Lok Sewa Aayog Nepal 2073 Key B
MCQs
For 8th Level Dental Surgeon
1. Which of the following medication is required preoperatively for a patient with mitral valve replacement?
A. Ampicillin
B. Cloxacillin
C. Benzathine penicillin
D. Procaine penicillin
2. A patient comes with severe pain in an extraction socket after 3 days of extraction. Which of the following drugs would you prescribe?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Metronidazole
C. Diclofenac
D. Tramadol
3. The ideal time for repair of a cleft lip is:
A. Immediately after birth
B. 3 weeks to 3 months
C. 3 months to 3 years
D. After puberty
4. In unilateral TMJ ankylosis, the chin is deviated to:
A. The contralateral side
B. The affected side
C. No deviation seen
D. Side where growth is occurring
5. The recurrent ranula is best treated by:
A. Electrosurgery
B. Cryosurgery
C. Marsupialization
D. Sublingual gland excision
6. Dry socket commonly occurs after:
A. 24 hours
B. 2 days
C. 3-4 days
D. 10-15 days
7. Farmer’s lip is also known as:
A. Actinic cheilitis
B. Cheilitis granularis
C. Oral submucous fibrosis
D. Noma
8. Cheilitis granulomatosa, facial paralysis and scrotal tongue is seen in:
A. Miescher syndrome
B. Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
C. Apert syndrome
D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
9. Which of the following is also known as trench mouth?
A. Noma
B. ANUG
C. Herpes gingivostomatitis
D. Herpes zoster
10. The pain on swallowing or turning the head associated with elongated styloid process is known as:
A. Tic douloureux
B. Gorham syndrome
C. Costen syndrome
D. Eagle’s syndrome
11. All are risk factors EXCEPT:
A. Tobacco smoking
B. Microbial tooth deposit
C. Diabetes
D. Bleeding on probing
12. Nikolsky’s sign is a feature of:
A. Lichen planus
B. Pemphigus
C. Herpes simplex
D. Lupus erythematosus
13. A known case of anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is brought to hospital for treatment. Which area of body do you find mostly affected in this case?
A. Spleen
B. Skin or ectoderm
C. Kidney
D. Thyroid gland
14. If one of your patient is having Fordyce’s granules in his buccal mucosa, what will be your line of treatment?
A. Excision
B. No treatment needed
C. Topical application of steroids
D. Surgery followed by radiotherapy
15. The earliest radiographic sign of osteomyelitis is:
A. Solitary or multiple small radiolucent areas
B. Increased granular radiopacity
C. Blurring of trabecular outlines
D. Formation of sequestrum appearing as radiopaque patches
16. Best X ray view for TMJ is:
A. Lateral skull
B. Lateral oblique
C. Transpharyngeal
D. Panoramic
17. Orthodontic correction of which of the following is most easily retained?
A. Anterior crossbite
B. Spacing
C. Diastema
D. Crowding
18. The ‘ugly duckling stage’ is characterized by:
A. Distoangular axial inclination of the crown of maxillary incisors
B. Deep overbite
C. Mandibular lateral incisors erupting lingual to mandibular central incisors
D. Maxillary lateral incisors erupting lingual to maxillary central incisors
19. When a simple tipping force is applied to the crown of an incisor, the center of rotation is usually located:
A. At the apex
B. At the incisal edge
C. At the cervical line
D. One third the root length from the apex
20. Which of the following conditions is always present in a class II div 2 malocclusion?
A. Open bite
B. Cross bite
C. Deep bite
D. Closed bite
21. In a lateral cephalogram, facial plane runs from:
A. Nasion to pogonion
B. Nasion to gnathion
C. Sella to gnathion
22. Arch length space for the eruption of permanent mandibular second and third molars is created by:
A. Apposition of the alveolar process
B. Apposition of the anterior border of ramus
C. Resorption of the anterior border of ramus
D. Resorption at the posterior border of ramus
23. If a first molar is lost, the second molar drifts to the:
A. Distal
B. Mesial
C. Buccal
D. Lingual
24. Which of the following are typical consequences of dental crowding; assuming no primary teeth has been lost prematurely?
A. Overlapping of lower incisors
B. Palatal displacement of upper canines
C. Impaction of 15 and 25 between first premolars and first molars
D. Mesial tipping of 16 and 26
25. The eruption of permanent teeth in cases of extremely early loss of deciduous teeth will result in:
A. No change in the time of eruption
B. Early eruption of the permanent teeth
C. Delayed eruption of the permanent teeth
D. A class II division 1 malocclusion
26. Serial extraction is indicated primarily in:
A. Class I malocclusion
B. Class II malocclusion
C. Class III malocclusion
D. Lower anterior crowding only
27. Chemically gypsum is:
A. Calcium sulphate dihydrate
B. Calcium aluminofluorosilicate
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Magnesium carbonate
28. The principal ingredient of modeling plastic is:
A. Waxes
B. Zinc oxide
C. Aluminium oxide
D. Silicon oxide
29. Which of the following type of GIC is used as luting agent?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
30. The act of smoothening the surface and margin of amalgam restoration is known as:
A. Condensation
B. Burnishing
C. Trituration
D. Amalgamation
31. When porcelain is baked, is backed against metal, it should possess a:
A. High fusion expansion
B. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than, but close to that of the metal
C. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than, but close to that of the metal
D. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than that of the metal
32. Which portion of the flame is used while soldering?
A. Cold mixing zone
B. Partial combustion zone
C. Tip of the reducing zone
D. Oxidizing zone
33. Ease with which impression can be poured without bubble formation is related to:
A. Hardness of impression material
B. Resiliency of impression material
C. Contact angle of the die material with the impression material
D. Surface contamination
34. During the setting of alginate impression materials:
A. Trisodium phosphate reacts preferentially with calcium sulfate
B. Trisodium phosphate reacts preferentially with sodium alginate
C. The colloidal gel state changes to a sol
D. The material in contact with the soft tissues set last
35. The mechanism of adhesion of glass ionomer cement restoration with tooth surface is by means of:
A. Carboxyl group of polymer chains
B. Chelates with metal ion
C. C=C double bond
D. Hydroxyl group
36. Which of the following is a test for measuring hardness?
A. Knoop
B. Toughness
C. Yield strength
D. Resilience
37. Following are the factors associated with external root resorption except:
A. Grafting of alveolar clefts
B. Cysts
C. Orthodontic therapy
D. Endodontic therapy
38. Which of the following agents is used as a die hardener?
A. Cyanoacrylate
B. Nail polish
C. Volatile relief agents
D. Composite resin
39. For a patient with the gingival recession, The best technique of wedging is:
A. Piggy back
B. Double wedging
C. Wedge wedging
D. Single wedge
40. The root amputation procedure involving the removal of one half of the crown and one root in a mandibular molar is called as:
A. Bi-cuspidization
B. Hemisection
C. Root resection
D. Apicoectomy
41. ‘Sandwich technique’ of restoration of carious lesion involves application of following materials:
A. Dycal/GIC/Composites
B. Dycal/GIC/Phosphate
C. Phosphate/Miracle mix/Amalgam
D. ZOE/Amalgam/Composite
42. Which of the following initiator/accelerator systems is needed for a light activated composite?
A. Peroxide amine
B. Diketone amine
C. Organic acid –peroxide
D. Organic acid- metal ion
43. Retention form in class II cavity for amalgam is achieved from:
A. Reduction of cusps
B. Convergence of proximal and occlusal walls occlusally
C. Flat gingival seat
D. Parallel proximal and occlusal walls
44. Over contouring of class II restoration:
A. Leads to healing of periodontal tissues
B. Reduces the plaque in the subgingival area
C. Reduces food impaction by tight contacts
D. Leads to inflammation of the marginal gingiva
45. A patient had a non carious lesion on the lower premolar and was diagnosed as abfraction. Abfraction is caused by:
A. Excess intake of aerated drinks
B. Excessive forces during brushing
C. Flexure of the tooth from occlusal trauma
D. Leaching of 30% hydrogen peroxide during walking bleach
46. Endodontically treated teeth:
A. Decay and breakdown rapidly
B. Require no special design or restoration
C. Are weak and can fracture due to occlusal forces
D. Are more stronger
47. The support of partial denture is usually:
A. Tooth support
B. Mucosa support
C. Occlusal rest support
D. Tooth and mucosa support
48. In heat cure denture base acrylic resins, the monomer is:
A. Methyl methacrylate
B. Ethyl methacrylate
C. Methyl ethyl methacrylate
D. Polymethyl methacrylate
49. Metal margin is preferred over ceramic margin in metal ceramic restoration:
A. Margins are easy to prepare for metal during tooth preparation
B. Tooth preparation is going to be more conservative
C. Only when margin is subgingival
D. Marginal adaptation is better in metal margin rather than ceramic margin
50. Zero degree cusp teeth are preferred over anatomic teeth:
A. When muscles of mastication is very powerful
B. Diabetic patients
C. Patients with well developed residual ridge
D. Patients with very less retention and stability
51. The most common reason for midline fracture of the maxillary denture is due to:
A. Alignment of posterior teeth too far buccally
B. Lack of strength of the material itself
C. Thin palatal portion of the denture
D. Internal porosity which is common in palatal portion
52. The main purpose of tilting the cast in surveying is to:
A. Locate the undercuts
B. Locate the line of contour
C. Provide the most desirable path of placement
D. Aid in designing
53. Class IV Kennedy classification is:
A. A single edentulous area located anterior to remaining natural teeth
B. A single edentulous area present anterior to the canine
C. A single edentulous area present bilaterally on both halves of the jaw
D. A single edentulous area crossing the midline located anterior to the remaining natural teeth
54. Main advantage of the palatal plate major connector is:
A. Thick metal plate
B. Thin metal plate
C. Surface irregularity of plate
D. Corrugated plate
55. Following are the examples of indirect retainers except:
A. Occlusal rest
B. Auxillary occlusal rest
C. Canine rest
D. Continuous bar retainers and linguoplates
56. Prosthesis in which a pontic is attached to a single side retainer via connector is called as:
A. Removable fixed partial denture
B. Removable partial denture
C. Fixed partial denture
D. Cantilever fixed partial denture
57. The predominant immunoglobulin in gingival fluid is:
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE
58. PMA index is used to record the status of:
A. Gingival diseases
B. Carious teeth
C. Root caries
D. Periodontal disease
59. Gingiva is attached to tooth by:
A. Epithelial attachment
B. Periodontal ligament
C. Connective tissue fibres
D. Lamina propria
60. Which of the following contains most aggressive bacteria penetrating connective tissue and resulting in bone destruction?
A. Subgingival unattached plaque
B. Subgingival tooth attached plaque
C. Subgingival attached plaque
D. Supragingival plaque
61. The only antibiotic in periodontal therapy to which all strains of A. actinomycetemcomitans are susceptible:
A. Azithromycin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Cvefidipine
D. Metronidazole
62. Listerine is contraindicated in patients taking:
A. Phenytoin
B. Cyclosporin
C. Nifedipine
D. Disulfiram
63. Bacteria found in gingivitis are localized in:
A. Connective tissue fibres
B. Gingival Sulcus
C. Alveolar bone
D. Periodontal ligament
64. Histological examination of the tissues in desquamative gingivitis reveals:
A. Hyperkeratosis
B. Elongation of the rete pegs
C. Aggregations of giant cells
D. Local loss of the basement membrane
65. The most common cell found in healthy periodontal ligament is:
A. Neutrophil
B. Fibroblast
C. Epithelial cell
D. Osteoblast
66. Predominant bacteria found in two days old plaque is:
A. Streptococci
B. Bacteroides
C. Spirochetes
D. Actinomycetes
67. Active search for disease in an apparently healthy individual is called:
A. Monitoring
B. Screening
C. Sentinel surveillance
D. Case finding
68. Delayed eruption of at least part of the dentition is a recognized feature of all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Rickets
B. Congenital hyperthyroidism
C. Cleidocranial dysplasia
D. Cherubism
69. Natal teeth are seen:
A. Within first 30 days of birth
B. Erupt at three months of age
C. At the time of birth
D. At 6 months of age
70. The most caries susceptible teeth in permanent dentition are:
A. Lower anterior
B. Second bicuspids
C. First molars
D. Second molars
71. Indirect pulp capping procedures on primary molars are indicated when:
A. Removal of decay has exposed the pulp
B. A tooth has a large, long-standing lesion with a history of continuous pain
C. The carious lesion has just penetrated to DEJ
D. The carious lesion is suspected of producing exposure of the pulp
72. In performing mandibular nerve block for a child, the most probable cause of failure of anesthesia is:
A. More concentration of LA is required
B. Because of different angulation of needle
C. Because of position of mandibular foramen
D. None of the above
73. A child with fever of 102 degrees F and vesicles in the oral cavity is probably suffering from:
A. Herpes Simplex type I
B. Juvenile periodontitis
C. Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
D. Neutropenia
74. Which deficiency affects tooth development?
A. Vitamin A
B. Carbohydrates
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin B
75. Saliva plays a vital role in the ________ of a complete denture.
A. Retention
B. Stability
C. Support
D. Esthetics
76. What is best for factor and replacement in Hemophilia A?
A. Fresh frozen plasma
B. Cryoprecipitate
C. Whole blood
D. Platelets
77. Common site of carcinoma of tongue is:
A. Apical
B. Lateral borders
C. Dorsum
D. Posterior 1/3rd
78. Pernicious anemia is due to deficiency of:
A. Iron
B. Cobalamine
C. Folic acid
D. Niacin
79. In jaundice there is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia which is most likely due to:
A. Hepatitis
B. Cirrhosis
C. Obstruction of bile in canaliculi
D. Increased breakdown of red cells
80. Diabetes insipidus occur due to lack of:
A. Insulin
B. Antidiuretic hormone
C. ACTH
D. Thyroxin
81. Rheumatoid arthritis in children is known as:
A. Still’s disease
B. Kamura’s disease
C. Hansen’s disease
D. Degenerative joint disease
82. The potency of the midazolam is:
A. Thrice that of diazepam
B. Twice that of diazepam
C. 10 times that of diazepam
D. 5 times that of diazepam
83. Anemia can manifest as all EXCEPT:
A. Headache
B. Vertigo
C. Delirium
D. Tinnitus
84. Tetanus is due to:
A. Exotoxin fixed to motor end plate
B. Endotoxin fixed to motor end plate
C. Circulating exotoxin
D. Circulating endotoxin
85. Which of the following is the most sensitive to radiation induced cancer?
A. Nerves
B. Female breast
C. Thyroid
D. Skin
86. Which of the following clinical lesions is most likely to harbor dysplastic changes, carcinoma in situ or even early invasive cancer?
A. Erythroplakia
B. Lichen planus
C. Leukoplakia
D. Stomatitis nicotiana
87. Which of the following regions in the crown of a tooth is often mistaken for caries in a radiograph?
A. Pulp horn
B. Marginal ridge
C. Cementoenamel junction
D. Secondary dentin
87. ANSWER: C. Cementoenamel Junction
88. Cause of osteogenesis imperfecta is:
A. Defect in type I collagen
B. Defect in type II collagen
C. Defect in maturation process
D. Defect in calcification process
89. Which of the following is also known as familial multilocular cystic disease of the jaws?
A. Osteopetrosis
B. Cleidocranial dysostosis
C. Hemifacial microsomia
D. Cherubism
90. The protein content of a keratocyst is found to be:
A. < 4 gm/dL
B. 6 mg/dL
C. Equal to serum protein
D. More than serum protein
91. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells around blood vessels are known as:
A. Histiocytes
B. Pericytes
C. Fibroblast
D. Osteoblast
92. Which of the following is characterized by the presence of portwine stains, gingival overgrowth and convulsive disorders?
A. Sturge Weber syndrome
B. Witkop syndrome
C. Hunter syndrome
D. Fanconi syndrome
93. Of the following locations, the one in which the prognosis of endermoid carcinoma is least favorable is:
A. Lower lip
B. Hard palate
C. Buccal mucosa
D. Posterior lateral border of tongue
94. Exfoliative cytology is mainly used in the definitive diagnosis of the:
A. Oral cancer
B. Fungal infection
C. Vesiculobullous diseases
D. Viral infection
95. The most common development disorder affecting the tongue is:
A. Median rhomboid glossitis
B. Abnormally fissured tongue
C. White spongy nevus
D. Black hairy tongue
96. One of the earlier signs of cavernous sinus thrombosis is due to deficit in the function of:
A. Trochlear nerve
B. Abducent nerve
C. Oculomotor nerve
D. Ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve
97. ‘Dumble-bell’ shaped swelling is characteristic of which type of odontogenic space infection?
A. Submandibular space infection
B. Buccal space infection
C. Submasseteric space infection
D. Temporal space infection
98. Best treatment for pericoronitis associated with impacted mandibular third molar is:
A. Irrigating under the operculum
B. Antibiotic and analgesic therapy
C. Extraction of impacted third molar
D. Operculectomy
99. Initial control of hemorrhage after tooth extraction is achieved by:
A. Placing figure of eight suture around the socket
B. Placing a moisture gauze over the extraction socket
C. Application of hydrogen peroxide pack
D. Prescribe antihemorrhagic drugs
100. Ankylosis of the TMJ is best treated with:
A. Exercise and massage
B. Sclerosing solutions
C. Antibiotics
D. Condylectomy
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