A. Pterygoid plexus
B. Submental space
C. Maxillary sinus
D. Submandibular space
# Tributaries of cavernous sinus include all except:
A. Superior petrosal sinus
B. Inferior petrosal sinus
C. Superior middle cerebral vein
D. Deep middle cerebral vein
# Which of the following is a paired venous sinuses:
A. Cavernous
B. Superior petrosal
C. Transverse petrosal
D. All
# Dangerous area is called because of connection of facial vein to cavernous sinus through:
A. Transverse facial
B. Superior opthalmic vein
C. Maxillary vein
D. Opthalmic vein
# Infection spreading via lymphatics from lower lips first enter the blood stream at:
A. Branchiocephalic vein
B. Inferior labial vein
C. Inferior labial artery
D. Pterygoid venous plexus
# The cavernous sinus communicates directly with all except:
A. Inferior petrosal sinus
B. Pterygoid plexus
C. Veins in orbit
D. Sigmoid and straight sinus
# All of the following are present in lateral wall of cavernous sinus except?
A. Occulomotor
B. Trochlear
C. Trigeminal
D. Opthalmic
# Muscle responsible for opening of mandible:
A. Lateral pterygoid
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Temporalis
D. Buccinator
# Forward movement of mandible is done by:
A. Lateral pterygoid
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Temporalis anterior fibres
D. Temporalis posterior fibres
# Muscle responsible for translation of condyle:
A. Medial pterygoid
B. Lateral pterygoid
C. Superior constrictor of pharynx
D. Masseter
# Which of the following muscle help in depressing of mandible:
A. Lateral pterygoid
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Temporalis
D. Masseter
# Usual movement of condyle following contraction of lateral pterygoid is:
A. Upward
B. Downward
C. Upward, forward
D. Downward, forward
# "Pterygoid response" refers to:
A. Pain in medial pterygoid
B. Pain in lateral pterygoid
C. Pain on retracting mandible
D. Pain on retracting maxilla
# Epidural hematoma is due to?
A. B. Vertebral
B. B. Middle meningeal artery
C. Anterior cerebral artery
D. Superior cerebral artery
# Which of these is not a part of Ethmoid bone?
A. Agger nasii
B. Crista gali
C. Inferior turbinate
D. Uncinate process
# Inferior wall of orbit is formed by all except?
A. Ethmoid
B. Maxillary
C. Palatine
D. Zygomatic
# In lateral and side to side movement of jaw which muscle act?
A. Medial and lateral pterygoid
B. Masseter and lateral pterygoid
C. Masseter and medial pterygoid
D. Masseter
# Lymph from tongue not drained by following vessels
A. Posterior vessels
B. Central vessels
C. Marginal vessels
D. Ventral vessels
# In relation to small cut, which of the following leads to sprouting of blood from both cut ends?
A. Ear lobe
B. Lower lip
C. Angle of mouth
D. Angle of jaw
# Premaxillary part is supplied by:
A. Nasopalatine
B. Glossopharyngeal
C. Greater palatine
D. Anterior pharyngeal
# Premaxilla-Premaxillary cyst is?
A. Globulomaxillary cyst
B. Nasopalatine
C. Incisive canal
D. Nasoalveolar cyst
# On protrusion, if tongue deviates to left, nerve paralysed is?
A. Vagus Nerve
B. Glossopharyngeal Nerve
C. Trigeminal Nerve
D. Hypoglossal Nerve
# Unilateral injury to hypoglossal nerve leads to all except:
A. Hemiatrophy of involved side
B. Deviation of nerve towards the same side
C. Loss of taste sensation in one half of the tongue
D. Fasciculation of tongue
# The tendon of sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus muscles form a Pes Anserinus at the neck tibia. Similar kind of structure is also seen in:
A. Parotid
B. Submandibular
C. Cheek
D. TMJ
# Parotid fatty change is sign of:
A. Alcoholism
B. Ageing
C. Malnutrition
D. None
# Characteristic feature true about outer membrane of peripheral nerve is?
A. Relative permeable to K+
B. Impermeable to K+
C. Relative permeable to Na+
D. Permeable to Cl-
# Reactive oxygen free radicals in lysosome is released by:
A. NADPH oxidase
B. Superoxide dismutase
C. Peroxidase
D. Myeloperoxidase
# In stimulus to motor spindle fibers of muscle stretch receptors; response is carried out by:
A. Gamma fibers
B. C fibers
C. A delta fibers
D. Myelinated fibers
# Which of the following is not a general compartment of body fluid?
A. Interstitial fluid
B. Peritoneal fluid
C. Blood plasma
D. Intra-cellular fluid
# Not a monosaccharide?
A. Glucose
B. Galactose
C. Fructose
D. Maltose
# Food with maximum cholesterol content?
A. Coconut oil
B. Ghee
C. Hydrogenated fat
D. Eggs
# Poly Unsaturated Fatty Acids are present in all of the following except:
A. Mustard oil
B. Corn oil
C. Ground nut oil
D. Fish oil
# Which of the following fatty acid should be present in the breast milk for the normal growth of the baby?
A. Palmitoleic acid
B. Arachidonic acid
C. Linolenic acid
D. Docasahexanoic acid
# Most common single cause of pyrexia of unknown origin?
A. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
B. Salmonella paratyphii
C. Brucella
D. Salmonella typhi
# All viruses can be cultured in:
A. Chemically defined media as that for bacteria
B. Living systems only
C. Non living systems only
D. Both a and b
# Virus is usually cultured in:
A. Rogosa blood agar
B. Non embryonated egg
C. Sabourouds medium
D. Embryonated egg
# The simplest method of virus cultivation involves?
A. Inoculation of the virus into it's natural host
B. Inoculation of virus into embryonated egg of hen
C. Inoculation of virus into monolayer cell culture of its natural host
D. Inoculation of virus into cell culture that was killed previously
# The most recent and efficient method of virus cultivation involves the inoculation of virus into?
A. Natural hosts
B. Embryonated eggs
C. Monolayer cell culture
D. Heat killed monolayer cell culture
# If an animal virus is to be cultured in an embryonated egg, that virus would be injected in:
A. Chorioallantoic membrane
B. Allantoic cavity
C. Amniotic cavity
D. Yolk sac
E. Either a or b
# Endotoxin of which gram negative bacteria does not cause pathogenesis of natural disease:
A. E. coli
B. M. tuberculosis
C. V. cholera
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
# Endotoxin of which gram negative bacteria have no part in pathogenesis of disease:
A. E. coli
B. Klebsiella
C. V. cholera
D. Pseudomonas
# The bacteria belonging to genus streptococci are aciduric and acidophilic in nature. In this acidophilic means:
A. Can't survive in acidic environment
B. Can survive in acidic environment
C. Can produce acid
D. Can't produce acid
# Which of the following statement about Ionotropic agent is correct?
A. Adrenaline increases vasodilation
B. Dobutamine causes peripheral vasoconstriction
C. High doses of dopamine increases hepatic blood flow
D. Nor adrenaline increases renal perfusion
# Shy Dragor syndrome?
A. Vasovagal syncope
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. Intestinal polyps
D. Acute adrenergic shock
# Delayed prolonged increase in vascular permeability in inflammation is due to?
A. Leakage from newly formed blood vessels
B. Interleukin 1 mediated endothelial retraction
C. Transcytosis through endothelial cells
D. Release of histamine causing endothelial contraction
# All of the following vascular changes are observed in acute inflammation except:
A. Vasodilation
B. Stasis of blood
C. Increase vascular permeability
D. Decreased hydrostatic pressure
# In acute inflammation due to retraction of endothelial cell cytoskeleton, which of the following results?
A. Delayed transient increase in permeability
B. Early transient increase in permeability
C. Delayed prolonged increase in permeability
D. Early permanent increase in permeability
# Hypertonic salt solution are used in all except?
A. Burn
B. Brain injury patient
C. Prolonged bowel surgery
D. Cardiac type IV shock
# According to 2010 ACLS guidelines all are true except?
A. Cardiac massage resuscitation immediately after defibrillation without waiting for assessing rhythm
B. Defibrillation whenever done, it should be done with maximum available energy
C. Immediately call for help in witnessed or non witnessed cases
D. Atropine is the drug of choice for asystole
# Hypotonic fluid is:
A. Normal saline
B. Ringer lactate
C. Mannitol
D. 5% dextrose
# In a case of bus accident which patient is given priority to shift to hospital?
A. Severe bleeding from fractured leg
B. Head injury
C. Airway problem
D. Circulatory shock
# Enamel lamellae is?
A. Uniform arrangement of enamel rods
B. Dentinal tubule in enamel
C. Enamel projection in dentin
D. Elevation of the outer surface of enamel
# Dental lamellae may be predisposing locations for caries because:
A. They are rich in organic material and form a road of entry for bacteria
B. They are rich in inorganic material and form a road of entry for bacteria
C. They act as semi permeable membrane
D. None of the above
# Water content in Enamel by volume is:
A. 2 to 3%
B. 6 to 7%
C. 10 to 12%
D. 20 to 25%
# Water content in Enamel by weight is:
A. 2 to 3%
B. 6 to 7%
C. 10 to 12%
D. 20 to 25%
# True about Tome's fibers?
A. Odontoblastic process in dentin
B. Odontoblastic process in enamel
C. Collagen fibers in dentin
D. Periodontal ligament fibers from root to dentin
# Sensitivity to pain is least likely to be seen in ?
A. Buccal mucosa
B. Labial mucosa
C. Gingiva
D. Dorsum of tongue
# Tuft cell receptors are seen in:
A. TMJ
. B. Lining of maxillary sinus
C. Cell rich zone
D. Excretory duct of salivary gland
# Saliva which is formed in salivary glands, when passes from salivary gland to duct orifices, it undergoes numerous ion exchange and as a result saliva become ............. as compared to plasma?
A. Isotonic
B. hypotonic
C. Hypertonic sometimes
D. Hypertonic always
# for a bonding agent to be effective, wetting angle should be?
A. Minimum with hard tissue
B. maximum with both dentin and enamel
C. Minimum with dentin and maximum with enamel
D. Minimum with enamel and maximum with dentin
# In dental materials setting time is measured by which test?
A. Vicat needle test
B. Vicker's test
C. Brinell test
D. Cold bend test
# Water: powder ratio for type IV dental stone is
A. 0.65 to 0.70
B. 0.45 to 0.50
C. 0.22 to 0.24
D. 0.28 to 0.30
# In mechanical trituration of amalgam, what is adversely affected:
A. Hardness of filling
B. Tarnish and corrosion resistance
C. Working time
D. Final gloss of filling
# Alginate fillers derive from?
A. Potassium alginate
B. Calcium sulphate
C. Diatomaceous earth
D. Sodium phosphate
# Molecule with permanent dipole?
A. Water
B. Liquid nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Helium
# Amount of heat required to change boiling water to vapors is referred to as:
A. Latent heat of fusion
B. Latent heat of vaporization
C. Latent heat of sublimation
D. Melting temperature
# In an addition silicon impression, which of the following should be done in order to get the best result of the cast?
A. Delay pouring of cast
B. Apply ketone base
C. Apply chloroform on the base
D. Add flavoring agent to prevent bad odor
# Nasolabial angle is formed by?
A. Line from nasion to pogonion with base of nose
B. Base of nose and upper lip
C. FH plane and mandibular plane
D. ANB line and base of nose
# Which of the following is not a self correcting anomaly in a 9 year old child?
A. Ugly duckling stage
B. Anterior open bite
C. End on molar relation
D. Lower mandibular crowding
# In Ricketts esthetic plane lower lip rests?
A. Rest on plane
B. 1mm posterior to plane
C. 2mm posterior to plane
D. 1mm anterior to plane
# Lower facial height is decreased in all except:
A. Anterior open bite
B. Class II div 2
C. Deep bite
D. Growing child
# In a child diagnosis of tongue thrusting is made by:
A. holding paper in between lips
B. Lower lip is held lightly by thumb and finger and asked to swallow water
C. Holding a piece of paper in front of nose
D. Examine the digits of patients
# Non ulcerated, pigmented fast growing lesion on maxillary alveolar ridge of an infant is:
A. Oral melanotic macule
B. Rhabdomyoma
C. Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor
D. Congenital epulis
# The commonly available most potent topical anaesthetic is:
A. Benzocaine
B. Tetracaine
C. Mepivacaine
D. Prilocaine
# LA deposited in IAN block at:
A. Coronoid notch
B. Sigmoid notch
C. Grove of mandibular neck
D. Lingula
# Ester LA is C/I in:
A. Cholinesterase deficiency
B. Coagulation disorder
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Diabetic neuropathy or nephropathy
# Which induction anesthetic agent has anti-emetic effect:
A. Propofol
B. Etomidate
C. Midazolam
D. Thiopentone
# Adrenal suppression caused by which anesthetic agent:
A. Propofol
B. Etidomate
C. Ketamine
D. Thiopentone
# Which of the following induce cardiac stability?
A. Propofol
B. Etomidate
C. Midazolam
D. Thiopentone
# Which of the following increases cerebral oxygen:
A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Alfentanyl
D. Thiopentone
# A person presented with blunt trauma to the abdomen to the emergency department. His heart rate is 150/min and his BP is 80/50 mmHg. He is scheduled to undergo an emergency laparotomy. Which of the following is the anesthetic of choice?
A. Propofol
B. Thiopentone
C. Midazolam
D. Ketamine
# Maximum permissible dose of Articaine in healthy patient is:
A. 1.3 mg/kg
B. 5 mg/kg
C. 2 mg/kg
D. 7 mg/kg
# If impacted 3rd Molar is to extracted in patient planned for bilateral sagittal split osteotomy then extraction should be done:
A. at the time of surgery
B. 1 month after surgery
C. 6 month before surgery
D. 8-12 weeks after surgery when complete healing occurred
# In Bell's palsy, which one of the duct is blocked due to food particles and mucosa:
A. Stenson's
B. Wharton's
C. Nasolacrimal
D. Lacrimal
# In Bell's palsy, which one of the duct is blocked due to mucin or food particles:
A. Stenson's
B. Wharton's
C. Nasolacrimal
D. Lacrimal
# Calculus deposit in bells palsy is most commonly due to blockade of:
A. Stenson's
B. Wharton's
C. Nasolacrimal
D. Lacrimal
# A 30 year old male in road traffic accident is in shock, Immediate IV fluid for resuscitation is:
A. Joule's solution
B. Ringer Lactate solution
C. LMW dextran
D. Normal saline
# Mask intubation is difficult in all except/ Not a indicator of difficult mask ventilation:
A. Full set of teeth present
B. Patient having beard
C. Old age patient
D. Patient having history of snoring
# A 60 year old patient having cardio respiratory arrest in a hospital ward, for oxygenation what should be done immediately:
A. Nasal intubation
B. Tracheostomy
C. Oral intubation
D. Cricothyroid membrane puncture
# A 40 year old man who met with a motor vehicle catastrophe came to the casaulty hospital in an hour with severe maxillofacial trauma. His pulse rate was 120/min, BP 100/70 mmHg, SpO2- 80% with oxygen. What would be the immediate management?
A. Nasotracheal intubation
B. Orotracheal intubation
C. IV fluid
D. Cricothyrotomy
# Distraction Osteosynthesis works on the principle of which types of forces:
A. Traction
B. Compression
C. Passive
D. Torsion
# During prolonged oral surgical operation which of the following is used to secure patent airway:
A. Cuffed nasotracheal tube
B. Non cuffed nasotracheal tube
C. Proseal LMA
D. LMA
# In caldwell luc operation, nasal antrostomy done through:
A. Inferior meatus
B. Middle meatus
C. Superior meatus
D. Middle and inferior
# Direct method of wiring is?
A. Gilmer
B. Risdon
C. Eyelet
D. Col stout
# Latest first line management of Trigeminal Neuralgia is?
A. Peripheral Neurectomy
B. Anti convulsant drug
C. Diagnostic nerve block
D. Radiofrequency ablation
# In arthroscopy for TMJ adhesion lysis, laser used is:
A. Hol-Yag
B. Er-Yag
C. He-Ne
D. Argon
# In preventive dentistry, which type of lasers are usually used for fissure sealing?
A. Er-Yag
B. CO2
C. Diode
D. HeNe
# In Gillies Temporal approach, for reduction of zygomatic arch fracture, Rowes elevator is placed between:
A. Superficial fascia and temporal fascia
B. Temporal fascia and temporalis muscle
C. Skin and temporalis fascia
D. Temporal bone and temporalis muscle
# Excessive pressure at angle of mandible during establishment of patent airway damages the:
A. III
B. IV
C. V
D. VII
# Bilateral circumorbital ecchymosis is seen in:
A. Lefort II fracture
B. Lefort III fracture
C. Zygomatic complex fracture
D. Lefort I fracture
# Obstructive sleep apnea is seen in:
A. TMJ ankylosis
B. Orbital fracture
C. Mandibular ameloblastoma
D. Dentigerous cyst
# Patient with chronically infected tooth on steroid came for extraction, premedication required:
A. Antihistamines to counter allergic reaction
B. Antihypertensive
C. Atropine
D. Antibiotics
# Medial dislocation of fractured condyle in subcondylar fracture is caused by
A. Medial pterygoid
B. Lateral pterygoid
C. Masseter
D. Buccinator
# In children for defect in alveolus, most ideal site for autogenous bone graft is:
A. Anterior iliac crest
B. Posterior iliac crest
C. Ribs
D. Calvaria
# Split lingual bar type connector is not preferred in contemporary partial denture, major disadvantage is:
A. Complex design
B. Entrapment of tissues
C. Decreased retention
D. Inadequate stability
# Which of the following is not a type of major maxillary metal partial denture frame work:
A. Lingual U plate
B. Palatal strap
C. Palatal plate
D. Single palatal bar
# Property of internal occlusal rest are all except:
A. Horizontal stabilization
B. Retention
C. Vertical stop
D. Support
# Occlusal rest seat in the RPD are prepared primarily to:
A. Protect the occlusal surface
B. Stabilize the RPD
C. Resist lateral chewing forces
D. Resist vertical forces of occlusion
# Property of internal occlusal rest are all except:
A. Horizontal stabilization
B. Retention
C. Vertical stop
D. Support
# Occlusal rest seat in the RPD are prepared primarily to:
A. Protect the occlusal surfaces
B. Stabilize the RPD
C. Resist lateral chewing forces
D. Resist vertical forces of occlusal
# Anterior posterior Curve passing along the teeth is?
A. Curve of Spee
B. Curve of Wilson
C. Curve of Monsoon
D. Catenary curve
# In Cr-Co base metal alloy, what is the function of chromium:
A. Increase corrosion and tarnish resistance
B. Responsible for surface irregularities
C. Increases the hardness of steel
D. Stabilization of the alloy
# Fovea palatine situated in hard palate are significant as:
A. Termination of Maxillary denture
B. Opening of minor salivary gland ducts
C. Indicate closure of mid-palatine raphae
D. Opening of greater palatine canal
# The pyramidal shaped interdental gingiva is:
A. Non keratinized
B. Para keratinized
C. has less blood supply
D. in cementum
# Col is:
A. a pathological enlargement of gingiva
B. keratinized portion of interdental gingiva
C. Valley like depression of interdental gingiva
D. an abnormal overgrowth of interdental bony septum
# Which of the following buffer has least effect in stimulated saliva/ Least important buffering agent in stimulated saliva is?
A. Amino acid
B. Phosphates
C. Carbonates/ Carbonic acid
D. None of the above
# The principal buffer in the saliva is:
A. Carbonates
B. Phosphates
C. Bicarbonates
D. Ornithine
# Dmf index measures what:
A. Cumulative caries experience
B. Oral Hygiene Maintenance
C. Rate of decay
D. Not recalled
# Dmf index is :
A. Qualitative discrete data
B. Qualitative continuous data
C. Quantitative data
D. Normal data
# Care index:
A. Ratio of missing teeth tot healthy teeth
B. Ratio of filled teeth to total number of teeth present
C. Number of filled teeth per person
D. Ratio of denture users to non denture users in a population
# Statistical term precision depends upon:
A. Sample size
B. Null hypothesis
C. Study design
D. Alternative hypothesis
# Band and loop space maintainer is contraindicated in all except:
A. Single tooth missing in the posterior region
B. Lower anterior crowding
C. Moderate to severe space loss
D. High cares susceptibility
# Bonding agents have hydrophilic and hydrophobic groups, hydrophobic group binds which structure:
A. Collagen in dentine
B. Hydroxyapatite group in hard tissue
C. Calcium in enamel
D. Resin in restoration
# Sharp stabbing pain from anterior teeth conducted to brain by:
A. A delta fibre
B. C fibre
C. Beta fibre
D. Gamma fibre
# Lowest threshold receptor:
A. A delta fibre
B. A beta fibbre
C. Beta fibre
D. Gamma fibre
# Highest threshold receptor:
A. A delta fibre
B. C fibre
C. Beta fibre
D. Gamma fibre
# A patient is unable to locate pain arising from surrrounding/ adjacent teeth. The nerve fibres carrying pain are:
A. A delta fibre
B. C fibre
C. Beta fibre
D. Gamma fibre
# Electrical conductivity speed of A delta fibre is:
A. 70-120
B. 50-70
C. 30-51
D. 10
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