Listerine is contraindicated in patients taking:

 # Listerine is contraindicated in patients taking:

A. Phenytoin

B. Cyclosporin

C. Nifedipine

D. Disulfiram

The correct answer is D. Disulfiram.

Listerine antiseptic and its generic counterparts are approved by the ADA Council on Dental Therapeutics to help prevent and reduce supragingival plaque and gingivitis. The active ingredients

in Listerine are methyl salicylate and three essential oils (eucalyptol, thymol, and menthol). Listerine has been shown to be effective in reducing plaque and gingivitis compared with placebo rinses in young healthy adults. Listerine may exacerbate xerostomia because of its high alcohol content, ranging from 21.6% to 26.9%. Listerine is generally contraindicated in patients under treatment for alcoholism

who take Antabuse (disulfiram). Listerine may benefit patients who do not tolerate the taste or staining of chlorhexidine and who prefer OTC medicaments that are less expensive and easier to obtain.

Reference: Carranza's Clinical Periodontology, 12th Edition, Page no: 450

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Only antibiotic in periodontal therapy to which all strains of A. actinomycetemcomitans are susceptible:

 # The only antibiotic in periodontal therapy to which all strains of A. actinomycetemcomitans are susceptible:

A. Azithromycin

B. Ciprofloxacin

C. Cvefidipine

D. Metronidazole

The correct answer is B. Ciprofloxacin.

Ciprofloxacin

Pharmacology: Ciprofloxacin is a quinolone that is active against gram-negative rods, including all facultative and some anaerobic putative periodontal pathogens.

Clinical Use: Because it demonstrates a minimal effect on Streptococcus species, which are associated with periodontal health, ciprofloxacin therapy may facilitate the establishment of a microflora that is associated with periodontal health. At present, ciprofloxacin is the only antibiotic in periodontal therapy to which all strains of A. actinomycetemcomitans are susceptible. It has also been used in combination with metronidazole.

Reference: Carranza's Clinical Periodontology, 12th Edition, Page no: 519

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Most aggressive bacteria penetrating connective tissue and resulting in bone destruction

 # Which of the following contains most aggressive bacteria penetrating connective tissue and resulting in bone destruction?

A. Subgingival unattached plaque

B. Subgingival tooth attached plaque

C. Subgingival attached plaque

D. Supragingival plaque

The correct answer is A. Subgingival unattached plaque.

The total width of the plaque-free zone varies according to the type of tooth (i.e., it is wider in the molars than in the incisors) and the depth of the pocket (i.e., it is narrower in deeper pockets). It is important to remember that the term plaque-free zone refers only to attached plaque, because unattached plaque contains a variety of gram-positive and gram-negative morphotypes, including cocci, rods, filaments, fusiforms, and spirochetes. The most apical zone contains predominantly gram-negative rods and cocci.

Reference: Carranza's Clinical Periodontology, 12th Edition, Page no: 285.

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The predominant immunoglobulin in gingival fluid is:

 # The predominant immunoglobulin in gingival fluid is:

A. IgA

B. IgG

C. IgM

D. IgE

The correct answer is B. IgG.

High levels of antibodies appear in GCF (in addition to those in the circulation), and these are produced locally by plasma cells in periodontal tissues. Antibodies to periodontal pathogens are primarily IgG, with few IgM or IgA types produced.

Reference: Carranza's Clinical Periodontology, 12th Edition, Page no: 97

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Following are the examples of indirect retainers EXCEPT:

 # Following are the examples of indirect retainers except:

A. Occlusal rest

B. Auxillary occlusal rest

C. Canine rest

D. Continuous bar retainers and linguoplates

The correct answer is A. Occlusal rest.

Continuous clasp: “A metal bar usually resting on the lingual surface of teeth to aid in their

stabilization and to act as an indirect retainer”-GPT.

Canine rest

• If the mesial marginal ridge of the first premolar is close to the fulcrum line, canine rest is used.

• This design can be modified by placing the minor connector anterior to the canine. The minor connector hooks back into the cingular rest seat. This increases the efficacy of the indirect retainer (due to increase in distance from the fulcrum line).

Types of Indirect Retainers

The most commonly used type of indirect retainer is a rest connected to a minor connector. In some cases indirect retention is obtained without a rest.

Types:

1. Auxiliary occlusal rest

2. Canine extension from the occlusal rest

3. Canine rest

4. Continuous bar retainers and linguoplates

5. Modification areas

6. Rugae support

7. Direct indirect retention

8. Indirect retention from major connectors

Reference: Nallaswamy, 2nd Edition, Page 375

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Main advantage of the palatal plate major connector is:

 # Main advantage of the palatal plate major connector is:

A. Thick metal plate

B. Thin metal plate

C. Surface irregularity of plate

D. Corrugated plate

The correct answer is D>B. 

Advantages:

• Intimate contact with the palatal tissues over a large area provides good retention due to the presence of interfacial surface tension.

• Provides good vertical support.

• Numerous surface corrugations due to very thin metal provide a very natural feel.

Reference: Nallaswamy, 2nd Edition, Page No 331

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Class IV Kennedy classification is:

 # Class IV Kennedy classification is:

A. A single edentulous area located anterior to remaining natural teeth

B. A single edentulous area present anterior to the canine

C. A single edentulous area present bilaterally on both halves of the jaw

D. A single edentulous area crossing the midline located anterior to the remaining natural teeth

The correct answer is D. A single edentulous area crossing the midline located anterior to the remaining natural teeth

Class IV: Single, bilateral edentulous area located anterior to the remaining natural teeth. This is a single edentulous area, which crosses the midline of the arch, with remaining teeth present only posterior to it. 

Reference: Nallaswamy, 2nd edition, Page no: 272

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Main purpose of tilting the cast in surveying is to:

 # The main purpose of tilting the cast in surveying is to:

A. Locate the undercuts

B. Locate the line of contour

C. Provide the most desirable path of placement

D. Aid in designing

The correct answer is C. Provide the most desirable path of placement.

Tilting the Cast and Altering the Path of Insertion

Some areas of the tooth may form an undercut only when viewed in a different angle. In such cases, the cast can be tilted on a surveyor so that the path of insertion of the denture is altered and the undercuts are present in relation to the new path of insertion.

The cast can be tilted only to a maximum of 10°, beyond which it is not advisable because the patient will require excessive mouth opening for insertion and removal. Generally, tilting the cast to obtain a retentive undercut is the least sorted procedure and is not advisable in the presence of other alternatives.

Ref: Nallaswamy, 2nd Edition Page No: 402

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Most common reason for midline fracture of the maxillary denture

 # The most common reason for midline fracture of the maxillary denture is due to: 

A. Alignment of posterior teeth too far buccally

B. Lack of strength of the material itself

C. Thin palatal portion of the denture

D. Internal porosity which is common in palatal portion

The correct answer is A. Alignment of posterior teeth too far buccally.

Denture base resins are subjected to a variety of stresses during function:

• Midline fractures of dentures during function are considered a flexural fatigue failure due to cyclical deformation of the base during function. This is usually more evident in ill fitting or poorly designed dentures.

• Impact fracture may result from patients accidentally dropping the dentures.

Ref: Boucher's Prosthodontics, 13th Edition Page 137 

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Zero degree cusp teeth are preferred over anatomic teeth:

 # Zero degree cusp teeth are preferred over anatomic teeth:

A. When muscles of mastication is very powerful

B. Diabetic patients

C. Patients with well developed residual ridge

D. Patients with very less retention and stability

The correct answer is D. Patients with very less retention and stability.

Zero degree teeth are defined as, “Artificial posterior teeth having no cusp angles in relation to the horizontal occlusal surfaces” - GPT.

Advantages

• In patients with bruxism non-anatomic teeth decrease the forces acting on the basal tissues.

• Greater range of movements is possible.

• In patients with neuromuscular disorders where accurate jaw relation cannot be recorded, cuspless teeth are preferred.

• In cases with highly resorbed ridge, cuspless teeth are preferred as they do not get locked and displace the denture during lateral movements.

Disadvantages

• Flat occlusal surfaces and artificial contours give an unaesthetic appearance.

• Masticatory efficiency is less.

• Balanced occlusion cannot be obtained.

• Occlusion is in two dimensions, whereas the mandibular movement is in three dimensions.

• Any attempt to correct these teeth by occlusal grinding will decrease their efficiency.

Reference: Nallaswamy, 2nd Edition, Page No 9

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Metal margin is preferred over ceramic margin in metal ceramic restoration:

 # Metal margin is preferred over ceramic margin in metal ceramic restoration:

A. Margins are easy to prepare for metal during tooth preparation

B. Tooth preparation is going to be more conservative

C. Only when margin is subgingival

D. Marginal adaptation is better in metal margin rather than ceramic margin

The correct answer is C. Only when margin is subgingival.

Metal ceramics: These materials require extensive tooth reduction. The junction between the metal

and the ceramic is very unaesthetic. For aesthetic reasons the margins of the restoration is placed

subgingivally which frequently leads to periodontal problems. 

Reference: Nallaswamy, 2nd Edition, Page 495

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The support of partial denture is usually

 # The support of partial denture is usually:

A. Tooth support

B. Mucosa support

C. Occlusal rest support

D. Tooth and mucosa support

The correct answer is D. Tooth and mucosa support.

Watt et al Classification

He proposed the classification in 1958. It was based on the type of support derived.

• Entirely tooth borne: The entire denture rests on the abutment teeth.

• Entirely tissue borne: The entire denture rests on the soft tissue.

• Partially Tooth borne and partially tissue borne: These dentures rest on both the teeth and the tissues. Generally most of the removable partial dentures come under this category.

Reference: Nallaswamy, 2nd Edition, Page 284

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‘Sandwich technique’ of restoration of carious lesion involves application of following materials

 # ‘Sandwich technique’ of restoration of carious lesion involves application of following materials:

A. Dycal/GIC/Composites

B. Dycal/GIC/Phosphate

C. Phosphate/Miracle mix/Amalgam

D. ZOE/Amalgam/Composite

The correct answer is A. Dycal/GIC/Composites

When composite is placed over an RMGI material, this technique is often referred to as a ‘sandwich’ technique. The potential advantages of this technique are:

- The RMGI material bonds to the dentin without the need for a dental adhesive

- The RMGI material, because of its bond to dentin and potential for fluoride release (potential anti-cariogenicity), may provide a better seal when used in cases where the preparation extends gingivally onto root structure

- The favourable elastic modulus of the RMGI may reduce the effects of polymerization shrinkage

stresses. These suggested advantages are considered controversial, as no conclusive published research

based on longitudinal clinical trials evaluating the technique is available.

Reference: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry Second South Asia Edition 2019, Page No: 504

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The root amputation procedure involving the removal of one half of the crown and one root

# The root amputation procedure involving the removal of one half of the crown and one root in a mandibular molar is called as:

A. Bi-cuspidization

B. Hemisection

C. Root resection

D. Apicoectomy 

The correct answer is B. Hemisection.

RADISECTOMY AND HEMISECTION

Definition: Radisectomy denotes the removal of one or more roots of a molar.

Hemisection refers to sectioning of the crown of a molar tooth, with either the removal of half the crown and its supporting root structure or the retention of both halves, to be used after reshaping and splinting as two premolars.

Reference: GROSSMAN’S ENDODONTIC PRACTICE 14TH EDITION, Page NO: 447

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Best technique of wedging for a patient with the gingival recession

 # For a patient with the gingival recession, The best technique of wedging is:

A. Piggy back

B. Double wedging

C. Wedge wedging

D. Single wedge

The correct answer is A. Piggy Back.

Piggy-back wedging technique

If the wedge is significantly apical of the gingival margin, a second (usually smaller) wedge may be placed on top of the first to wedge adequately the matrix against the margin. This type of wedging is particularly useful for patients whose interproximal tissue level has receded.

Reference: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry Second South Asia Edition 2019, Page No: 362

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Agent used as a die hardener

# Which of the following agents is used as a die hardener?

A. Cyanoacrylate

B. Nail polish

C. Volatile relief agents

D. Composite resin

The correct answer is A. Cyanoacrylate.

Gypsum dies are sometimes modified to (1) make them more abrasion-resistant, (2) change the dimensions of the dies, (3) increase the refractoriness of the dies, or (4) produce a combination

of these effects. Several means are used to increase the abrasion resistance, including silver plating, coating the surface with cyanoacrylate adhesive, and adding a die hardener to the gypsum.

Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, Anusavice, Shen, Rawls, 12th Edition, Page No: 211

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Factors associated with external root resorption

 # Following are the factors associated with external root resorption except:

A. Grafting of alveolar clefts

B. Cysts

C. Orthodontic therapy

D. Endodontic therapy

The correct answer is A. Graft of alveolar clefts.

Risk factors associated with severe resorption are:

- Shorter than average roots.

- Previously traumatized teeth.

- Nonvital teeth.

- Teeth subjected to excessive forces.

- Combination of orthodontic and orthognathic procedures.

Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of ORAL PATHOLOGY, 7th Edition, Page No: 930

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Test for measuring hardness

 # Which of the following is a test for measuring hardness?

A. Knoop

B. Toughness

C. Yield strength

D. Resilience

The correct answer is A. Knoop.

The tests most frequently used in determining the hardness of dental materials are known by the names

Barcol, Brinell, Rockwell, Shore, Vickers, and Knoop. Selection of the test should be determined on the basis of the material being measured.

The Knoop hardness test employs a diamond-tipped tool. The impression is rhombic in outline, and the length of the largest diagonal is measured. The load is divided by the projected area to give the Knoop hardness number (usually abbreviated as HK or KHN).

Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, Anusavice, Shen, Rawls, 12th Edition, Page No: 64

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Mechanism of adhesion of glass ionomer cement restoration with tooth surface:

 # The mechanism of adhesion of glass ionomer cement restoration with tooth surface is by means of:

A. Carboxyl group of polymer chains

B. Chelates with metal ion

C. C=C double bond

D. Hydroxyl group

The correct answer is A. Carboxyl group of polymer chains.

Glass ionomers bond to tooth structure by chelation of the carboxyl groups of the polyacrylic acids with the calcium in the apatite of the enamel and dentin, in a manner similar to polycarboxylate cement.

Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, Anusavice, Shen, Rawls, 12th Edition, Page No: 321

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During the setting of alginate impression materials:

 # During the setting of alginate impression materials:

A. Trisodium phosphate reacts preferentially with calcium sulfate

B. Trisodium phosphate reacts preferentially with sodium alginate

C. The colloidal gel state changes to a sol

D. The material in contact with the soft tissues set last

The correct answer is. A. Trisodium phosphate reacts preferentially with calcium sulfate

A water-soluble phosphate salt (e.g., trisodium phosphate) is added to the composition as a retarder to extend the working time. The strategy is that the calcium ions will react preferentially with the phosphate ions in the solution. Thus, the rapid reaction between calcium ions and the soluble alginate is

deferred until phosphate ions from trisodium phosphate are exhausted. The amount of retarder is adjusted to provide the proper setting time. A similar gelation process is expected with the modified alginate product.

Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, Anusavice, Shen, Rawls, 12th Edition, Page No: 172

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Ease with which impression can be poured without bubble formation is related to:

# Ease with which impression can be poured without bubble formation is related to:

A. Hardness of impression material

B. Resiliency of impression material

C. Contact angle of the die material with the impression material

D. Surface contamination

The correct answer is C. Contact angle of the die material with the impression material.

When gypsum products are mixed with water to pour dental models in various types of impressions, wetting must occur between gypsum and the impression to ensure good surface quality of the gypsum model. The basic ingredient of the most popular silicone-based elastomeric impression material today is considered to be hydrophobic, because a contact angle of greater than 90° is observed when an aqueous medium is poured into this elastomeric mold. To improve the wettability of the set impression material by a gypsum-water mixture, the operator usually sprays a surfactant (also called debubblizer). The most direct approach by the manufacturer is to incorporate a wetting agent (also known as a surfactant)

in the impression material during the manufacturing process. 

Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, Anusavice, Shen, Rawls, 12th Edition, Page No: 27

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Which portion of the flame is used while soldering:

# Which portion of the flame is used while soldering?

A. Cold mixing zone

B. Partial combustion zone

C. Tip of the reducing zone

D. Oxidizing zone

The correct answer is C. Tip of reducing zone.

The next zone, dimly blue and located just beyond the tip of the green combustion zone, is the reducing zone. This is the hottest part of the flame, and it should be kept constantly on the alloy during melting. The outer cone (oxidizing zone) is the area in which combustion occurs with the oxygen in the air. Under no circumstances should this portion of the flame be used to melt the alloy. Not only is its temperature lower than that of the reducing zone but it also oxidizes the alloy.

Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, Anusavice, Shen, Rawls, 12th Edition, Page No: 221

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PGCEE MDS 2022: When porcelain is baked, is backed against metal, it should possess a:

 # When porcelain is baked, is backed against metal, it should possess a:

A. High fusion expansion

B. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than, but close to that of the metal

C. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than, but close to that of the metal

D. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than that of the metal

The correct answer is B.: Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than, but close to that of the metal

The metal and porcelain should be selected with a slight mismatch in their coefficient of thermal contraction (the metal CTC being slightly higher) so that the metal contracts slightly more than the porcelain on cooling from the firing temperature to room temperature. This mismatch leaves the porcelain adjacent to the metal in a state of residual compression, which effectively protects the metal-ceramic restoration against fracture of the veneering ceramic.

Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, Anusavice, Shen, Rawls, 12th Edition, Page No: 441

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Smoothening the surface and margin of amalgam restoration:

 # The act of smoothening the surface and margin of amalgam restoration is known as:

A. Condensation

B. Burnishing

C. Trituration

D. Amalgamation

The correct answer is B. Burnishing.

After carving is completed, the surface of the restoration should be smoothed. This may be accomplished by judiciously burnishing the surface and margins of the restoration. Burnishing of the occlusal anatomy can be accomplished with a ball burnisher.

Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, Anusavice, Shen, Rawls, 12th Edition, Page No: 350

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The principal ingredient of modeling plastic is:

 # The principal ingredient of modeling plastic is:

A. Waxes

B. Zinc oxide

C. Aluminium oxide

D. Silicon oxide

The correct answer is A. Waxes.

In general, impression compounds (modelling plastic) are composed of a mixture of waxes, thermoplastic resins, filler, and a coloring agent. Shellac, stearic acid, and gutta-percha are added to improve plasticity and workability. The waxes or resins in the impression compound are the principal ingredients of the matrix. Filler is added to increase the viscosity at temperatures above that of the mouth and to increase the rigidity of the compound at room temperature.

Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, Anusavice, Shen, Rawls, 12th Edition, Page No: 178

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Chemically gypsum is:

# Chemically gypsum is:

A. Calcium sulphate dihydrate

B. Calcium aluminofluorosilicate

C. Calcium carbonate

D. Magnesium carbonate

The correct answer is A. Calcium sulphate dihydrate.

Gypsum (CaSO4•2H2O; calcium sulfate dihydrate) is a mineral mined in various parts of the world, but it is also produced as a by-product of flue gas desulfurization in some coal-fired electric power plants. Various crystalline forms of gypsum, such as selenite and alabaster, exist in nature. Gypsum products are supplied as fine hemihydrate powders that are produced by heating ground gypsum particles. After mixing with water, the mixture reverts back to gypsum. This unique property of gypsum products has led to numerous applications through history.

Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, Anusavice, Shen, Rawls, 12th Edition

Page no: 182

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Serial extraction is indicated primarily in:

 # Serial extraction is indicated primarily in:

A. Class I malocclusion

B. Class II malocclusion

C. Class III malocclusion

D. Lower anterior crowding only

The correct answer is D. Lower anterior crowding only.

Serial extraction is directed toward severe dental crowding. For this reason, it is best used when no skeletal problem exists and the space discrepancy is large-greater than l0mm per arch. If the crowding is severe, little space will remain after the teeth are aligned, which means there will be little tipping and uncontrolled movement of the adjacent teeth into the extraction sites. If the initial discrepancy is smaller, more residual space must be anticipated. It is unwise to start serial extraction in a child who has a skeletal problem, because the closure of extraction spaces would be affected by how the skeletal problem was being addressed.

Serial extraction treatment begins in the early mixed dentition with extraction of primary incisors if necessary, followed by extraction of the primary canines to allow eruption and alignment of the permanent incisors. 

Ref: Comtemporary Orthodontics, 4th Edition, Proffit, Page 490

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Eruption of permanent teeth in cases of extremely early loss of deciduous teeth:

# The eruption of permanent teeth in cases of extremely early loss of deciduous teeth  will result in:

A. No change in the time of eruption

B. Early eruption of the permanent teeth

C. Delayed eruption of the permanent teeth

D. A class II division 1 malocclusion

The correct answer is C. Delayed eruption of the permanent teeth.

Sometimes incisors fail to erupt even when there is no retained or overlying primary tooth or supernumerary  teeth present. Changes in the overlying keratinized tissue occur in long-standing edentulous regions, and this contributes to slow eruption of a permanent incisor when its predecessor was lost prematurely. 

Ref: Comtemporary Orthodontics, Proffit 4th Edition, Page 450

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Typical consequences of dental crowding

 # Which of the following are typical consequences of dental crowding; assuming no primary teeth has been lost prematurely?

A. Overlapping of lower incisors

B. Palatal displacement of upper canines

C. Impaction of 15 and 25 between first premolars and first molars

D. Mesial tipping of 16 and 26

The correct answer is A. Overlapping of lower incisors.

A child with a generalized arch length discrepancy of 2-4mm and no prematurely missing primary teeth can be expected to have moderately crowded incisors. Unless the incisors are severely  protrusive, the long-term plan would be generalized expansion of the arch to align the teeth.

Contemporary Orthodontics, Proffit, Fourth Edition Page 247

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If a first molar is lost, the second molar drifts to the:

 # If a first molar is lost, the second molar drifts to the:

A. Distal

B. Mesial 

C. Buccal

D. Lingual

The correct answer is B. Mesial.

When a first permanent molar is lost during childhood or adolescence and not replaced, the second molar drifts mesially and the premolars often tip distally and rotate as space opens between them. 

Ref: Contemporary Orthodontics, Fourth Edition, Page 639.

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Shanti Pharmacy and Advance Dental Care, Biratnagar, Hospital chowk

 Name of Dental Clinic: Shanti Pharmacy and Advance Dental Care

Address (Full): Biratnagar, Hospital chowk

Year of Establishment: 2071

Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr Ravi Acharya

CONTACT NUMBER: 9842044842

CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF PROVINCE NO 1

Best X ray view for TMJ is

 # Best X ray view for TMJ is:

A. Lateral skull

B. Lateral oblique

C. Transpharyngeal

D. Panoramic

The correct answer is C. Transpharyngeal.

Transpharyngeal:

Main indications

The main clinical indications include:

- TMJ pain dysfunction syndrome

- To investigate the presence of joint disease, particularly osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis

- To investigate pathological conditions affecting the condylar head, including cysts or tumours

- Fractures of the neck and head of the condyle.

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Namaste Dental & Oral Health Care Center Pvt Ltd, Triyuga municipality - 11, Gaighat, Udaypur

 Name of Dental Clinic: Namaste Dental & Oral Health Care Center Pvt Ltd

Address (Full) : Triyuga municipality - 11, Gaighat, Udaypur

Year of Establishment: 2020

Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr. Niraj Kumar Dev

CONTACT NUMBER: 9817706162

CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF PROVINCE NO 1

Lovely Dental Care, Sunargaun Marg , Khasi bazar, Kalanki, Kathmandu

 Name of Dental Clinic: Lovely Dental Care 

Address (Full) : Sunargaun Marg , Khasi bazar, Kalanki

Year of Establishment: 2078

Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr. Pratik Prabhat Gautam 

CONTACT NUMBER: 9860900536

CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF BAGMATI PROVINCE

Delight Dental care, Tilottama-5, Manigram Butwal

 Name of Dental Clinic:  Delight Dental care

Address (Full) : Tilottama 5, manigram, butwal

Year of Establishment:  2021

Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr. Pratima Pathak

CONTACT NUMBER:  9849001931

CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF LUMBINI PROVINCE

Lok Sewa Aayog 2074 Key D - 8th Level Dental Surgeon Question Paper

CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL PAST QUESTIONS COLLECTIONS OF LOK SEWA AAYOG

 1. Rank the following dental materials in order of increasing values of their coefficient of thermal expansion: dental amalgam, human teeth, porcelain and unfilled acrylic plastics

A. Human teeth, porcelain, dental amalgam and unfilled acrylic plastics

B. Porcelain, human teeth, unfilled acrylic plastics and dental amalgam

C. Porcelain, human teeth, dental amalgam and unfilled acrylic plastics

D. Human teeth, porcelain, unfilled acrylic plastics and dental amalgam

2. A metal that expands on solidification from the molten state is:

A. Gold

B. Silver

C. Bismuth

D. Copper

3. The principal ingredient of an irreversible hydrocolloid impression is:

A. Agar

B. Tri sodium phosphate

C. Sodium alginate

D. Colliodal silica

4. One of the best agents used in successful pulp capping is:

A. Copper cement

B. Calcium hydroxide

C. Amalgam

D. Zinc oxide

5. Silicone differs from polyether polymer with respect to:

A. Affinity for water

B. Place and time of one

C. Area of one

D. Cost effectiveness

6. The best surface for a macrofilled composite resin is achieved by:

A. Allowing polymerization to occur against a mylar matrix

B. Use of a green stone

C. Use of an extra fine silicone carbide disc

D. Use of a white stone

7. Which of the following has lowest tensile strength?

A. Silicate cement

B. Type II GIC

C. Cermet

D. Resin modified GIC

8. The setting time of zinc oxide eugenol material is:

A. 1-2 minutes

B. 3-5 minutes

C. 6-8 minutes

D. 9-10 minutes

9. Which of the following is a flux?

A. SiO2

B. Borax

C. Magnesium oxide

D. Aluminium oxide

10. In processing of an acrylic denture in a water both proper heating is desired because of the possibility of:

A. Warpage

B. Shrinkage of the denture

C. Porosity due to boiling of monomer

D. Reduced strength

11. The difference between a reamer and file is in:

A. The number of flutes and shape of the shaft

B. The number of flutes

C. The number of flutes and size of the shaft

D. The shape and size of the shaft

12. Teeth that appear to be color matched in one type of light may appear very different in another light source. This phenomenon is called:

A. Fluorescence

B. Metamerism

C. Opaqueness

D. Translucency

13. The pulp horn most likely to be exposed in preparing cavities in lower first molar teeth is:

A. Mesiobuccal

B. Distobuccal

C. Mesiolingual

D. Distolingual

14. Biomechanical preparation of root canal ensures:

A. Debridement of root canal

B. Perforation of apical foramen

C. Creation of ledge

D. Root canal filling

15. Pulp is necrotized in which of the following?

A. Acute or chronic periapical abscess

B. Acute irreversible pulpitis

C. Hyperemia of pulp

D. Pulp polyp

16. Localized defects of the teeth can be treated by using:

A. Full veneers

B. Microveneers

C. Partial veneers

D. Macroveneers

17. Primer is a:

A. Acid etching agent

B. Adhesion promoting agent

C. Coupling agent

D. Bonding agent

18. The minimal occlusal thickness of amalgam restoration for appropriate resistance to fracture is:

A. 0.5 mm

B. 0.8 mm

C. 1.5 mm

D. 2.5 mm

19. The choice of the liner material for pulpal protection in the cavities close to the pulp is:

A. Zinc oxide eugenol

B. Polycarboxylate

C. GIC

D. Calcium hydroxide

20. Which of the following is a non cutting instrument?

A. Chisels

B. Excavators

C. Explorers

D. Files

21. Which of these muscles may affect the borders of mandibular complete denture?

A. Mentalis

B. Lateral pterygoid

C. Orbicularis oris

D. Levator angularis

22. An anterior tooth bounded edentulous area which crosses the midline:

A. Class I

B. Class III

C. Class IV

D. Class IX

23. A complete or partial removable denture supported by retained roots is known as:

A. Conventional immediate denture

B. Transitional immediate denture

C. Cast partial denture

D. Over dentures

24. Most common presentation of tooth parafunction is:

A. Lateroprotrusive

B. Protrusive

C. Lateral 

D. Vertical

25. Fixed factor according to Hanau is:

A. Orientation of occlusal plane

B. Condylar guidance

C. Incisal guidance

D. Compensating curve

26. Face bow is used to record:

A. Orientation relation

B. Centric relation

C. Eccentric relation

D. Vertical jaw relation

27. The Valsalva maneuver is performed to record:

A. Centric relation

B. Eccentric relation

C. Orientation relation

D. Posterior palatal seal

28. The primary function of posterior palatal seal is to:

A. Retention of upper denture by making a complete seal

B. Aid in insertion and removal of the upper denture

C. Achieve balanced occlusion

D. Retention of lower denture

29. The type of patient demanding to be educated before the complete denture fabrication:

A. Philosophical

B. Exacting

C. Indifferent

D. Hysterical

30. Ala tragus line is also known as:

A. Frankfurt occlusal plane

B. Camper’s line

C. SNA plane

D. Median plane

31. Following are the characteristics of Subgingival calculus except:

A. Greenish black in color

B. 30% mineralized

C. Hard flint like consistency

D. Forms after gingival inflammation begins

32. What are two teeth connected at the cementum called?

A. Concrescence

B. Maceration

C. Gemination

D. Fusion

33. Attached gingiva is always:

A. Stippled

B. Non keratinized

C. Resistant to masticatory forces

D. None of the above

34. Which of the following technique is better choice to cover denuded root in upper isolated tooth?

A. Tarnow’s technique

B. Langer’s technique

C. GTR technique

D. Miller’s technique

35. The site of periodontium in most multirooted teeth affected by occlusal trauma is:

A. Cervical third

B. Middle third

C. Apical third

D. Furcations

36. Tissue necrosis of gingival margin and interdental papillae is seen in:

A. Herpetic gingivostomatitis

B. ANUG

C. Pregnancy gingivitis

D. Juvenile periodontitis

37. The most prevalent immunoglobulin in saliva is:

A. IgA

B. IgG

C. IgE

D. IgM

38. Which group of periodontal fibers are largest?

A. Transseptal group

B. Alveolar crest group

C. Horizontal group

D. Oblique group

39. The probing depth of a clinically normal human gingival sulcus is:

A. 2-3 mm

B. 0-1 mm

C. 6-8 mm

D. 0-0.5 mm

40. Secondary occlusal trauma is seen when:

A. Abnormal forces acting on normal periodontium

B. Normal forces acting on normal periodontium

C. Normal forces acting on diseased periodontium

D. All of the above

41. Fluoride content is more in which milk product?

A. Toned milk

B. Cheese

C. Butter

D. Paneer

42. The obturating material of choice for primary teeth following complete pulpectomy is:

A. Zn phosphate cement and formocresol combination paste

B. Quick setting hydroxide cement

C. Zinc oxide and eugenol cement

D. Gutta percha

43. A newborn child with cleft lip is to be referred for surgery. Which of the following parameters decides the treatment time?

A. Weight in kilograms

B. Weight in pounds

C. Weight in grams

D. Weight in decigrams

44. Which of the following anesthetic should  not be used in children?

A. Lidocaine

B. Bupivacaine

C. Prilocaine

D. Articaine

45. Which of the following is more cariogenic?

A. Glucose

B. Fructose

C. Lactose 

D. Sucrose

46. Hard tissue formation of maxillary first permanent molar begins at:

A. 3-4 month of intrauterine life

B. At birth

C. 5-6 months of intrauterine life

D. 2-3 years after birth

47. The largest cusp of primary maxillary first molar is:

A. Mesiobuccal cusp

B. Distobuccal cusp

C. Mesiolingual cusp

D. Distolingual cusp

48. Serial extraction is indicated in:

A. Class I

B. Class II

C. Class III

D. Class II div I

49. Beriberi is due to the deficiency of:

A. Vitamin D

B. Vitamin E

C. Thiamine

D. Pyridoxine

50. The most common acute gingival infection in children is:

A. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

B. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

C. Desquamative gingivitis

D. Erythema multiforme

51. Osteopetrosis is also known as:

A. Fibrous dysplasia

B. Marble bone disease

C. Mandibulofacial dysostosis

D. Cherubism

52. In performing all elective tracheostomy, the trachea should be entered:

A. Below the cricoid

B. Above the cricoid

C. Through the cricothyroid membrane

D. Laterally below the thyroid cartilage

53. Both BT and CT are prolonged in:

A. Hemophilia A

B. Purpura

C. Von Willebrand’s disease

D. Hemophilia B

54. Hepatitis B can be diagnosed during the acute phase by demonstrating:

A. Reduction of surface antigen by administration of gamma globulin

B. An increase of surface antigen (HBSAg)

C. The presence of Hepatitis B surface antigen

D. A rising antibody titer against the antigen

55. Which of the following is not characteristic of congenital syphilis?

A. Ghon complex

B. Interstitial keratitis

C. Mulberry molars

D. Notched incisors

56. Which is not the sign and symptom of diabetes mellitus in the followings?

A. Polydipsia

B. Polyuria

C. Loss of weight and strength

D. Decreased appetite

57. Which of the following non hepatitis virus most commonly cause hepatitis?

A. Cytomegalovirus

B. Epstein Barr Virus

C. Herpes simplex virus

D. Yellow fever virus

58. Sign of hypoglycemia include the following EXCEPT:

A. Sweating

B. Mental confusion

C. Extensor planter

D. Fall of blood pressure

59. In a patient of head injury, Which is more important to note first?

A. Pupillary light reflex

B. Pupillary size

C. Corneal reflex

D. Ability to open eye

60. Which of the following is better indicator of need for transfusion?

A. Urine output

B. Hematocrit

C. Color of skin

D. Clinical examination

61. Colloid bodies are seen in:

A. Odontogenic keratocyst

B. Radicular cyst

C. Lichen planus

D. Pemphigus vulgaris

62. Unerupted teeth which present a ghost like radiographic appearance represent a form of:

A. Amelogenesis imperfecta

B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

C. Shell teeth

D. Regional odontodysplasia

63. The recurrence of pleomorphic adenoma is attributed to:

A. Presence of an incomplete capsule

B. Mixed origin

C. Absence of capsule

D. Perineural spread

64. The thickness of spinous layer is known as:

A. Acanthosis

B. Hyperorthokeratosis

C. Carcinoma in situ

D. Parakeratosis

65. Alcohol shows maximum antiseptic activity at:

A. 10% 

B. 50%

C. 70%

D. 99%

66. The epithelial rest sheath of Malassez are found in:

A. Enamel

B. Dentin

C. Pulp

D. Periodontal ligament

67. Bifid crown with single root is due to:

A. Fusion

B. Gemination

C. Dilaceration

D. Lingual invagination

68. Constant feature associated with radicular cyst is:

A. Impacted tooth

B. Missing tooth

C. Non vital tooth

D. Anomalous tooth

69. Which one of the following diseases does not involve skin?

A. Pemphigus vulgaris

B. Cicatrical pemphigoid

C. Bullous pemphigoid

D. Lichen planus

70. Which of the following is the most frequent cause of ankylosis of the TMJ?

A. Osteoarthritis

B. Traumatic injury

C. Congenital syphilis

D. Traumatic occlusion

71. Anesthesia of the cheek, lip and nose may be present in which of the following fractures?

A. Le fort I fracture

B. Zygomatic complex fracture

C. Fracture of the zygomatic arch

D. Fracture of the nasal bone

72. A contraindication to local infiltration technique:

A. Hypertension

B. Diabetic patient in which urine sugar present

C. Infection in the arch (Alveolar bone)

D. Kidney problems

73. Level of analgesia is best monitored by:

A. Eye movements and absence of corneal reflex

B. Eye movements and absence of conjunctival reflex

C. Respiration rate, rhythm and type of respiratory movement

D. Verbal response

74. Among the following, in which patient GA is contraindicated?

A. An adult male over 65 years of age

B. Patient with acute respiratory infection

C. Child under 6 years of age

D. Patient with wheel compensated heart disease

75. All of the following are mediators of inflammation EXCEPT:

A. Tumor necrosis factor

B. Interleukin-1

C. Myeloperoxidase

D. Prostaglandins

76. Prothrombin time is increased in:

A. Von willebrand’s disease

B. Haemophilia

C. Warfarin therapy

D. Liver disease

77. If extraction is to be done on haemophilic patient, factor VII should be at least: 

A. 25%

B. 50%

C. 75%

D. 100%

78. A cartridge of LA contains 1:200000 adrenaline, it indicates that there is:

A. 0.005 mg/ml of adrenaline

B. 0.065 mg/ml of adrenaline

C. 0.0125 mg/ml of adrenaline

D. 0.02 mg/ml of adrenaline

79. The duct of sublingual gland is known as:

A. Bartholin duct

B. Stenson duct

C. Nasopalatine duct

D. Wharton duct

80. In oral surgery procedures, prophylactic antibiotics must be given in:

A. Post operative coronary artery bypass graft

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

C. Rheumatic fever

D. Myocardial infarction

81. Hyper-orthokeratosis, acanthosis, saw tooth appearance of rete-pegs, liquefaction necrosis of basal layer of cells are seen in:

A. Lupus erythematosus

B. Psoriasis

C. Lichen planus

D. Pemphigus

82. The thickness of base of dental X ray film is:

A. 0.18 mm

B. 0.8 mm

C. 1.2 mm

D. 1.8 mm

83. Hairy tongue is characterized by hypertrophy of which of the following papillae?

A. Foliate

B. Filiform

C. Fungiform

D. Circumvallate

84. The most reliable single histological criterion for a diagnosis of oral squamous cell carcinoma is:

A. Invasion 

B. Degeneration

C. Pleomorphism

D. Encapsulation

85. What type of X ray is to be taken in suspected middle third face fracture?

A. Lateral oblique view of face

B. Occipital mental view of maxilla

C. Posterior anterior view of mandible

D. OPG view of mandible

86. The most common type of pigmented nevus is:

A. Junctional nevus

B. Intramucosal nevus

C. Compound nevus

D. Melanoacanthoma

87. Canker sore is an example of:

A. Pemphigus

B. Lichen planus

C. Recurrent aphthous ulcer

D. Erythema multiforme

88. Median rhomboid glossitis is due to:

A. Inflammation of the tongue

B. Persistence of tuberculum impar

C. Hypertrophy of filiform papillae

D. Atrophy of filiform papillae

89. A white patch that cannot be rubbed off from oral mucosa and not related to any other disease is a feature of:

A. Lichen planus

B. Erythroplakia

C. Leukoplakia

D. Squamous cell carcinoma

90. Filters are used in X ray beam to:

A. Increase contrast

B. Reduce film density

C. Remove low energy X ray radiation

D. Reduce film density

91. Cleft palate occurs due to disturbances in the following weeks of intrauterine life:

A. 5-8

B. 6-8

C. 12-14

D. 8-10

92. The classic ‘adenoid face’ is associated with:

A. Thumb sucking

B. Mouth breathing

C. Tongue thrusting

D. Nail biting

93. Milwaukee brace wear for treatment of scoliosis leads to:

A. Class III malocclusion due to retarded growth of maxilla

B. Class II malocclusion due to retarded growth of mandible

C. Class III malocclusion due to overgrowth of mandible

D. Class II malocclusion due to overgrowth of maxilla

94. Functional appliance should be best used during following period of growth and development:

A. Prepubescent

B. Pubescent

C. Adulthood

D. Adolescence

95. The plane which connect orbitale and porion refers to:

A. Frankfort horizontal plane

B. Bolton’s Plane

C. Occlusal plane

D. Mandibular plane

96. Which of the following classifications classify malocclusion in all the three planes?

A. Angle’s

B. Dewey’s

C. Simon’s

D. Bennet’s

97. Increased vertical overlap is referred to as:

A. Overbite

B. Overjet

C. Deep bite

D. Open bite

98. In cephalometrics, the Frankfort plane is constructed:

A. Horizontally from nasion through porion

B. Horizontally from nasion to the superior aspect of external auditory meatus

C. Vertically from orbitale through the maxillary canine

D. Horizontally from orbitale to the superior aspect of external auditory meatus

99. Methods  of bite opening include which of the following?

A. Intrusion of both anterior and posterior teeth

B. Extrusion of both anterior and posterior teeth

C. Intrusion of anterior and extrusion of posterior teeth

D. Intrusion of posterior and extrusion of anterior teeth

100. Simple retraction of maxillary incisors using maxillary molars as anchorage is an example of:

A. Simple anchorage

B. Reciprocal anchorage

C. Stationary anchorage

D. Intermaxillary anchorage

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