1. Petechial hemorrhage is characteristic of which of the following condition?
A. Agranulocytosios
B. Neutropenia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Thrombocytopenic purpura
2. A patient with mitral valve replacement will require which of the following preoperatively?
A. Benzathene Penicillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Procaine penicillin
D. Vibramycin
3. Cyanosis of lips is a common finding in all EXCEPT:
A. Polycythemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Congenital heart disease
4. Most common oral change of nutritional anemia is:
A. Atrophic glossitis
B. Leukoplakia
C. Lichen planus
D. Hypertrophic glossitis
5. Chemotherapeutic agent has following side effects EXCEPT:
A. Hair loss
B. Diarrhoea
C. Hypertension
D. Mucositis
6. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a tumor of:
A. Smooth muscle
B. Striated muscle
C. Blood vessels
D. Reticuloendothelial system
7. While palpating lymph nodes in the neck, the least important is its:
A. Size
B. Mobility
C. Consistency
D. Pain
8. The most common malignant lesion of bone:
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Metastatic carcinoma
C. Osteochondroma
D. None of the above
9. The surface of an oral squamous cell carcinoma will usually feel to the touch:
A. Smooth
B. Fluctuant
C. Slimy
D. Rough
10. Ludwig’s Angina involves:
A. Submaxillary space
B. Submental space
C. Sublingual space
D. All of the above
11. Ground glass appearance of bone is seen in:
A. Osteoporosis
B. Achondroplasia
C. Fibrous dysplasia
D. Fluorosis
12. Median rhomboid glossitis is due to:
A. Persistence of tuberculum impar
B. Inflammation of the tongue
C. Hypertrophy of filiform papilla
D. Atrophy of circumvallate Papillae
13. What is usually done with an ‘eruptive cyst’ in the area of the second molar in a two year old child?
A. Observe
B. Incise and drain
C. Excise
D. Fenestrate
14. The most frequent sequelae of gingivitis is:
A. Gingivosis
B. Periodontosis
C. Periodontitis
D. Gingival atrophy
15. Which of the following compulsorily involves two teeth?
A. Dilaceration
B. Gemination
C. Taurodontism
D. Concrescence
16. Cytologic smears and the findings of characteristic multinucleated giant cells (Tzanck test) are helpful in the diagnosis of:
A. Chicken pox
B. Mumps
C. Psoriasis
D. Herpes Zoster
17. Macroglossia may be seen in:
A. Prader willi syndrome
B. Down syndrome
C. Beckwith Weidemann syndrome
D. Grebe syndrome
18. We understand one of the following by the word dilaceration?
A. Calcified root canals
B. Curvature of the root tip
C. Dysplasia of dentin
D. Cemental union of root
19. A smooth red tongue may be seen in all of the following except:
A. Vitamin K deficiency
B. Folic acid deficiency
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
20. Asymptomatic irritational fibroma should be treated by:
A. Simple excision
B. Block resection
C. Radiation therapy
D. No treatment indicated
21. Yesterday you performed full mouth extractions on a 50 year old male. Today he presents to you that he ‘bled all night’. Which of the following pre-existing conditions may be responsible for post operative bleeding?
A. BP 180/110
B. Gastric ulcer
C. Elevated prothrombin time
D. A and C are correct
22. Which one of the following is not a valid indication for apicoectomy?
A. Broken instrument in the apical third of the canal
B. Presence of a fistula
C. Perforation in apical third
D. Periapically involved teeth in patients with insufficient time for conventional endodontic treatment
23. Most frequent site for dry socket is:
A. Upper molar area
B. Upper incisor area
C. Lower molar area
D. Lower incisor area
24. A bony opening in the canine fossa is commonly used to:
A. Enter the maxillary sinus
B. Establish drainage of an alveolar abscess
C. Remove mandibular third molars
D. Uncover and marsupialize a cyst
25. The duration of fixation generally required for fracture of mandible:
A. 2-4 weeks
B. 3-5 weeks
C. 6-8 weeks
D. 8-10 weeks
26. If hematoma formation occurs after posterior superior alveolar nerve block, it is due to the damage of:
A. Pterygoid venous plexus
B. Small capillaries and arterioles in the region
C. Facial artery
D. Internal maxillary artery
27. What is the fate of nitrous oxide when administered for relative analgesia?
A. Excreted by kidney
B. Detoxified in liver
C. Exhaled by lungs
D. Exhaled by sweat glands
28. The first line of treatment in a patient with syncope due to local anesthesia is administration of:
A. Oxygen
B. Respiratory stimulant
C. Adrenaline
D. Diazepam
29. For a successful intraoral palatal second divisions nerve block anesthesia, the needle should enter the:
A. Incisive canal
B. Infraalveolar foramen
C. Greater palatine foramen
D. Stylomastoid foramen
30. Areas anesthetized by the intraoral inferior alveolar nerve block include:
A. The body of the mandible
B. The inferior portion of the ramus
C. Mandibular teeth
D. All of the above
31. X rays were discovered in the year:
A. 1890
B. 1895
C. 1900
D. 1905
32. The extraoral radiograph that best shows the maxillary sinuses is:
A. AP skull
B. Lateral skull
C. Towne’s view
D. Water’s view
33. The Nikolsky’s sign is seen in:
A. Albers Schonberg disease
B. Pemphigus
C. Mongolism
D. Osteopetrosis
34. The most useful in differentiating between an apical abscess and a periodontal abscess would be:
A. Palpation
B. Pulp vitality test
C. Percussion test
D. Anesthetic test
35. In initial stages, treatment of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis without systemic involvement is:
A. Thorough debridement and H2O2 mouthwashes
B. Penicillin therapy
C. Metronidazole and penicillin therapy
D. Gingivectomy and gingivoplasty
36. Initial clinical sign of juvenile periodontitis:
A. Pathological tooth migration and midline diastema
B. Tooth mobility and bone loss
C. Gingival enlargement and pus formation
D. Pain and bleeding
37. Which of the following factor result in film appearing very light?
A. Under exposure
B. Over development
C. Developing solution too hot
D. Unsafe illuminations in dark room
38. X ray beam is filtered to:
A. Soften the beam
B. Restrict beam size
C. Remove long wavelength X rays
D. Remove short wavelength x rays
39. Which of the following cephalometric values should decrease for an individual between the ages of 8 and 18 years?
A. FMA
B. ANB
C. GoGn-SN
D. All of the above
40. Gingival involvement is an unusual finding in one of the following conditions?
A. Recurrent aphthae
B. Pemphigoid
C. Primary herpes
D. Pyogenic granulomas
41. How much root formation is complete when tooth erupts into the oral cavity?
A. 100%
B. 75%
C. 60%
D. 50%
42. The surgical procedure utilized to correct maxillary retrusion is:
A. Sagittal Oblique osteotomy
B. High level horizontal osteotomy of the maxilla corresponding to the le-fort type I maxillary fracture
C. Vertical oblique osteotomy
D. C-Osteotomy
43. The condition that do not require any retention is:
A. Serial extraction procedures
B. Severe rotation
C. Deep bites
D. Midline diastema
44. Which is not a method of gaining space?
A. Proximal stripping
B. Intrusion
C. Uprighting of molars
D. Derotation of posterior teeth
45. Final determination of the dental arch form depends on:
A. Angle’s classification
B. Growth pattern
C. Facial type
D. Balance between extraoral and intraoral muscle forces
46. If the permanent canines are lost prematurely, the permanent incisors may drift:
A. Labially
B. Distally
C. Medially
D. Lingually
47. Anterior crossbite should be corrected:
A. During mixed dentition
B. After all permanent teeth have erupted
C. As soon as possible
D. Any time
48. Pericision is carried out as an adjunct retention for:
A. Midline diastema
B. Rotation
C. Proclination
D. Extrusion
49. Serial extraction is contraindicated in:
A. Open bite
B. Deep bite
C. Class II and III malocclusion with skeletal abnormalities
D. All of the above
50. All of the following appliances can be classified as myofunctional appliances, EXCEPT:
A. Begg appliance
B. Anderson appliance
C. Anterior bite plane
D. None of the above
51. Cavity varnish can be used under all type of restoration EXCEPT:
A. Gold
B. Amalgam
C. Resin
D. Ceramics
52. The glass ionomer cement is not recommended for:
A. Class V restoration
B. Class III restoration
C. Class IV restoration
D. None of the above
53. The coefficient of thermal expansion of which of the following dental materials is the highest?
A. Amalgam
B. Gold inlay
C. Silicate cement
D. Acrylic resins
54. Which die material has a hazardous (lethal) potential during fabrication?
A. Improved stone
B. Silver amalgam
C. Electrodeposited silver
D. Epoxy resin
55. An acceptable proportion of water to 100 grams of improved stones (die stones) to pour master cast is:
A. 14 ml
B. 24 ml
C. 40 ml
D. 50 ml
56. The temperature of reversible hydrocolloids when being used to make a mold of a blocked out master cast should not exceed:
A. 96 degree F
B. 102 degree F
C. 120 degree F
D. 150 degree F
57. Which of the following alloys exhibit superelasticity and shape memory?
A. Nitinol
B. Beta titanium
C. Optiflex
D. Stainless steel
58. Tarnish generally occurs in the oral cavity due to:
A. Formation of hard and soft deposits
B. Pigment producing bacteria
C. Formation of their oxides, sulphides or chlorides
D. All of the above
59. Type V dental stone has:
A. High strength, high expansion
B. High strength, low expansion
C. Low strength, low expansion
D. Low strength, high expansion
60. For visible light cured resins, the light has a wavelength of:
A. 700 nm
B. 400 nm
C. 200 nm
D. 850 nm
61. Which of the following treatment should be of choice of continuous hypersensitivity developed in recently restored tooth?
A. Perform pulpectomy
B. Perform direct pulp capping
C. Remove the restoration and place ZOE
D. Remove the restoration and start RCT
62. The most common causes of endodontic treatment failure is:
A. Incomplete obliteration of the root canal
B. Overfilling of the root canal
C. Coexistent periodontal-periapical lesion
D. Occlusal interference
63. Commonly used photoinitiator in light cure composite resin is:
A. DEAEMA
B. BIS-GMA
C. TEGDMA
D. Camphoroquinone
64. Loss in strength of an amalgam restoration sufficient to cause clinical fractures is most likely caused by:
A. Over trituration
B. Heavy condensation pressure
C. High mercury content left in the restoration
D. Use of a mechanical amalgamator
65. What is the usual cause of failure of a pulpotomy that employs calcium hydroxide in primary molars?
A. Pulp fibrosis
B. Pulp calcification
C. External resorption
D. Internal resorption
66. The root canal of a mandibular lateral incisor is:
A. Widest labiolingually
B. Narrowest faciolingually
C. Circular throughout
D. Widest mesiodistally
67. All the following cements possess anticariogenic properties, EXCEPT:
A. Silicate
B. Glass ionomer
C. Silicophosphate
D. Zinc oxide eugenol
68. A patient having pulpal hyperemia is likely to:
A. Produce a less than normal response on the electric pulp tester
B. Produce a quick, sharp contraction pain which passes away immediately when the thermal reaction test is performed
C. Complain of intermittent severe pain
D. Complain of vague pain in the TMJ of the same side
69. Which of the following is the principal means of retention of restoration?
A. Pins and ports
B. Dovetail
C. Internal boxes and grooves
D. Acid etching
70. One main purpose of etching the enamel before placing composites:
A. Allow proper adaptation and decrease marginal leakage
B. To create surface irregularities to aid in mechanical interlocking
C. Increase the surface area 2000 times
D. All of the above
71. The effectiveness of tissue support is dependent upon:
A. Quality of the residual ridge
B. Accuracy of the denture bases
C. Accuracy of impression registration
D. All of the above
72. Relining of complete dentures is recommended for the correction of:
A. Major speech problem
B. Poor esthetics
C. Unsatisfactory jaw relationship
D. None of the above
73. To produce pleasing effect where should the maxillary anterior teeth be placed?
A. Lingual to the ridge
B. Directly on the ridge
C. Facial to the ridge
D. None of the above
74. The most commonly used direct retainer is:
A. The vertical upright
B. The upright lug
C. The trussarm
D. The intracoronal and extracoronal retainer
75. A cantilever is a rigid beam supported:
A. At both ends
B. At one end
C. In the middle
D. Without support
76. The finish line in the porcelain bonded to metal casting where the porcelain joins the metal should most closely resemble:
A. A shoulder with a bevel
B. A knife edge
C. A chamfer
D. A ‘butt’ joint
77. The floor of the occlusal rest seat should be inclined slightly toward:
A. The center of the tooth
B. The marginal ridge
C. The prosthesis
D. The buccal surface
78. The need for interocclusal remount records results:
A. Technical error in the lab
B. Technical errors by the dentist
C. Inherent deficiencies in the materials used
D. All of the above
79. The flabby tissue found on anterior ridges may cause:
A. Lack of contact of the anterior teeth
B. Unbalanced contact of anterior teeth
C. Avitaminosis
D. An increased vertical dimension of occlusion
80. The main problem encountered with overdentures is:
A. Excessive restoration of alveolar bone
B. Decreased proprioceptive response compared to conventional dentures
C. Carious breakdown of overlaid teeth
D. Reduced support for the prosthesis
81. Which of the listed surgical procedures should be performed first in sequencing treatment of periodontal disease?
A. Mucogingival surgery
B. Gingivoplasty
C. Infrabony pocket therapy
D. Apically repositioned flap
82. Pocket depth are measured when using the:
A. Simplified oral hygiene index
B. PMA index
C. DMFT index
D. Ramfjord index
83. Burtonian line is produced due to:
A. Silver
B. Lead
C. Bismuth
D. Arsenic
84. When the flaps are not in close apposition, following suturing technique is used:
A. Direct or loop suture
B. Sling ligation
C. Anchor suture
D. Figure of 8 suture
85. Which of the following occurs in the periodontal ligament as a result of periodontal traumatism, also called trauma from occlusion?
A. Thrombosis and necrosis due to compression
B. Bone and root resorption in the area of compression
C. Hemorrhage
D. All of the above
86. Scaling and root planing:
A. Prevent further loss of attachment in deep pockets
B. Most effective in reducing pocket depth than surgical means
C. More successful in posterior than anterior tooth
D. Same as curettage
87. The principal component of dental plaque is:
A. Dextrans
B. Lactic acid
C. Materia alba
D. Microorganism
88. Gingival portion of a natural tooth differs in color from the incisal portion because:
A. The lighting angle is different
B. The gingival and incisal portions have different fluorescent qualities
C. The gingival area has dentin background
D. The incident light is different
89. A frequent source of Actinomyces in oral or facial infections is:
A. Contaminated dental instruments
B. Airborne spores
C. Calculus or plaque on teeth
D. Salivary or respiratory droplets
90. Perioglas is:
A. Bioceramic
B. Bioactive glass
C. Xerograft
D. Freeze dried bone allograft
91. Recommended daily fluoride for a child of 3-4 years is:
A. 0.25 mg
B. 0.5 mg
C. 0.75 mg
D. 1 mg
92. Major cause of tooth loss in children is due to:
A. Trauma
B. Periodontal disease
C. Caries
D. Malocclusion
93. The best age for the application of pit and fissure sealants in children is:
A. 10 to 16 years
B. 6 to 12 years
C. 4 to 10 years
D. 2 to 5 years
94. Humectant is added to dentifrice pastes to:
A. Help in caries control
B. Decrease the surface tension of the dentifrice
C. Prevent separation of the liquid and solid components of the paste
D. Prevent the paste from drying out
95. An extremely contagious condition in children is:
A. Marginal gingivitis
B. Cyclic neutropenia
C. Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
D. Erythema multiforme
96. What factors are important in determining the cariogenicity of patient’s diet?
A. Type of carbohydrate consumed
B. Physical form of the food
C. Frequency of consumption
D. All of the above are
97. It is recommended that the brushing of a preschool child’s teeth:
A. Be performed by the child himself
B. Be performed by the child’s parent
C. Be performed only after all primary teeth have erupted
D. Not recommended strongly
98. First modern toothbrush was invented by :
A. American
B. English
C. Chinese
D. Japanese
99. Rich natural source of fluoride is:
A. Tea
B. Milk
C. Butter
D. Cheese
100. Incidence of root caries is high in:
A. Pediatric patients
B. Geriatric patients
C. Adolescents
D. Middle aged females
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