AIIMS MDS ENTRANCE EXAM MCQs - 2012 MAY

 

# Component from second branchial arch is:
A. Mandible
B. Muscles of mastication
C. Muscles of facial expression
D. TMJ

# Sensory nerve supply of TMJ is:
A. Masseteric nerve
B. Auriculotemporal nerve
C. Buccal nerve
D. Facial nerve

# Which blood vessel does not supply pharyngotympanic tube?
A. Ascending pharyngeal
B. Ascending palatine
C. Middle meningeal
D. Artery of pterygoid canal

# Nervus intermedius does not carry:
A. Special visceral efferent
B. Special somatic efferent
C. General somatic efferent
D. General visceral efferent

# Nerve supply of buccinator muscle:
A. V
B. VII
C. IX
D. XII

# Legionnaire's disease - False is:
A. Antigen in urine is diagnostic
B. Water bodies such as ponds and lakes act as natural habitat
C. Can infect and live in amoeba intracellularly
D. Human to human transmission can occur

# Hair on end appearance is seen in X ray of:
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Pernicious anemia

# Rhabdomyosarcoma is:
A. Benign tumor of smooth muscle
B. Benign tumor of striated muscle
C. Malignant tumor of smooth muscle
D. Malignant tumor of striated muscle

# Prion- True is:
A. Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 degree C
B. Evokes strong immunologic reaction
C. has long incubation period
D. Contains DNA/RNA

# Regarding prion protein which of the following statement is true?
A. It is protein product coded in viral DNA
B. It catalyses abnormal folding of other proteins
C. It protects disulfide bonds from oxidation
D. It cleaves normal proteins

# Main component of denture cleaners is:
A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Sodium perborate
C. Alkali agents
D. Detergents

# Which of the following is not used as an abrasive in dentifrices?
A. Calcium carbonate
B. Sodium chloride
C. Silicate
D. Amylose

# Bonding of GIC to the tooth structure is brought about by:
A. Micromechanical bonding
B. Carboxyl groups
C. Chelates with metal ions
D. Hydroxyl group

# A mucostatic impression is one that produces:
A. Tissue displacement
B. Slight tissue displacement
C. Least amount of tissue displacement
D. None of the above

# Annealing is:
A. Hardening heat treatment
B. Softening heat treatment
C. Precipitating heat treatment
D. Stress relieving heat treatment

# In denture base resins, Power:Liquid ratio is:
A. 3:1 by volume; 2:1 by weight
B. 2:1 by volume; 3:1 by weight
C. 1:3 by volume; 1:2 by weight
D. 2:1 by volume; 1:3 by weight

# In cold cure resin, activator is:
A. Dibutyl phthalate
B. Dimethyl-p-toluidine
C. Glycol dimethacrylate
D. Benzoyl peroxide

# In intrusion, centre of rotation is:
A. Infinity
B. Apical third
C. CEJ
D. Outside tooth

# Optimum orthodontic force is:
A. More than capillary blood pressure
B. Equal to capillary blood pressure
C. Less than capillary blood pressure
D. Does not depend on capillary blood pressure

# Relapse after rotation is due to:
A. Horizontal fibres
B. Oblique fibres
C. Supra-alveolar fibres
D. Apical fibres

# Maximum amount of neural growth is almost completed by:
A. 6-7 years
B. 10-12 years
C. 14-16 years
D. 18 years

# Progressive malocclusion is:
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Both Class I and Class III

# Orthodontic problem associated with proximal caries is:
A. Loss of arch length
B. Loss of tooth
C. Gaining of arch length
D. Loss of transverse arch width

# In response to traumatic occlusal force, alveolar bone has:
A. Osteoblasts in pressure area and osteoclasts in tension area
B. Osteoclasts in pressure area and osteoblasts in tension area
C. Osteoid in pressure area and osteoblasts in tension area
D. Functional atrophy

# Hyaline zone is:
A. Lamina dura converts to hyaline cartilage
B. Periodontal space gets filled with hyaline material
C. Cell free zone that is histologically similar to hyaline appearance
D. Change to hyaline cartilage

# Ulnar sesamoid calcification starts at:
A. Puberty
B. Birth
C. Prepubertal growth spurt
D. End of puberty

# Stage 2 carcinoma of oral cavity includes:
A. T1N0M0
B. T2N0M0
C. T2N1M0
D. T1N1M0

# Teeth of patient shows wide predentin, very thin dentin, large areas of interglobular dentin and dearranged interglobular dentin. The condition is:
A. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta
B. Dentin dysplasia
C. Odontodysplasia
D. Dentin hypocalcification

# Thistle tube appearance of pulp chamber is feature of:
A. Coronal dentin dysplasia
B. Regional odontodysplasia
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
D. Amelogenesis imperfecta

# Unknown abnormal sensation is:
A. Dysaethesia
B. Anaesthesia dolorosa
C. Allodynia
D. Causalgia

# Basal cell carcinoma is commonly present in:
A. Upper third of face
B. Middle third of face
C. Lower third face
D. Lower lip

# Which surface of tongue is not commonly affected by carcinoma?
A. Dorsal
B. Ventral
C. Lateral
D. Posterior

# Micrognathia, cleft palate and glossoptosis is seen in which of the following?
A. Pierre Robin Syndrome
B. Trisomy 21
C. Achondroplasia
D. Treacher Collins syndrome

# Moon facies is seen in:
A. Cushing syndrome
B. Albright syndrome
C. Peutz jeghers syndrome
D. Addison's syndrome

# A child with a history of trauma at 4 years, presented at 7 years of age with discoloration of maxillary central incisor. The condition is:
A. Turner's hypoplasia
B. Syphilitic hypoplasia
C. Rickets
D. Enamel fluorosis

# Pemphigus vulgaris is diagnosed clinically by:
A. Nikolsky's sign
B. Auspitz sign
C. Tinel sign
D. Bell's sign

# White radiating line on buccal muscosa is seen in:
A. Leukoplakia
B. Erythroplakia
C. Lichen planus
D. Oral submucous fibrosis

# Bull's eye lesion is seen in:
A. Erythema multiforme
B. Psoriasis
C. Pemphigus
D. SLE

# Anitschkow cell is present in all except:
A. Aphthous ulcer
B. Herpes simplex
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Sickle cell anemia

# X ray contrast is best controlled by:
A. Exposure time
B. KVp
C. mA
D. Tube angulation

# The type of bone present in interradicular area is:
A. Cortical
B. Cancellous
C. Exophytic
D. Osteophytic

# In which of the following conditions is the role of microbial plaque most obscure?
A. Juvenile periodontitis
B. ANUG
C. Desquamative gingivitis
D. Pregnancy gingivitis

# Desquamative gingivitis may be seen in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Recurrent aphthae
C. Lichen planus
D. Cicatrical pemphigoid

# Which of the following organism is not implicated in the etiology of periodontal diseases?
A. Bacteroides
B. Wolinella
C. Neisseria
D. Eikenella

# After cleansing and pumicing the tooth surface, plaque formation takes place within:
A. Few minutes
B. 1/2 to 1 hour
C. 2-4 hours
D. After 1 hour

# The depth of the clinical gingival sulcus is the distance between the gingival margin to the:
A. Cementoenamel junction
B. Alveolar crest
C. Apical extension of junctional epithelium
D. Apical penetration of the probe

# Periodontometer is a device used to measure:
A. Tooth mobility
B. Furcation
C. Debris and material alba
D. Gingival bleeding

# Which index would you use to assess the severity of periodontitis in epidemiological studies of large population?
A. PMA index
B. Gingival index
C. Periodontal index
D. Sulcus bleeding index

# Occurrence of malocclusion in a given population is termed as:
A. Incidence
B. Prevalence
C. Mortality
D. Probability

# The depth of clinical gingiva is the distance between the gingival margin to:
A. Alveolar crest
B. CEJ
C. Apical penetration of probe
D. Apical extension of junctional epithelium

# Apical migration of the epithelial attachment with corresponding recession of marginal gingival sulcus results in:
A. Shallow sulcus
B. True pocket
C. Infrabony pocket
D. Suprabony pocket

# Juvenile periodontitis:
A. Impaired neutrophil chemotaxis
B. Impaired phagocytosis
C. Increased macrophage migration
D. Impaired osteoblastic activity

# Which bacteria are generally seen in pregnancy gingivitis?
A. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
B. Bacteriodes melaninogenicus
C. Streptococcus sanguis
D. Fusobacterium

# According to Glickmann, maximum plaque accumulation of plaque takes place in approximately:
A. 7 days
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days

# Interdental col is more prone to periodontal disease because it:
A. is covered with non keratinized epithelium
B. harbours bacteria
C. is difficult to clean
D. All of the above

# Breakdown of periodontal fibers in periodontitis is due to bacterial enzyme:
A. Collagenase
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Coagulase
D. None of the above

# Dental floss should be ideally used in:
A. Type 1 embrasure
B. Type 2 embrasure
C. Type 3 embrausre
D. All

# Gum hypertrophy is seen in:
A. Nifedipine
B. Atenolol
C. Captopril
D. Lisinopril

# Tobacco chewing is thought to be contributing in which disease?
A. ANUG
B. Desquamative gingivitis
C. Juvenile periodontitis
D. Erythema multiforme

# The green discoloration frequently seen on children's teeth is caused by:
A. Chromogenic bacteria
B. Plaque
C. Materia alba
D. Enamel defects

# Histologic feature of Desquamative gingivitis is:
A. Hyperkeratosis
B. Enlarged Rete Pegs
C. Loss of basement membrane
D. Gingival bleeding

# Type of interdental aid used for cleaning class II embrasure is:
A. Waxed floss
B. Unwaxed floss
C. Unitufted brush
D. Proxa brush

# The first effective tooth brush was manufactured in:
A. China
B. England
C. Arab
D. Russia

# Toothbrush abrasions are more commonly seen in:
A. Mandibular teeth, on the right half of the arch
B. Mandibular teeth, on the left half of the arch
C. Maxillary teeth, on the right half of the arch
D. Maxillary teeth on the left half of the arch

# Reverse bevel incision is given to:
A. Remove pocket lining
B. To reach alveolar crest
C. Raise marginal gingiva
D. All

# Periodontal surgery is best performed:
A. 1 month after completion of hygienic phase
B. 4 week before completion of occlusal adjustments
C. 8 week after completion of restorative phase
D. Immediately after completion of hygienic phase

# Student T test- TRUE IS:
A. Number of observation in sample is same
B. SD is similar
C. Mean is similar
D. Sample is small

# Mean respiratory rate in different kind of smokers and non smokers, categorized as 4 categories mild, moderate, heavy and non smoker test used to assess the means between them:
A. One way ANOVA
B. Two way ANOVA
C. Student t Test
D. Chi Square

# CPITN is recorded for:
A. Full arch
B. Quadrant
C. Sextant
D. One arch

# The brushing technique recommended for patients with periodontal disease is:
A. Roll technique
B. Scrub technique
C. Sulcular technique
D. Vibratory technique

# Disposal of yellow bag material in hospital:
A. Burial
B. Autoclave
C. Incineration
D. Microwaving

# Material of choice for restoring non carious erosive lesion of the cervical areas of the tooth?
A. GIC
B. RM-GIC
C. Compomer
D. Composite

# Material of choice in class V cavity with abfraction:
A. GIC
B. RMGIC
C. Compomer
D. Microfilled composite

# In a tooth with gingival recession undergoing RCT, the GP coneis sealed at:
A. 1 mm below the level of recession
B. 1 mm below roof of pulp chamber
C. 1 mm above canal opening
D. 1 mm below the roof of the pulp chamber

# With acid etching technique, what depth of microporosity is seen in enamel?
A. 10-20 micrometer
B. 3-9 micrometer
C. 5-10 micrometer
D. 30-40 micrometer

# In class V cavity preparation, direction of MD walls depends on:
A. Direction of enamel rods
B. Incisal and gingivoaxial walls
C. Extent of caries
D. Contour of gingiva

# Dentin conditioning:
A. Removes smear layer
B. Bonds with resin
C. Forms plug between resin tag and dentin
D. Increases surface energy

# A dentin primer:
A. etches the dentin
B. it increases the surface energy and wets the dentin surface
C. removes the smear layer
D. conditions the dentin

# Etching in gel form is preferred because:
A. Easy application
B. Enhance and concentrate the action of acid
C. Washing easy
D. Better control over placement

# Hand piece is not sterilized by:
A. Autoclave
B. Gamma ray
C. Dry heat
D. Ethylene oxide

# Sterilization of gutta percha points is done by:
A. Hot salt sterilizer
B. Autoclaving
C. Chemical solutions
D. Dry heat

# Polishing agent used in an air abrasive technology is:
A. Silicon carbide
B. 27 micrometer alumina
C. 50 micrometer alumina
D. Sodium bicarbonate

# Cutting agent used in air abrasive technology is:
A. Silicon carbide
B. 27 micrometer alumina
C. 50 micrometer alumina
D. Sodium bicarbonate

# Access cavity shape in mandibular first molar with 4 canals:
A. Triangular
B. Oval
C. Trapezoidal
D. Circular

# Which lasers can be used to cure composite resin?
A. Argon
B. NdYAG
C. ErYAG
D. CO2

# The type of laser used in pulpotomy procedure is:
A. Nd:YAG laser
B. Carbon dioxide laser
C. Argon laser
D. Er:YAG laser

# Helium Neon (HeNe) lasers are example for:
A. Excimer lasers
B. Gas lasers
C. Diode lasers
D. Solid state lasers

# Minimum number of lobes to form a tooth is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

# Which of the following is the most accepted theory of transmission of dentinal sensation?
A. Hydrodynamic theory
B. Gates control theory
C. Hydrodynamic theory
D. Modulation theory

# All of the following are components of sodium fluoride paste that can be used to treat root sensitivity EXCEPT:
A. Sodium fluoride
B. Kaolin
C. Glycerin
D. Eugenol

# Last resort for anaesthesia is:
A. Intraligamentary
B. Intrapulpal
C. Supraperiosteal
D. Gow-Gates

# Ludwig- angina - BEST feature:
A. Trismus
B. Raised tongue
C. Raised ear lobule
D. Swelling

# Most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is:
A. Infection
B. Trauma
C. Hereditary
D. Idiopathic

# The most common dislocation of TMJ is:
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Medial
D. Lateral

# Neonatal teeth are:
A. Present at birth
B. Present 180 days after birth
C. Present within 45 days of birth
D. Present within 30 days of birth

# Chronic pulpal involvement in deciduous molar is first manifested as:
A. Fuzziness in furcation area
B. Radiolucency in furcation area
C. Widening of PDL in apical third of root
D. Internal resorption

# Chronic pulpal involvement in permanent molar is first manifested as:
A. Fuzziness in furcation area
B. Radiolucency in furcation area
C. Widening of PDL in the apical third of root
D. Internal resorption

# First sign after formocresol pulpotomy failure is:
A. Internal resorption
B. Discoloration
C. Obliteration of pulp canal
D. Pain

# The cotton applied to the pulpal stumps in the formocresol pulpotomy technique should be:
A. Slightly dampened with formocresol
B. Left for 2 hours in the cavity
C. Saturated with formocresol
D. Sealed until the next appointment

# In formocresol, ratio of formalin to cresol is:
A. 3:2
B. 2:3
C. 1:2
D. 2:1

# Formocresol saturated cotton pellet is placed over the amputated pulp stumps for:
A. 1 minutes
B. 2 minutes
C. 4 minutes
D. 5 minutes

# Which of the following materials is the most ideal for indirect pulp capping?
A. Calcium hydroxide
B. Zinc oxide eugenol cement
C. Zinc oxide powder only
D. Zinc oxyphosphate cement

# The amount of pulp tissue to be removed during a formocresol pulpotomy should be:
A. Half of all the coronal pulp
B. The entire coronal pulp down to the cervical constriction of each root canal
C. Coronal pulp down to the area of bifurcation
D. Down to the apex of each root

# Concentration of sodium hypochlorite in Carisolv is?
A. 0.5% W/V
B. 1.5% W/V
C. 5% W/V
D. 2% W/V

# Which amino acid is absent in Carisolv?
A. Glycine
B. Glutamic acid
C. Leucine
D. Lysine

# Which of the following is most common?
A. Cleft lip
B. Cleft lip and alveolus
C. Cleft lip, cleft alveolus and cleft palate unilateral
D. Cleft lip, cleft alveolus and cleft palate bilateral

# Which of the following shows lowest frequency of cleft lip and palate?
A. Negros
B. Afghanese
C. Americans Indians
D. Indian

# Cleft lip is repaired at:
A. 1 month
B. 6 months
C. 10 weeks
D. 1 year

# Surgery on hard palate of a 3 year old cleft patient may inhibit growth causing, facial profile to become:
A. Elongated
B. Shortened
C. More concave
D. Straight

# A prosthetic appliance to cover the palatal defect in patients with cleft palate is:
A. Artificial velum
B. Obturator
C. Removable prosthetic appliance
D. None of the above