AIIMS NOVEMBER 2015 MDS PAST ENTRANCE EXAM MCQs

# Medial dislocation of fractured condyle in subcondylar fracrure is caused by:
A. Medial pterygoid
B. Lateral pterygoid
C. Masseter
D. Buccinator

# A dental surgeon has recoverd from Hepatitis B by 3 months rest. His laboratory findings are normal but he is not allowed to attend patients as per medical board as he is:
A. healthy carrier
B. active carrier
C. convalescent carrier
D. paradoxical carrier

# ALternating dark and light band seen in ground section light microscopy is:
A. incremental lines of retzius
B. hunter-schreger band
C. perikymata
D. enamel spindle

# 11 year old girl patient, with yellowish orange discolouration of teeth, presenting with history of chronic illness and hospitalized for 4-5 years. The condition related to discolouration of tooth:
A. Anaemia
B. Jaundice
C. Leukemia
D. Pellagra

# An immuno compromised patient with reduced salivary flow and foul odor from mouth. Histology showing acinar necrosis and squamous sialometaplasia of salivary gland:
A. Diabetic necrolysis of salivary gland
B. HIV associated sialadenitis
C. Pleomorphic adenoma
D. Necrotising sialometaplasia

# A 20% KOH is used for fungal identification. The purpose of KOH is:
A. To lyse the background of epithelial cells
B. To stain the candida hyphae
C. To turn the candida filament so they are visible through microscopre
D. To clear the candida body

# Which of the following cleft is considered as separate entity dur to it's epidemiology, etiology and genetics?
A. Unilateral cleft lip and palate
B. Cleft lip
C. Bilateral cleft lip and palate
D. Isolated cleft palate

# A patient complains of burning sensation in whole mouth since 10 days and clinically shows red bald tongue with loss of filliform papillae. He is on prolonged antibiotic therapy. What would be ypur diagnosis?
A. Acute atrophic candidiasis
B. Scarlet fever
C. Geographic tongue
D. Syphillis

# A 9 year old child's mother comes to dental clinic with the complaint of oral ulceration, fever and shedding of skin of palms and soles; she is giving history of premature shedding of teeth and increased sweating, she is also giving 1 month history of using any new teething gel available in market. The child is suffering from:
A. Acrodynia
B. Pemphigus vulgaris
C. Epidermolysis Bullosa
D. Erosive lichen planus

# Patient with carcinomatous T2N1M0, stage:
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV

# Which of the following resembles histologically with CGCG and should be ruled out:
A. Albright's disease
B. Fibrous Dysplasia
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Paget's disease

# A 11 year child with hypertrophy of tongue and deranged articulation. All can be the causes except:
A. Beckwith Widmann syndrome
B. Ascher's syndrome
C. Hemihyperplasia
D. Carcinoma

# Patient came with strawberry coloured gingiva, gives history of blood vomitus and saddle nose. Most probably clinical diagnosis is:
A. Wegener's granulomatosis
B. Hutchinson's disease
C. Lead poisoning and other heavy metal poisoning
D. Arsenic poisoning

# Cleidocranial dysplasia there is impaired sutured growth of maxilla leading to retrognathic maxilla and normal mandible. All are true except:
A. CFBA 1 mutation
B. Prognostic maxilla and retrognathic mandible
C. Crowding of teeth
D. Hypertelorism

# Deficiency of which component is food causes generalized hypoplasia of teeth:
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Fluorine
D. Vitamin C

# A child shows accelerated dental development till 10-11 years of age, and growth is retarded after that. Probable cause is:
A. Wilms tumor
B. Juvenile thyrotoxicosis
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Uncontrolled diabetes

# Which tooth can be most readily extracted by rotation during extraction:
A. Maxillary canine
B. Maxillary central incisor
C. Mandibular central incisor
D. Maxillary 1st premolar

# A patient complains of foul smelling purulent discharge from site of mandibular first molar extracted three days back. The gingival margins around the socket are extremely sensitive to touch. The appropriate trestment of choice is:
A. Irrigation of the socket with saline and sedative placement
B. Curretage of socket and induce bleeding
C. Left untreated and observed for few days
D. Start antibiotics followed by curretage of socket

# A 10 year old child is HIV positive and comes in dental clinic wih severe pain due to abscess in the oral cavity and needs tooth extraction. What should be done?
A. Take the CD4 count and consult the physician
B. Send the child for ELISA and consult the physician
C. Send the child to get the sputum test done
D. Do nothing

# A 2 year old child mother gives history of fall from the bed last night, he becomes cranky on feeding, no mobility, no step deformity, but tenderness on TMJ region. Treatment focus will be more on:
A. Avoid hard food for 2-4 weeks
B. Active mouth opening exercise
C. Hot water fermentation on the area
D. Cap splint

# A patient suffered from panfacial trauma followed by which he has bilateral diplopia and restricted eye movement. Line of management would be:
A. Orbital floor reconstruction
B. Zygomatic bone reduction
C. Reduction with mini plates
D. Orbital floor reconstruction and reduction with mini plates

# For reducing the fracture with the best functional stability, plating is usually done:
A. Bicortically at inferior border
B. Maximum tensile normal stress
C. Maximum compression zone
D. Mid-bone area

# After Lefort I osteotomy, blood supply of maxilla is maintained by:
A. Posterior superior alveolar artery
B. Greater palatine
C. Anterior superior alveolar artery
D. Ascending pharyngeal branch of facial artery

# During LA administration paient becomes pale, perspiring and disoriented. The immediate management:
A. Administration of Oxygen
B. Supine position
C. Holding head between the knees
D. Administration of 1:1000 Adrenaline

# In CPR, the sternum should be depressed at a rate of:
A. 1 inch per 1 sec
B. 2 inch per 1 sec
C. 1 inch per 5 sec
D. 2 inch per 5 sec

# A dye injected into space to see the joint is known as:
A. Arthrography
B. Arthroplasty
C. Arthroscopy
D. OPG

# The joint cavity can be examined in detail without much surgical exposure by:
A. Sialography
B. Arthroscopy
C. Biopsy
D. Endoscopy

# 5 min after the injection of IANB for extraction of 2nd premolar, patient was unable to move both upper and lower lips and unable to close the eye on the same side. It is due to:
A. Diffusion of LA into parotid
B. Paralysis of motor branch supplied to muscle of mastication
C. Diffusion of LA into optic ganglion
D. Opthalmic division involvement of Trigeminal nerve

# A 14 year old child with condyle fracture which is displaced and dislocated, there is mid disturbance in occlusion and difficulty in mouth opening. What will be your treatment method?
A. Open treatment
B. Condylectomy
C. No treatment
D. Closed treatment

# A patient comes to OPD with Ludwig angina. Which of the following is done first:
A. I/D, antibiotics and removal of third molar
B. Intubation prior to surgery
C. I/D, antibiotics and removal of third molar later on
D. Before any treatment, tracheostomy should be done

# A patient aged 35 year showed class 3 malocclusion with mandibular deviation, and enlargement of condyle with incresed radioopacity is seen in direction towards lateral pterygoid muscle in an OPG, most likely:
A. Osteoma
B. Osteoid osteoma
C. Osteochondroma
D. Condylar hyperplasia

# A 60 year old man, who is chronic smoker reported your clinic with a complaint of pain since 10 days in the left lower molar region. OPG shows a large unilocular radiolucent area on left side of mandible. What is the treatment of choice?
A. IMF and antibiotics
B. Biopsy
C. 2 miniplate
D. Reconstruction of bony plates

# One diagram showing OPG fracture running from lower border of mandible to the mesiobuccal root of 38:
A. Compound fracture
B. Comminuted fracture
C. Vertically unfavourable fracture
D. Horizontally favourable fracture

# Increased lower facial height:
A. Angle fracture
B. Symphyseal fracture
C. Bilateral parasymphyseal fracture
D. Guardsman fracture

# Injuiry that can cause protective layer damage is:
A. Intrusion
B. Extrusion
C. Avulsion
D. Lateral luxation

# In guardman fracture with lingual splaying, which will be seen:
A. Increase in go-gn angle
B. Increase in interangular distance
C. Increase in intercanthal distance
D. Increase in interpupillary distance

# In high velocity gunshot injuiry with comminuted fracture of mandible with periosteal rupture, line of management will be:
A. Immediate reconstruction plate and bone graft
B. External splint
C. Bag of bones and IMF
D. Phase I debridement and in phase II bone graft with local bearing

# A patient with chronically infected tooth on steroid came for extraction, premedication required is:
A. Antibiotics
B. Antihistamines to counter the allergic reaction
C. Atropine
D. Antihypertensive

# Which of the following is not a major component of endodontic microflora pathogenic mechanism:
A. Microbial interference
B. Bacterial enzymes
C. Exotoxin
D. Endotoxin

# Which peripherial lesion require unneeded endodontic therapy:
A. Developmental cyst
B. Residual cyst
C. Radicular cyst
D. Periapical fibrous dysplasia

# Ideal electrode position for Electric pulp testing on 1st molar is done on which side:
A. Mesiobuccal cusp tip
B. Distobuccal cusp tip
C. Distobuccal surface
D. Mesiobuccal surface

# Bacteria which adhere to tooth and cause caries is due to:
A. They produce extracellular polysaccharide or dextrans
B. Ferment carbohydrates and release proteolytic enzymes
C. Produce acids
D. Increase pH of saliva

# Material that acts as pulpal medicament and thermal insulator is:
A. Solution liner
B. Suspension liner
C. Cement liner
D. Cement base

# Which phase acts as the strongest cathode in low Cu amalgam:
A. Residual amalgam alloy particle
B. Sn-Hg phase
C. Cu-Sn phase
D. Ag-Hg phase

# Acceptable microbial load in water lines of dental unit for immune compromised patient is:
A. 200-400 CFU/ml
B. 400-600 CFU/ml
C. <200 br="" cfu="" ml=""> D. No specific limit

# Handpiece is not sterilized by:
A. Autoclave
B. Gamma ray
C. Dry heat
D. Ethylene oxide

# Interpin distance in case of Minim pin should be:
A. 4mm
B. 2mm
C. 3mm
D. 5mm

# Ideal dentin thickness around each pin should be:
A. at least 2.5 times the diameter of the pin hole
B. at least 0.5 times the diameter of the pin hole
C. at least 1.5 times the diameter of the pin hole
D. at least 2.0 times the diameter of the pin hole

# If the rate of Loading is decreased the mechanical properties of material:
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unchanged
D. becomes unpredictable

# A patient with neuromuscular incoordination reports to your clinic. Best way to do occlusal discrepiancy correction is:
A. Take inter-occlusal record using carborondum paste
B. Take intero-occlusal record and do occlusal correction in the articulator
C. Direct method on patients mouth as taking jaw relation is difficult
D. No need to correct occlusal discrepiancy

# Which of the following conditions can cause abrasion on the mucosa of cheek and lips:
A. Cheek biting
B. Irregular occlusal anatomy on the teeth
C. Unpolished denture bases
D. Any of the above

# A 50 year old lady comes to you for denture correction for esthetic purpose. You reduced the interocclusal distance. Now denture is esthetically accepted. What problem would you expect:
A. Angular cheilitis
B. Loss of muscular tone
C. Loss of centric relation
D. Premature contact causing clicking

# You have made a centric relation record for the purpose of articulating the denture prior to equilibrium. Which of the following would suggest an accurate record:
A. cusp penetrarion in restorative material
B. contact of the denture base plastic between thr retromolar pad areas and the maxillary tuberosity areas
C. record made at a slightly increased vertical dimension of occlusion
D. inability to have the patient close perfectly into the record after it has been chilled, trimmed, and returned to mouth

# After making the denture what should be corrected first for equilibration:
A. Protrusive movement
B. Centric contacts
C. Balancing contacts
D. Lateral contacts

# Cheek bite in denture is caused by:
A. Increased occlusal vertical dimension
B. Steep corpus angle in posterior
C. Decreased pad coverage
D. Reduced horizontal overlap of posterior

# Maxillary denture anterior teeth placed so far labially which sound will be altered:
A. F
B. V
C. S
D. Ch

# Complete denture teeth are in edge to edge contact in centric occlusion. What should be done:
A. Grind the centric holding cusp
B. Grind the lingual fossa of upper and lower incisor
C. Grind the cusp in such a way that the incline of the upper cusp slides buccally and lower cusp slides lingually
D. Grind the cusp in such a way that the incline of the upper cusp slides lingually and lower cusp slides buccally

# When tracing wax compound was used it was found to have overextended distolingual flange. Patient complains of sore throat and pain especially during swallowing. This is due to contraction of:
A. Superior constrictor
B. Palatoglossal
C. Medail pterygoid muscle
D. Lateral pterygoid muscle

# Flutes in miniscrew screw helps in:
A. Primary stability
B. Secondary stability
C. For easy removal
D. For cutting into bone and remove debris

# Porcelain brackets have better esthetics as compared to stainless steel brackets, however a major disadvantage is:
A. stains over time
B. requires special debonding agents
C. removing is difficult and causes enamel cracks
D. channel microfraction while debonding

# Primary stability in microimplant is by:
A. cortical bone
B. flutes
C. length of implant
D. diameter

# Relapse following orthodontic correction of rotation of teeth is associated with:
A. Supracrestal fibre
B. Transitional fibre
C. Apical
D. Oblique

# After orthodontic debonding, adhesive is initially removed by:
A. 12 flute TC bur
B. Round green stone
C. High speed diamond bur
D. Sharp end of debonding instrument

# What amount of enamel surface undergo dissolution during etching for orthodontic brackets:
A. 3-5 micrometer
B. 10-15 micrometer
C. 20-30 micrometer
D. 30-40 micrometer

# A child aged 5 year and 4 month is referred to orthodontic for unusually small chin. Distal step molar relation, SNA normal, SNB lowered and FMA decreased. Ehat is the treatment of choice:
A. Wait and observe till 6 years
B. Headgear
C. Twin block
D. Functional regulator 2

# What piezoelectric changes will occur on orthodontic forces:
A. Electropositive will cause bone resorption and electronegative will cause bone deposition
B. Electronegative will cause bone resorption and electropositive will cause bone deposition
C. Electropositive and electronegative on resorption
D. Electropositive and electronegative on deposition

# The tooth with epithelial structure at level of the alveolar gingiva in two month old child without any radiographic evidence of roots. Treatment is:
A. surgically remove it under LA
B. let it remain as it is future tooth and root formation occurs at around 6 months
C. preserve it and reassure the parents
D. extract if mobile under GA

# An 8 year old child got trauma and got his central incisor avulsed 20 minutes back, which got contaminated with debris the child rushes to dental clinic with avulsed tooth, the treatment is:
A. Clean root surface with saline and re-implant
B. Clean and curettage the root surface and re-implant
C. Clean the root, do RCT and re-implant
D. Scrubbing of root surface and re-implant

# Ideal requirement of Pit and fissure sealant is:
A. adequate working time
B. less volatility
C. moderate water solubility and dissolution
D. thermal conductivity is higher than tooth

# Frankel behaviour rating scale score 3:
A. Definitely negative
B. Negative
C. Positive
D. Definitely positive

# In a stainless steel crown on decidious molar with overhanging margins, gingival pain and inflammation occurs due to:
A. Entrapment of plaque
B. Excesscement
C. Crown margins causing irritation
D. Engaging undercut

# A child shy in nature but is cooperative during the dental treatment is:
A. Stoic
B. Timid
C. Winning
D. Tensed

# ALveolar grafting in a patient of cleft should ideally be placed:
A. Before maxillary expansion, crossbite correction and before cuspid eruption
B. Before maxillary expansion, crossbite correction and after cuspid eruption
C. After maxillary expansion, crossbite correction and after cuspid eruption
D. After maxillary expansion, crossbite correction and before cuspid eruption

# QLF emits blue light. What is reflected from carious tooth:
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Red
D. Violet

# Diameter of adult tooth brush range from:
A. 0.007-0.015
B. 0.010-0.012
C. 0.004-0.007
D. 0.006-0.009

# Traumatic gingiva:
A. Debridement should be aggresive because anaerobes in oral flora cause necrosis
B. Debridement should be conservative because necrosis is rare
C. Debridement should be aggressive because of rich vascular supply
D. Debridement should be conservative because raw wound takes time to heal

# In a community trial, if we select every 5th house in a village, the sampling is called as:
A. Stratified random sampling
B. Cluster sampling
C. Simple random sampling
D. Systemic random sampling

# No of death occuring from oral carcinoma divided by total no of mid year population:
A. Case fatality rate
B. Proportion mortality rate
C. Crude death rate
D. Specific death rate

# Which of the following parameter is the simplest commonly used measure of variation in qualitative data:
A. SD
B. Mean
C. Median
D. Range

# Outlier:
A. 90% percentile
B. Future predilection
C. Observe point that is distant from other observations
D. Not recalled

# In normal distribution the z score in a sample having x value, the 'x' denotes:
A. best measure of central tendency
B. measure of standard deviation
C. number of standard deviations x distance deviated away from meridian
D. number of standard deviations x distance deviated away from mean

# In salivary reductase test the color change indicating slight caries activity is:
A. pink
B. red
C. orchid
D. green

# Fluoride varnish acts by all except:
A. altering tooth morphology
B.act directly on bacteria
C. restrict bacterial production of extracellular polysaccharides
D. remineralization of incipient caries

# Yellow bag used for:
A. contaminated waste which can be incinerated
B. contaminated waste which cannot be incinerated
C. sharps and needles
D. non contaminated waste which cannot be incinerated