1. Rank the following dental materials in order of increasing values of their coefficient of thermal expansion: dental amalgam, human teeth, porcelain and unfilled acrylic plastics
A. Human teeth, porcelain, dental amalgam and unfilled acrylic plastics
B. Porcelain, human teeth, unfilled acrylic plastics and dental amalgam
C. Porcelain, human teeth, dental amalgam and unfilled acrylic plastics
D. Human teeth, porcelain, unfilled acrylic plastics and dental amalgam
2. A metal that expands on solidification from the molten state is:
A. Gold
B. Silver
C. Bismuth
D. Copper
3. The principal ingredient of an irreversible hydrocolloid impression is:
A. Agar
B. Tri sodium phosphate
C. Sodium alginate
D. Colliodal silica
4. One of the best agents used in successful pulp capping is:
A. Copper cement
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Amalgam
D. Zinc oxide
5. Silicone differs from polyether polymer with respect to:
A. Affinity for water
B. Place and time of one
C. Area of one
D. Cost effectiveness
6. The best surface for a macrofilled composite resin is achieved by:
A. Allowing polymerization to occur against a mylar matrix
B. Use of a green stone
C. Use of an extra fine silicone carbide disc
D. Use of a white stone
7. Which of the following has lowest tensile strength?
A. Silicate cement
B. Type II GIC
C. Cermet
D. Resin modified GIC
8. The setting time of zinc oxide eugenol material is:
A. 1-2 minutes
B. 3-5 minutes
C. 6-8 minutes
D. 9-10 minutes
9. Which of the following is a flux?
A. SiO2
B. Borax
C. Magnesium oxide
D. Aluminium oxide
10. In processing of an acrylic denture in a water both proper heating is desired because of the possibility of:
A. Warpage
B. Shrinkage of the denture
C. Porosity due to boiling of monomer
D. Reduced strength
11. The difference between a reamer and file is in:
A. The number of flutes and shape of the shaft
B. The number of flutes
C. The number of flutes and size of the shaft
D. The shape and size of the shaft
12. Teeth that appear to be color matched in one type of light may appear very different in another light source. This phenomenon is called:
A. Fluorescence
B. Metamerism
C. Opaqueness
D. Translucency
13. The pulp horn most likely to be exposed in preparing cavities in lower first molar teeth is:
A. Mesiobuccal
B. Distobuccal
C. Mesiolingual
D. Distolingual
14. Biomechanical preparation of root canal ensures:
A. Debridement of root canal
B. Perforation of apical foramen
C. Creation of ledge
D. Root canal filling
15. Pulp is necrotized in which of the following?
A. Acute or chronic periapical abscess
B. Acute irreversible pulpitis
C. Hyperemia of pulp
D. Pulp polyp
16. Localized defects of the teeth can be treated by using:
A. Full veneers
B. Microveneers
C. Partial veneers
D. Macroveneers
17. Primer is a:
A. Acid etching agent
B. Adhesion promoting agent
C. Coupling agent
D. Bonding agent
18. The minimal occlusal thickness of amalgam restoration for appropriate resistance to fracture is:
A. 0.5 mm
B. 0.8 mm
C. 1.5 mm
D. 2.5 mm
19. The choice of the liner material for pulpal protection in the cavities close to the pulp is:
A. Zinc oxide eugenol
B. Polycarboxylate
C. GIC
D. Calcium hydroxide
20. Which of the following is a non cutting instrument?
A. Chisels
B. Excavators
C. Explorers
D. Files
21. Which of these muscles may affect the borders of mandibular complete denture?
A. Mentalis
B. Lateral pterygoid
C. Orbicularis oris
D. Levator angularis
22. An anterior tooth bounded edentulous area which crosses the midline:
A. Class I
B. Class III
C. Class IV
D. Class IX
23. A complete or partial removable denture supported by retained roots is known as:
A. Conventional immediate denture
B. Transitional immediate denture
C. Cast partial denture
D. Over dentures
24. Most common presentation of tooth parafunction is:
A. Lateroprotrusive
B. Protrusive
C. Lateral
D. Vertical
25. Fixed factor according to Hanau is:
A. Orientation of occlusal plane
B. Condylar guidance
C. Incisal guidance
D. Compensating curve
26. Face bow is used to record:
A. Orientation relation
B. Centric relation
C. Eccentric relation
D. Vertical jaw relation
27. The Valsalva maneuver is performed to record:
A. Centric relation
B. Eccentric relation
C. Orientation relation
D. Posterior palatal seal
28. The primary function of posterior palatal seal is to:
A. Retention of upper denture by making a complete seal
B. Aid in insertion and removal of the upper denture
C. Achieve balanced occlusion
D. Retention of lower denture
29. The type of patient demanding to be educated before the complete denture fabrication:
A. Philosophical
B. Exacting
C. Indifferent
D. Hysterical
30. Ala tragus line is also known as:
A. Frankfurt occlusal plane
B. Camper’s line
C. SNA plane
D. Median plane
31. Following are the characteristics of Subgingival calculus except:
A. Greenish black in color
B. 30% mineralized
C. Hard flint like consistency
D. Forms after gingival inflammation begins
32. What are two teeth connected at the cementum called?
A. Concrescence
B. Maceration
C. Gemination
D. Fusion
33. Attached gingiva is always:
A. Stippled
B. Non keratinized
C. Resistant to masticatory forces
D. None of the above
34. Which of the following technique is better choice to cover denuded root in upper isolated tooth?
A. Tarnow’s technique
B. Langer’s technique
C. GTR technique
D. Miller’s technique
35. The site of periodontium in most multirooted teeth affected by occlusal trauma is:
A. Cervical third
B. Middle third
C. Apical third
D. Furcations
36. Tissue necrosis of gingival margin and interdental papillae is seen in:
A. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
B. ANUG
C. Pregnancy gingivitis
D. Juvenile periodontitis
37. The most prevalent immunoglobulin in saliva is:
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. IgM
38. Which group of periodontal fibers are largest?
A. Transseptal group
B. Alveolar crest group
C. Horizontal group
D. Oblique group
39. The probing depth of a clinically normal human gingival sulcus is:
A. 2-3 mm
B. 0-1 mm
C. 6-8 mm
D. 0-0.5 mm
40. Secondary occlusal trauma is seen when:
A. Abnormal forces acting on normal periodontium
B. Normal forces acting on normal periodontium
C. Normal forces acting on diseased periodontium
D. All of the above
41. Fluoride content is more in which milk product?
A. Toned milk
B. Cheese
C. Butter
D. Paneer
42. The obturating material of choice for primary teeth following complete pulpectomy is:
A. Zn phosphate cement and formocresol combination paste
B. Quick setting hydroxide cement
C. Zinc oxide and eugenol cement
D. Gutta percha
43. A newborn child with cleft lip is to be referred for surgery. Which of the following parameters decides the treatment time?
A. Weight in kilograms
B. Weight in pounds
C. Weight in grams
D. Weight in decigrams
44. Which of the following anesthetic should not be used in children?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivacaine
C. Prilocaine
D. Articaine
45. Which of the following is more cariogenic?
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Lactose
D. Sucrose
46. Hard tissue formation of maxillary first permanent molar begins at:
A. 3-4 month of intrauterine life
B. At birth
C. 5-6 months of intrauterine life
D. 2-3 years after birth
47. The largest cusp of primary maxillary first molar is:
A. Mesiobuccal cusp
B. Distobuccal cusp
C. Mesiolingual cusp
D. Distolingual cusp
48. Serial extraction is indicated in:
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class II div I
49. Beriberi is due to the deficiency of:
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin E
C. Thiamine
D. Pyridoxine
50. The most common acute gingival infection in children is:
A. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
B. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
C. Desquamative gingivitis
D. Erythema multiforme
51. Osteopetrosis is also known as:
A. Fibrous dysplasia
B. Marble bone disease
C. Mandibulofacial dysostosis
D. Cherubism
52. In performing all elective tracheostomy, the trachea should be entered:
A. Below the cricoid
B. Above the cricoid
C. Through the cricothyroid membrane
D. Laterally below the thyroid cartilage
53. Both BT and CT are prolonged in:
A. Hemophilia A
B. Purpura
C. Von Willebrand’s disease
D. Hemophilia B
54. Hepatitis B can be diagnosed during the acute phase by demonstrating:
A. Reduction of surface antigen by administration of gamma globulin
B. An increase of surface antigen (HBSAg)
C. The presence of Hepatitis B surface antigen
D. A rising antibody titer against the antigen
55. Which of the following is not characteristic of congenital syphilis?
A. Ghon complex
B. Interstitial keratitis
C. Mulberry molars
D. Notched incisors
56. Which is not the sign and symptom of diabetes mellitus in the followings?
A. Polydipsia
B. Polyuria
C. Loss of weight and strength
D. Decreased appetite
57. Which of the following non hepatitis virus most commonly cause hepatitis?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Epstein Barr Virus
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Yellow fever virus
58. Sign of hypoglycemia include the following EXCEPT:
A. Sweating
B. Mental confusion
C. Extensor planter
D. Fall of blood pressure
59. In a patient of head injury, Which is more important to note first?
A. Pupillary light reflex
B. Pupillary size
C. Corneal reflex
D. Ability to open eye
60. Which of the following is better indicator of need for transfusion?
A. Urine output
B. Hematocrit
C. Color of skin
D. Clinical examination
61. Colloid bodies are seen in:
A. Odontogenic keratocyst
B. Radicular cyst
C. Lichen planus
D. Pemphigus vulgaris
62. Unerupted teeth which present a ghost like radiographic appearance represent a form of:
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
C. Shell teeth
D. Regional odontodysplasia
63. The recurrence of pleomorphic adenoma is attributed to:
A. Presence of an incomplete capsule
B. Mixed origin
C. Absence of capsule
D. Perineural spread
64. The thickness of spinous layer is known as:
A. Acanthosis
B. Hyperorthokeratosis
C. Carcinoma in situ
D. Parakeratosis
65. Alcohol shows maximum antiseptic activity at:
A. 10%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 99%
66. The epithelial rest sheath of Malassez are found in:
A. Enamel
B. Dentin
C. Pulp
D. Periodontal ligament
67. Bifid crown with single root is due to:
A. Fusion
B. Gemination
C. Dilaceration
D. Lingual invagination
68. Constant feature associated with radicular cyst is:
A. Impacted tooth
B. Missing tooth
C. Non vital tooth
D. Anomalous tooth
69. Which one of the following diseases does not involve skin?
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Cicatrical pemphigoid
C. Bullous pemphigoid
D. Lichen planus
70. Which of the following is the most frequent cause of ankylosis of the TMJ?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Traumatic injury
C. Congenital syphilis
D. Traumatic occlusion
71. Anesthesia of the cheek, lip and nose may be present in which of the following fractures?
A. Le fort I fracture
B. Zygomatic complex fracture
C. Fracture of the zygomatic arch
D. Fracture of the nasal bone
72. A contraindication to local infiltration technique:
A. Hypertension
B. Diabetic patient in which urine sugar present
C. Infection in the arch (Alveolar bone)
D. Kidney problems
73. Level of analgesia is best monitored by:
A. Eye movements and absence of corneal reflex
B. Eye movements and absence of conjunctival reflex
C. Respiration rate, rhythm and type of respiratory movement
D. Verbal response
74. Among the following, in which patient GA is contraindicated?
A. An adult male over 65 years of age
B. Patient with acute respiratory infection
C. Child under 6 years of age
D. Patient with wheel compensated heart disease
75. All of the following are mediators of inflammation EXCEPT:
A. Tumor necrosis factor
B. Interleukin-1
C. Myeloperoxidase
D. Prostaglandins
76. Prothrombin time is increased in:
A. Von willebrand’s disease
B. Haemophilia
C. Warfarin therapy
D. Liver disease
77. If extraction is to be done on haemophilic patient, factor VII should be at least:
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
78. A cartridge of LA contains 1:200000 adrenaline, it indicates that there is:
A. 0.005 mg/ml of adrenaline
B. 0.065 mg/ml of adrenaline
C. 0.0125 mg/ml of adrenaline
D. 0.02 mg/ml of adrenaline
79. The duct of sublingual gland is known as:
A. Bartholin duct
B. Stenson duct
C. Nasopalatine duct
D. Wharton duct
80. In oral surgery procedures, prophylactic antibiotics must be given in:
A. Post operative coronary artery bypass graft
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Myocardial infarction
81. Hyper-orthokeratosis, acanthosis, saw tooth appearance of rete-pegs, liquefaction necrosis of basal layer of cells are seen in:
A. Lupus erythematosus
B. Psoriasis
C. Lichen planus
D. Pemphigus
82. The thickness of base of dental X ray film is:
A. 0.18 mm
B. 0.8 mm
C. 1.2 mm
D. 1.8 mm
83. Hairy tongue is characterized by hypertrophy of which of the following papillae?
A. Foliate
B. Filiform
C. Fungiform
D. Circumvallate
84. The most reliable single histological criterion for a diagnosis of oral squamous cell carcinoma is:
A. Invasion
B. Degeneration
C. Pleomorphism
D. Encapsulation
85. What type of X ray is to be taken in suspected middle third face fracture?
A. Lateral oblique view of face
B. Occipital mental view of maxilla
C. Posterior anterior view of mandible
D. OPG view of mandible
86. The most common type of pigmented nevus is:
A. Junctional nevus
B. Intramucosal nevus
C. Compound nevus
D. Melanoacanthoma
87. Canker sore is an example of:
A. Pemphigus
B. Lichen planus
C. Recurrent aphthous ulcer
D. Erythema multiforme
88. Median rhomboid glossitis is due to:
A. Inflammation of the tongue
B. Persistence of tuberculum impar
C. Hypertrophy of filiform papillae
D. Atrophy of filiform papillae
89. A white patch that cannot be rubbed off from oral mucosa and not related to any other disease is a feature of:
A. Lichen planus
B. Erythroplakia
C. Leukoplakia
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
90. Filters are used in X ray beam to:
A. Increase contrast
B. Reduce film density
C. Remove low energy X ray radiation
D. Reduce film density
91. Cleft palate occurs due to disturbances in the following weeks of intrauterine life:
A. 5-8
B. 6-8
C. 12-14
D. 8-10
92. The classic ‘adenoid face’ is associated with:
A. Thumb sucking
B. Mouth breathing
C. Tongue thrusting
D. Nail biting
93. Milwaukee brace wear for treatment of scoliosis leads to:
A. Class III malocclusion due to retarded growth of maxilla
B. Class II malocclusion due to retarded growth of mandible
C. Class III malocclusion due to overgrowth of mandible
D. Class II malocclusion due to overgrowth of maxilla
94. Functional appliance should be best used during following period of growth and development:
A. Prepubescent
B. Pubescent
C. Adulthood
D. Adolescence
95. The plane which connect orbitale and porion refers to:
A. Frankfort horizontal plane
B. Bolton’s Plane
C. Occlusal plane
D. Mandibular plane
96. Which of the following classifications classify malocclusion in all the three planes?
A. Angle’s
B. Dewey’s
C. Simon’s
D. Bennet’s
97. Increased vertical overlap is referred to as:
A. Overbite
B. Overjet
C. Deep bite
D. Open bite
98. In cephalometrics, the Frankfort plane is constructed:
A. Horizontally from nasion through porion
B. Horizontally from nasion to the superior aspect of external auditory meatus
C. Vertically from orbitale through the maxillary canine
D. Horizontally from orbitale to the superior aspect of external auditory meatus
99. Methods of bite opening include which of the following?
A. Intrusion of both anterior and posterior teeth
B. Extrusion of both anterior and posterior teeth
C. Intrusion of anterior and extrusion of posterior teeth
D. Intrusion of posterior and extrusion of anterior teeth
100. Simple retraction of maxillary incisors using maxillary molars as anchorage is an example of:
A. Simple anchorage
B. Reciprocal anchorage
C. Stationary anchorage
D. Intermaxillary anchorage
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