillar abscess
B. Mandibular molar
C. Lateral pharyngeal space
D. Parotid space infection

# What is the best treatment for fracture of angle of mandible based on Champy's principle of lines of tension and compression?
A. Two AO plates
B. Compression plating
C. Reconstruction plates
D. External pin fixation

# In mandibular fracture at angle, which is most appropriate treatment?
A. 1 mini plate on oblique ridge
B. 2 miniplate on lateral surface of mandible
C. Compression plates
D. Reconstruction plates

# In fracture of the body of mandible, the miniplate is given at:
A. Upper border
B. Lower border
C. Between upper and lower border
D. One at the upper and lower border

# In pediatric fractures for open reduction using miniplates, the site of choice for miniplate fixation is:
A. Lower border of mandible
B. Upper border of mandible
C. Not indicated
D. Inferior surface of mandible

# Which of the following inducing agents have analgesic property?
A. Nitrous oxide
B. Halothane
C. Enflurane
D. Sevoflurane

# First local anesthetic to be used clinically was:
A. Cocaine
B. Bupivacaine
C. Procaine
D. Lignocaine

# Which combination forms day care anesthesia?
A. Fentanyl, Propofol, Isoflurane
B. Pethidine, Propofol, Isoflurane
C. Thiopental, Pethidine, Halothane
D. Thiopental, Isoflurane, Fentanyl

# Mandibular fracture managed by adapting miniplates is a type of:
A. Load bearing osteosynthesis
B. Load sharing osteosynthesis
C. Non-rigid osteosynthesis
D. Rigid osteosynthesis

# Mandibular fracture managed by adapting reconstruction plates is a type of:
A. Load bearing osteosynthesis
B. Load sharing osteosynthesis
C. Non-rigid osteosynthesis
D. Rigid osteosynthesis

# Most stable orthognathic procedure for anterior open bite correction is:
A. Sagittal split osteotomy
B. Le Fort I osteotomy
C. Inverted L Osteotomy
D. Intraoral vertical subsigmoidal osteotomy

# The incision used for traumatic telecanthus is:
A. Bicoronal incision
B. Upper Blepharotomy
C. Infraorbital incision
D. Preauricular incision

# Caries status in a child is most likely suggested by:
A. DMFT and past caries index
B. Salivary flow and composition
C. Frequency of sugar intake
D. Fluoriode concentration in the area

# Best method for caries reduction is:
A. Elimination of sugars from diet
B. Decrease frequency of intake of cariogenic food stuff
C. Rinse mouth after each meal
D. Substitute sucrose by alcohol based sugars

# All of the following are contraindications of DPT vaccine EXCEPT:
A. Progressive neurological disease
B. Severe convulsions
C. Immunocompromised state
D. Severe reaction on first dose or subsequent dose

# 9 year old child shows extra cusp on lingual side of anterior maxillary tooth. Which of the following conditions may not be associated?
A. Mohr syndrome
B. Rubenstein Taybi syndrome
C. Sturge Weber Syndrome
D. Proteus syndrome