The type of patient demanding to be educated before the complete denture fabrication:

 # The type of patient demanding to be educated before the complete denture fabrication:

A. Philosophical

B. Exacting

C. Indifferent

D. Hysterical

The correct answer is B. Exacting.

Exacting patients are precise in everything they do. They are immaculate in dress and appearance. Their

nature is to be satisfied only by perfection. They may demand that the dentist explain every step of the

treatment in detail. These patients should not be promised that they will be able to wear a prosthesis

without any inconvenience, because they will expect the dentist to live up to such promises. Potential

problems and inconveniences should be explained in detail before treatment is initiated.

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The primary function of posterior palatal seal is to:

 # The primary function of posterior palatal seal is to:

A. Retention of upper denture by making a complete seal

B. Aid in insertion and removal of the upper denture

C. Achieve balanced occlusion

D. Retention of lower denture

The correct answer is A. Retention of upper denture by making a complete seal.

The primary purpose of PPS is the retention of the maxillary denture. PPS creates a partial vacuum beneath the maxillary denture. This partial vacuum is activated only when horizontal or tipping forces are directed against the denture base. The duration of this vacuum is small and so little or no irreversible alterations to the underlying mucosa will take place.

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Face bow is used to record:

 # Face bow is used to record:

A. Orientation relation

B. Centric relation

C. Eccentric relation

D. Vertical jaw relation

The correct answer is A. Orientation relation.

The maxillary cast is attached to the articulator using the orientation jaw relation records. The procedure of transferring the orientation relation to the articulator is called face-bow transfer.

Orientation jaw relation is defined as: “the jaw relation when the mandible is kept in its most posterior position, it can rotate in the sagittal plane around an imaginary transverse axis passing through or near the condyles”—GPT.

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Fixed factor according to Hanau is:

 # Fixed factor according to Hanau is:

A. Orientation of occlusal plane

B. Condylar guidance

C. Incisal guidance

D. Compensating curve

The correct answer is B. Condylar guidance.

Increase in the condylar guidance will increase the jaw separation during protrusion. This factor

of balanced occlusion cannot be modified. All the other four factors of occlusion should be modified to compensate the effects of this factor. In patients with a steep condylar guidance, the incisal guidance should be decreased to reduce the amount of jaw separation produced during protrusion and vice versa. But it should be remembered that the incisal guidance cannot be made very steep because it has its own ill effects.

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A complete or partial removable denture supported by retained roots is known as:

 # A complete or partial removable denture supported by retained roots is known as:

A. Conventional immediate denture

B. Transitional immediate denture

C. Cast partial denture

D. Over dentures

The correct answer is D. Overdenture.

Overdentures are defined as, 'a dental prosthesis that replaces the lost or missing natural dentition and associated structures of the maxilla and/or mandible and receives partial support and stability from one or more modified natural teeth'. 

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An anterior tooth bounded edentulous area which crosses the midline:

 # An anterior tooth bounded edentulous area which crosses the midline:

A. Class I

B. Class III

C. Class IV

D. Class IX

The correct answer is C. Class IV.

Class IV Kennedy classification is a single but bilateral (crossing the midline) edentulous area located anterior to the remaining natural teeth.

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Which of these muscles may affect the borders of mandibular complete denture?

 # Which of these muscles may affect the borders of mandibular complete denture?

A. Mentalis

B. Lateral pterygoid

C. Orbicularis oris

D. Levator angularis

The correct answer is A. Mentalis.

The labial vestibule extends from the labial frenum to the buccal frenum. The mucolabial fold extends from the inner aspect of the lip to the mandible. The mentalis muscle inserts very close to the crest of the ridge in this area and limits the border extension in length and width.

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The minimal occlusal thickness of amalgam restoration for appropriate resistance to fracture is:

# The minimal occlusal thickness of amalgam restoration for appropriate resistance to fracture is:

A. 0.5 mm

B. 0.8 mm

C. 1.5 mm

D. 2.5 mm

The correct answer is C. 1.5 mm.

The relatively horizontal pulpal and gingival walls, prepared perpendicular to the tooth’s long axis, help the restoration resist occlusal forces and limit the likelihood of tooth fracture from wedging effects caused by opposing cusps. It may be necessary to reduce cusps that no longer have sufficient dentin support and cover (or envelope) them with an adequate thickness of restorative material in order to provide resistance to fracture of the tooth and/or the restorative material. Preparation design must allow for adequate thickness of polycrystalline restorative materials to ensure adequate primary resistance to restoration fracture. he minimal occlusal thickness, for appropriate resistance to fracture, of amalgam is 1.5 to 2 mm and glass-ceramic is 2 mm. Polymeric restorative materials (e.g., composite resins) have no minimal thickness.

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Primer is a:

 # Primer is a:

A. Acid etching agent

B. Adhesion promoting agent

C. Coupling agent

D. Bonding agent

The correct answer is B. Adhesion promoting agent.

PRIMERS are hydrophilic monomers, which are applied over the etched/conditioned surfaces for the easy flow of bonding agents. Eg. 2-HEMA and HEMA dissolved in acetone or alcohol.

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Localized defects of the teeth can be treated by using:

 # Localized defects of the teeth can be treated by using:

A. Full veneers

B. Microveneers

C. Partial veneers

D. Macroveneers

The correct answer is C. Partial veneers.

A veneer is a layer of tooth-colored material that is applied to a tooth to restore localized or generalized defects and intrinsic discolorations. Typically, veneers are made of directly applied composite, processed composite, porcelain, or pressed ceramic materials. Common indications for veneers include teeth with facial surfaces that are malformed, discolored, abraded, or eroded or have faulty restorations.

Two types of esthetic veneers exist: (1) partial veneers and (2)full veneers. Partial veneers are indicated for the restoration of localized defects or areas of intrinsic discoloration. Full veneers are indicated for the restoration of generalized defects or areas of intrinsic staining involving most of the facial surface of the tooth. 

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Pulp is necrotized in which of the following?

 # Pulp is necrotized in which of the following?

A. Acute or chronic periapical abscess

B. Acute irreversible pulpitis

C. Hyperemia of pulp

D. Pulp polyp

The correct answer is A. Acute or Chronic periapical abscess.

A diagnosis may be confirmed by means of the electric pulp test and by thermal tests. The affected pulp is necrotic and does not respond to electric current or to application of cold. The tooth may be tender to percussion, or the patient may state that it hurts to chew with the tooth, the apical mucosa is tender to palpation, and the tooth may be mobile and extruded.

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Dental Surgeon - Nepal Police Exam Lok Sewa Aayog 2078 Exam Questions

 

1. Cavosurface margin angulation in chamfer finish line is:

A. Always 90 degree

B. 90 degree or less than 90 degree

C. 90 degree or more than 90 degree

D. 120 degree

2. The midline fracture of the maxillary denture are mainly due to:

A. Teeth set too buccally

B. No midline relief

C. Ridge resorption

D. All of the above

3. Indirect retainers of partial denture:

A. Engages undercut areas

B. Most effective when close to direct retainer

C. Must be constructed with flexible materials like plastics

D. Should resist rotator forces about fulcrum

4. The advantage of metal base denture is:

A. Increase in tissue tolerance

B. Easy laboratory procedure

C. Rebasing and relining are quite easy

D. Increase in restorative cost

5. Bilateral balanced occlusion concept is given by:

A. Von Spee and Manson

B. GV Black

C. D Van

D. Sturdevant

6. With the increase of age, keratinization of gingiva:

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remains same

D. None of the above

7. The possible advantage of dental laser for soft tissue surgery include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Hemostasis

B. Improved patient management

C. Faster healing

D. Reduced pain

8. After curettage, re-epithelialization occurs in:

A. 1-2 days

B. 2-3 days

C. 2-7 days

D. Two weeks

9. With age, elastic fibre content of periodontal ligament:

A. Decreases

B. Increases

C. Remains same

D. Varies

10. Gracey curette number 17/18 is used for:

A. Mesial surfaces of anterior teeth

B. Distal surfaces of anterior teeth

C. Mesial surfaces of posterior teeth

D. Distal surfaces of posterior teeth

11. Which periodontal fibers are consistent and are reconstructed even after the destruction of alveolar bone?

A. Apical 

B. Alveolar crest group

C. Oblique

D. Transseptal

12. Refractive periodontitis is aggravated by:

A. Areca nut chewing

B. Smoking

C. Menstruation

D. Hormone PG and oestrogen

13. Healing of periodontal lesions may be retarded by following EXCEPT:

A. Protein deficiency

B. Vitamin C deficiency

C. Administration of Steroid

D. Presence of deep periodontal pocket

14. Pregnancy gingivitis is caused by:

A. Bacteroids melaninogenicus

B. Actinobacillus actinomycetamcomitans

C. Streptococcus sanguis

D. Fusobacterium

15. The stiffness of the bristles of nylon toothbrush depends on:

A. Color of filament

B. Amount of filament

C. Diameter and length of filament

D. Shape of filament

16. The mean daily eruption velocity of tooth is _______ micrometer/day.

A. 51

B. 71

C. 61

D. 81

17. Evidence from which study designs would most support the use of fluoridation in water supply is:

A. Cohort study

B. Cross sectional study

C. Randomized controlled trial

D. Systematic review

18. Pulp horn that is most likely to be exposed during cavity preparation on deciduous molars is:

A. Mesiobuccal of first molar

B. Distobuccal of first molar

C. Mesiobuccal of second molar

D. Distobuccal of second molar

19. Atraumatic restorative treatment (ART) was introduced first in:

A. USA

B. Tanzania

C. China

D. New Zealand

20. The periodontal disease index was given by:

A. Russel 

B. Ramfjord

C. Silness and Loe

D. Dean

21. The Knutson’s technique of fluoride application is done in the years:

A. 3,7,11,13

B. 2,6,10,16

C. 8,13,18,31

D. 2,7,11,18

22. Incidence can be best studied by:

A. Cross sectional study

B. Longitudinal study

C. Cohort study

D. Case control study

23. In case of rampant caries, the ideal procedure to perform in the first visit is to:

A. Diet control instructions

B. Topical fluoride application

C. Gross excavation and restoration of teeth

D. Oral hygiene instructions

24. Interceptive orthodontics does not include:

A. Space maintainer

B. Oral hygiene measure

C. Frenectomy

D. Serial extraction

25. Crow and loop space maintainer is a procedure in:

A. Interceptive orthodontics

B. Preventive orthodontics

C. Corrective orthodontics

D. Orthodontic camouflage

26. Pain due to gallstone can be perceived in all areas except:

A. Right shoulder

B. Right hypochondrium

C. Right iliac fossa

D. Epigastrium

27. Long term assessment of glucose control can be made by estimation of:

A. Postprandial blood sugar

B. Fasting sugar

C. Urine sugar level

D. Blood level of glycosylated hemoglobin

28. A diabetic patient in the waiting room develops giddiness, sweating and confusion, he is suffering from:

A. Hypertension

B. Ketoacidosis

C. Hypoglycemia

D. Hyperglycemia

29. Which of the following is the first sign that appears in hemorrhagic shock?

A. Hypotension

B. Tachycardia

C. Vasoconstriction

D. Syncope

30. Which one of the following is not a feature of congestive cardiac failure? 

A. Breathlessness

B. Bradycardia

C. Ankle oedema

D. Raised jugular venous pressure

31. Therapy of choice for diffuse toxic goiter in a patient over 45 years is:

A. Surgery

B. Antithyroid drugs

C. Radioiodine

D. Antithyroid drugs first, followed by surgery

32. Carcinoma due to chronic irritation is:

A. Kangri cancer

B. Countryman’s injury

C. Chimney-sweepers cancer

D. All of the above

33. Which of the following inhalational anesthetic has analgesic property?

A. Nitrous oxide

B. Halothane

C. Enflurane

D. Sevoflurane

34. In trauma or surgery which of the following fluids should be avoided?

A. 5% Dextrose

B. Isotonic saline

C. Ringer lactate

D. Blood

35. Frey’s syndrome occurs:

A. Sialectasis

B. After parotidectomy

C. Warthin’s tumor

D. In pleomorphic adenoma

36. Radiographs of a 40 year old  female revealed radiolucent areas around several of her mandibular teeth, all of which tested vital on the electric pulp tester. These areas represent:

A. Multiple granulomas

B. Periapical osteo-fibrosis

C. Chronic periapical abscesses

D. Bone hypoplasias associated with opalescent teeth

37. Cancer which most commonly metastasizes to jaw bone is:

A. Breast

B. Prostatic

C. Lung

D. Kidney

38. Dentigerous cyst is likely to cause:

A. Ameloblastoma

B. Fibrosarcoma

C. Adenocarcinoma

D. All of the above

39. Which of the following condition shows marked reduction in the amount of dentin, widening of predentin layer, presence of large areas of interglobular dentin and irregular pattern of dentin?

A. Hypocalcified dentin

B. Regional odontodysplasia

C. Dentin dysplasia

D. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

40. Reduction of flow of saliva is not generally seen in:

A. Elderly diabetes

B. Patient undergoing radiation

C. Patient suffering from parkinsonism

D. Patient of Phenothiazine drugs

41. For a patient diagnosed with T2N2M2 oral cancer, treatment is:

A. Surgery

B. Surgery + Radiotherapy

C. Surgery + Chemotherapy

D. Chemotherapy

42. In a leukemic patient, bleeding does not stop because:

A. Decreased platelet count 

B. Increased WBC count

C. Decreased calcium level

D. Decrease in coagulation level

43. An asymptomatic tooth has deep caries on occlusal surface. Radiograph shows radiopaque mass at apex of the tooth. This  mass is most likely to be:

A. Cementoma

B. Condensing osteitis

C. Chronic apical periodontitis

D. Acute apical periodontitis

44. Bleeding joints is a characteristic feature of:

A. Vitamin C deficiency

B. Vitamin K deficiency

C. Hemophilia

D. Thrombocytopenia

45. In which of the following oral lesions are saw tooth rete pegs seen?

A. Lichen planus

B. Lichenoid reaction

C. Leukoplakia

D. Leukoedema

46. Extraction of tooth during acute infection:

A. Can cause extensive spread of infection

B. Helps drainage and relieves pain if proper antibiotic is given and its adequate blood level is reached

C. Can cause sudden death due to pulmonary embolism

D. Can lead to trigeminal neuralgia in postoperative period

47. Flap with no vertical incision is called:

A. Triangular

B. Semilunar

C. Envelope

D. Trapezoidal

48. The principal action of ammonia in syncope is:

A. Respiratory stimulant

B. Vagal stimulant

C. Vasomotor stimulant

D. Inhibitor of vasomotor tone

49. Which of the following procedures can be used to treat oro-antral fistula resulting from posterior surgery?

A. Buccal mucoperiosteal flap

B. Palatal mucoperiosteal flap

C. Bridge flap

D. Palatal island flap

50. Biopsy specimen taken for examination should be immediately placed in:

A. 10% ethanol

B. Rectified spirit

C. 10% formalin

D. Hypo

51. Preanesthetic medication is commonly used with the following goals EXCEPT:

A. Decreasing nervous irritability

B. Decrease secretions

C. Providing analgesia

D. Desensitizing respiratory center to CO2

52. Local anesthetic with adrenaline is absolutely contraindicated in:

A. First trimester of pregnancy

B. Hyperthyroidism

C. Hemophilia

D. Hypertension

53. When blocking the nerve containing both motor and sensory fibres, the last functional property lost is:

A. Temperature

B. Pain

C. Proprioception

D. Touch

54. The percentage of xylocaine used in dentistry is:

A. 5%

B. 10% 

C. 2%

D. 0.1%

55. The most common anesthetic complication occurring within the first 24 hours after surgery under general anesthesia is:

A. Hypertension

B. Renal failure

C. Cardiac arrest

D. Atelectasis 

56. The extraction of retained roots of premolars is complicated by the use of:

A. Metformin

B. Propranolol

C. Zolendronate

D. Azathioprine

57. Gardner syndrome does not include:

A. Osteomas

B. Epidermoid cysts

C. Impacted permanent teeth

D. Osteosarcoma

58. Tetracycline stains appear as:

A. Yellow and brown stains in enamel and dentine

B. Yellow and brown stains only in enamel

C. Yellow and brown stains only in dentine

D. Only yellow stain in enamel

59. The most common intraoral pigmented lesion is:

A. Melanoma

B. Blue nevus

C. Amalgam tattoo

D. Junctional nevus

60. Xylitol is the low calories sweetener, also inhibits the growth of:

A. S. mutans

B. S. pyogens

C. S. viridans

D. Lactobacillus

61. The darkening of radiograph X ray depends on all EXCEPT:

A. Thickness of object

B. Quality and quantity of X ray

C. Angulation cone

D. Velocity of electron emitted from cathode

62. Which of the following is not a content of pterygomandibular space?

A. Long buccal nerve

B. Nerve to medial pterygoid

C. Nerve to mylohyoid

D. Lingual nerve

63. Osteoradionecrosis results from:

A. Infection, trauma, radiation

B. Trauma, radiation, infection

C. Radiation, trauma, infection

D. None of the above

64. A thin radiopaque line running around the curvature of root in IOPA is:

A. Lamina dura

B. Lamina propria

C. Lamina limitans

D. Lamina densa

65. LA does not act in the presence of inflammation because the LA solution molecules are __________ charged.

A. Positively 

B. Negatively

C. None 

D. Both A and B

66. At birth, the palate is relatively flat: in adults, it is vault shaped. By which of the following does this change occur?

A. Bone resorption in palatal vault

B. Growth of maxillary sinus

C. Deposition of alveolar crestal bone

D. Bone deposition on  the posterior wall of the maxillary tuberosity

67. Dontrix gauge is used for:

A. Measurement of wire strength

B. Measurement of force

C. Measurement of wire distortion

D. Measurement of wire deformation

68. By the age of 9 to 10 year, which organ shows 200% growth of an adult?

A. Lymphoid

B. Genital

C. Neural

D. None of the above

69. In cephalometric analysis of children with malocclusion, the angle ANB is frequently used in patients with severe class II malocclusions. This angle is:

A. Large

B. Small

C. Normal

D. Negative

70. Most commonly anterior cross-bite in mixed dentition is due to:

A. Jaw discrepancy

B. Thumb sucking

C. Prolonged retention of deciduous teeth

D. Mouth breathing

71. During orthodontic movement of maxillary central incisor, center of rotation is present at apex, it shows:

A. Controlled tipping

B. Uncontrolled tipping

C. Translation

D. Intrusion

72. The rectangular wire used to edgewise appliance is primarily meant for:

A. Increasing the strength of wire

B. Correction of arch length deficiency

C. Correction of crown –root position

D. Used for correction of anterior crowding

73. During which orthodontic tooth movement, center of rotation is at the bracket slot?

A. Rotation

B. Torqueing

C. Tipping

D. Translation

74. Catlan’s appliance is used for the correction of:

A. Deep bite

B. Anterior crossbite

C. Thumb sucking

D. Lip biting

75. In a 10 year old child the lower canines are trying to erupt in 2 mm insufficient space. The primary molars are large and firmly fixed. The first premolars are also erupting. The treatment of choice is:

A. Remove primary second molars

B. Place removable bite opener

C. Remove first premolars

D. Mesial Stripping of primary second molars

76. GIC is done for primary teeth mainly because of:

A. Its color

B. Adhesion

C. Fluoride release

D. All of the above

77. What does enamel bonding agent consist of?

A. Unfilled resin

B. Filled resin

C. Prime and bond mixture

D. A mixture of resins, acetone and ethanol

78. For porcelain fused to metal crown, the porcelain should have:

A. High fusion expansion

B. High fusion temperature

C. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion more than that of metal

D. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than that of metal

79. Efficiency of carbide bur increases by:

A. Negative or zero rake angle

B. At high speed

C. 90 degree edge angle

D. All of the above

80. The maximum thickness of composite which can be cured by a curing light is:

A. 0.5 mm

B. 1 mm

C. 2 mm

D. 4 mm

81. Addition of large amount of platinum to a casting gold alloy will:

A. Decrease its strength and ability to be hardened

B. Decrease its tarnish resistance

C. Increase its fusion temperature

D. Redden the alloy

82. Disadvantage of ceramic veneer is:

A. Discoloration

B. Lower strength

C. Absorption of oral fluids

D. Technique sensitive

83. Rubber base impressions are poured immediately as they:

A. Continue to polymerize

B. Become elastic

C. Show imbibition and syneresis

D. Show gelation

84. The restoration which shows percolation and shrinkage along the margin is:

A. Composites

B. Unfilled resins

C. Amalgam

D. Polycarboxylate

85. Setting time of MTA-portland cement is:

A. 2 hour

B. 30 minute

C. 2 hour 45 minute

D. 12 hour

86. What is patency filing?

A. A small file is pushed  through the apex to keep it clear of debris

B. A small file is used circumferentially on canal walls to prevent lateral canals getting blocked

C. A small file is used to open the coronal part of the canal

D. A small file is used to remove pulp content

87. Sterilization of handpiece will cause:

A. Rust of handpiece

B. Turbine wear

C. Fiber loss

D. Loss torque

88. The ultrasonic cleaning is found to be ______ times effective than hand cleaning of instruments.

A. 2

B. 9

C. 20

D. 100

89. The most important criteria in using irrigating solution is:

A. Volume of irrigant

B. Thickness of syringe used

C. Concentration of irrigant

D. Speed of irrigation

90. Improved marginal adaptation in composite restoration can be achieved by:

A. Moisture free environment

B. Application of pressure

C. Acid etching

D. Continued packing

91. White spot on tooth is best treated by:

A. Microabrasion

B. Bleaching

C. Veneer

D. Crown

92. The desired termination point of apical root canal preparation when performing endodontic treatment on a vital tooth is:

A. 0.5 mm to 1 mm short of the radiographic apex

B. 3 mm short of the radiographic apex

C. Slightly through the apical foramen

D. To the point where the patient feels sensation

93. Vital bleaching causes:

A. Internal resorption

B. Cervical resorption

C. External resorption

D. Periapical periodontitis

94. After treatment of periapical lesion, bone filling can be noticed in X ray after _______ months.

A. 8 to 12 months

B. 2 to 6 months

C. 1 to 2 months

D. 24 months

95. Firm contact between approximating teeth is important because:

A. Locate the marginal ridges of each tooth

B. Keeps the teeth from having any movement during function

C. Insures proper cusp form and increases masticatory efficiency

D. Stabilizes the dental arches and gives protection to the gingival papillae

96. Full mouth survey of radiographs for edentulous patient is done for:

A. Residual roots

B. Supernumerary tooth

C. Periapical lesion

D. Cyst and tumor

97. The correctly placed posterior palatal seal creates:

A. Vacuum in posterior part of the palate

B. Vacuum beneath the maxillary denture

C. A close adaptation of maxillary denture at tuberosity

D. Partial vacuum beneath the maxillary denture

98. Which of the following is less retentive as compared to others?

A. All cast metal crown

B. All ceramic crown

C. Inlay and Onlay

D. Partial veneer crown

99. Emergency retentive force for the maxillary complete denture is:

A. Deep palate

B. Soft palate

C. PPS

D. Base of tongue

100. The gingival finish line on a tipped molar should be:

A. Shoulder

B. Chamfer

C. Knife-edge

D. Feather-edge

MCQs on Growth and Development - Pediatric Dentistry MCQs- Pedodontics MCQs

# Infancy and childhood are dynamic periods of:
A. Dentition
B. Growth and development
C. Head and face
D. Habits

# Developmental milestone provide a framework for observing and monitoring:
A. Child
B. Elderly persons
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

# What plays a role in development of children?
A. Parent and sibling personalities
B. Family socioeconomic status
C. Caregivers nurturing methods
D. None of the above

# Reflexes enables the infant to make purposeful:
A. Movements
B. Support
C. Development
D. None of the above

# Equilibrium in infants begin for walking by:
A. 6 months
B. 2 months
C. 4 months
D. 12 months

# Additional equilibrium responses develop during:

A. 2nd year
B. 4th year
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

# In infants movement of hands and feet is dominated by:

A. Primitive grasp reflex
B. Firm grasp
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

# Palmar grasp develops in which age:
A. 7 months
B. 2 months
C. 4 months
D. None of the above

# Pincer grasp develops in which age:
A. 4 months
B. 5 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months

# Bidextrous grasp develops in which age:
A. 8 months
B. 5 months
C. 12 months
D. None of the above

# Radial digital grasp develops in:
A. 9 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. None of the above

# Scissors grasp develops in:
A. 10 months
B. 8 months
C. 12 months
D. None of the above

# Voluntary release in infants develops at:

A. 5 months
B. 15 months
C. 6 months
D. 7 months

# Skills develop in which direction:
A. Cephalic to caudal
B. Caudal to cephalic
C. Caudal
D. None of the above

# Skills progress from which end:
A. Proximal to distal
B. Proximal to anterior
C. Anterior to posterior
D. None of the above

# Genetic theory of growth was given by:
A. Brodie
B. Scott
C. Sicher
D. None of the above

# Sutural dominance theory was given by:
A. Scott
B. Sicher
C. Moss
D. None of the above

# Cybernetics theory was given by:
A. Petrovic
B. Brodie
C. Moss
D. None of the above

# Stewart gave theory of growth in:
A. 1986
B. 1982
C. 1988
D. 1931

# Scott hypothesis of growth determines growth of:
A. Cartilage
B. Bone
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

# Sutural dominance theory is also known as:
A. Moss hypothesis
B. Sichers hypothesis
C. Cartilaginous theory
D. All of the above

# In sutural dominance theory if sutures are compressed then growth:
A. Impedes
B. No effect
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

#van Limborg's concept of growth was given in:
A. 1970
B. 1988
C. 1999
D. None of the above

# Cybernetics is science dealing with study of complex computers of human:
A. Nervous system
B. Digestive system
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

# Genetic theory by Brodie states that genes control all functions of:
A. Growth and development
B. Growth but not development
C. Neither growth nor development
D. None of the above

# Greatest amount of cranial growth occurs by:
A. Birth to five years
B. 5–6 years
C. 6–7 years
D. 7–9 years

# At birth which of the following structures is nearest the size it will eventually attain in adulthood ?
A. Cranium
B. Mandible
C. Middle face
D. Nasal capsule

# Epigenetic factors controlling the growth of skeleton are:
A. Genetic factors present within skeleton
B. Genetic factors present outside skeleton
C. Local genetic factors
D. General non-genetic factors

# Meckels cartilage give rise to:
A. Condylar process
B. Coronoid process
C. Rest of ramus
D. None of the above

# Which of the following shows 200% growth the adult size from 9 to 10 years?
A. Neural
B. General
C. Lymphoid
D. Muscle

# If a child’s teeth do not form, this will affect the growth of:
A. Maxilla
B. Mandible
C. Whole face
D. Alveolar bone

# After the age of six the increase in the size of the mandible occurs at:
A. Symphysis
B. Between canines
C. Along the lower border
D. Distal to 1st molar

# Growth of maxilla in the vertical direction is due to:
A. Growth of alveolus
B. Growth of sutures
C. Growth of cranial base
D. Growth of synchondrosis

# Growth of cranium continues up to:
A. 2 years
B. 10 years
C. 15 years
D. Grows equally

# Earlier closure of a suture is called:
A. Synchondrosis
B. Synostosis
C. Ankylosis
D. Epiphysis

# The functional matrix concept as revised by Moss does not include:
A. Connected cellular network
B. Mechano transduction
C. Epigenetic epithesis
D. None of the above

# Enlow’s 'V' concept of growth is found in:
A. Cranial base
B. Maxilla only
C. Maxilla and mandible
D. None of the above

# Oral and nasal capsule of functional growth related to:
A. Periosteal matrix
B. Sutural matrix
C. Capsular matrix
D. None of the above

# In Sicher’s theory, suture acts as:
A. Has independent growth potential
B. Dependent on cranial base
C. Used for growth adjustment
D. None of the above

# Mechanism of bone growth is by:
A. Bone deposition and resorption
B. Cortical drift
C. Displacement
D. All of the above

# Functional matrix theory suggests that the determinant growth of skeletal tissue resides in:
A. Skeletal
B. Sutures
C. Cartilages
D. Non-skeletal tissues

# Growth sites in maxilla are:
A. Maxillary tuberosity
B. Sutures
C. Nasal septum
D. All of the above

# Mandible develops from:
A. Meckel's cartilage
B. Ramus
C. None of the above
D. Both of the above

# Maxilla develops by:
A. Endochondral bone formation
B. Intramembranous bone formation
C. Cartilage replacement and intramembranous bone formation
D. Mostly cartilage replacement and a little by intramembranous

# Which secondary cartilage help in development of maxilla?
A. Malar cartilage
B. Meckel's cartilage
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

# Meckel's cartilage gives rise to:
A. Condylar process
B. Coronoid process
C. Rest of ramus
D. None of the above

# Growth of oral structures is mainly influenced by factors:
A. Hereditary
B. Environmental
C. Hereditary influenced by environmental
D. None of the above

# Postnatal development of mandible is based on:
A. Enlow’s principle
B. V principle
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

# Postnatal growth of maxilla is by:
A. Primary displacement
B. Primary and secondary displacement
C. Secondary displacement
D. None of the above

# Spermatid transforms into sperm by process by:
A. Spermatogenesis
B. Spermiogenesis
C. Oogenesis
D. None of the above

# The stage happens three days after fertilization when embryo is about to enter uterus , zygote at this stage is called:
A. Morula
B. Oogonia
C. None of the above
D. Both of the above

# Development of primitive streak forms:
A. Mesoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Ectoderm
D. None of the above

# Bilateral localized thickenings appear over ectoderm overlying frontonasal process called:
A. Nasal placodes
B. Lens placodes
C. None of the above
D. Both of the above

# Lateral part of upper lip is formed by:
A. Mandibular process
B. Maxillary process
C. Frontonasal process
D. None of the above

# Median part of upper lip is formed by:
A. Maxillary process
B. Frontonasal process
C. Mandibular process
D. None of the above

# Stomatodeum is the future:
A. Lip
B. Mouth
C. Teeth
D. None of the above

# Tuberculum impar contribute to formation of:
A. Palate
B. Tongue
C. Lips
D. None of the above

# Medial nasal process and frontonasal process gives rise to:
A. Primary palate
B. Secondary palate
C. None of the above
D. Both of the above

# Growth varies with seasons , it is faster in:
A. Springs
B. Winter
C. Autumn
D. All of the above

# Cephalocaudal gradient of growth extends from:
A. From feet to head
B. From head to feet
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

# Most reliable method of skeletal age assessment is:
A. Hand wrist radiograph
B. Bitewing radiograph
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

# The timing of growth spurts for boys in mixed dentition:
A. 7 to 9 years
B. 8 to 11 years
C. 9 to 12 years
D. None of the above

# The timing of growth spurts for girls in mixed dentition:
A. 7 to 9 years
B. 8 to 11 years
C.9 to 12 years
D. None of the above

# Adolescent growth spurts for boys:
A. 11 to 13 years
B. 14 to 16 years
C. 10 to 12 years
D. None of the above

# Adolescent growth spurts for girls:
A. 11 to 13 years
B. 14 to 16 years
C. 10 to 12 years
D. None of the above

# The term growth trends is given by:
A. Scammon
B. Tweed
C. Sheldon
D. Bjork

# Scammon’s growth curve. False is:
A. Neural tissues --- most of the growth is completed by 6 years
B. Lymphoid tissues --- growth reaches 200% by age 13 and regresses afterwards
C. Genital tissues --- most of growth is completed by age of puberty
D. None of the above

# The normal value of ANB angle is:
A. 4°
B. 2°
C. 6°
D. None

# The technique for diagnosis and treatment planning for growth and development:
A. VTO
B. VTA
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

# If ANB angle is less than 2° this indicates:
A. Class 2 malocclusion
B. Class 3 malocclusion
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

# The growth of neural tissues is nearly complete by:
A. 12–14 years of age
B. 9–12 years of age
C. 6–7 years of age
D. 2–3 years of age

# The type of tissue which proliferate far beyond the adult amount in childhood, and then undergo involution is:
A. Lymphoid tissue
B. Neural tissue
C. General tissue
D. Genital tissue

# The type of tissue that shows a s-shaped growth curve is:
A. Lymphoid tissue
B. Neural tissue
C. General tissue
D. All of the above

# The head occupies:
A. Almost 50% of the total body length at 3rd month of intrauterine life
B. Almost 30% of the total body length at birth
C. Almost 12 % of the total body length of the adult
D. All of the above

# Vital staining done to study the skeletal growth was introduced by:
A. Ten Cate
B. Scammon
C. Belchier
D. John Hunter

# Stain used for vital staining of skeletal tissue is:

A. Eosin
B. Hematoxylin
C. Alizarin
D. All of the above

# Hyperplasia of cell refers to increase in the:
A. Size
B. Number
C. Function
D. All of the above

# Stages of tooth development can be calculated by:
A. Nolla’s method
B. Demirgian method
C. Ericsson’s method
D. Both (a) and (b)

# At birth, which of the following structures is nearest the size it will eventually attain in adulthood:
A. Cranium
B. Mandible
C. Clavicle
D. Middle face

# The inter-incisal angle in primary dentition is around:
A. 120°
B. 90°
C. 150°
D. 180°

# How is the growth curves of lymphoid tissue and genital tissue related to each other?
A. Both curves follow almost a similar path
B. Lymph tissues stop growing when genital tissues begin growing
C. Lymph tissues regress as genital tissues develop
D. Growth curves of both the tissues are not related to each other

# In mandible the main growth site is in the:
A. Gonial angle
B. Inferior alveolar nerve canal
C. Condylar cartilage
D. Posterior border of ramus

# Deficiency of which of the following causes neural tube defects like anencephaly and spina bifida:
A. Iron
B. Folic acid
C. Zinc
D. Calcium

# With a flush terminal plane, permanent first molars will:

A. Initially be class II
B. Initially be class III
C. Immediately assume a normal relationship
D. Erupt immediately into an end to end relationship

# Relative to primary mandibular incisors, permanent mandibular incisors erupt:
A. Lingually
B. Facially
C. Distally
D. Mesially

# Six keys to normal occlusion were given by:
A. Andrew
B. Angle
C. Tweed
D. Steiner

# Supervision of a child’s development of occlusion is most critical at ages:
A. 3–6 years
B. 7–10 years
C. 11–14 years
D. 14–17 years

# The chronological age of the child is calculated by:
A. The maturity of emotions of the child
B. The maturity of bones of the hand and wrist
C. The number of teeth erupted in the oral cavity
D. The birth date

# The chronological age of a child is:
A. Closely related to the dental age
B. Closely related to the skeletal age
C. Closely related to the emotional age
D. Independent of the dental and skeletal ages

# Sucking reflex develops at:
A. 4th week of intra-uterine life
B. 17th–20th week of intra-uterine life
C. At birth
D. 4th week after birth

# Moro’s reflex usually disappears by:
A. 2–3 months
B. 6–12 months
C. 3–4 years
D. Remains life long

# Parachute reflex appears at about:
A. 2–3 months
B. 6–9 months
C. 1–2 years
D. At birth

# The most rapid period of growth is:
A. Puberty
B. 6–8 years
C. 2–3 years
D. 1st year of life

# Maxilla is primarily formed by:
A. Intramembranous bone formation
B. From cartilage
C. Endochondral bone formation
D. Equally by intramembranous and endochondral bone

# If a child’s teeth do not form, this would primarily effect the growth of:
A. Maxilla
B. Alveolar bone
C. Whole face
D. Mandible

# By what age does the Moro reflex disappear?
A. 2–3 months
B. 1 year
C. 24 months
D. 15–18 months

# The approximate age at which the child begins to walk is at:
A. 0–2 months
B. 3–6 months
C. 7–8 months
D. 9–12 months

# By what age does grasp and startle reflex disappear?
A. 12 months
B. 18 months
C. 24 months
D. 36 months

# The most rapid growth in humans occur during:
A. Pre-natal period
B. 6–12 months after birth
C. 3–5 years of life
D. Beginning of teenage years

# Negative growth is a characteristic of:
A. Testis
B. Brain
C. Mandible
D. Thymus

# The implant method of studying growth was proposed by:
A. Scammon
B. Moss
C. Belchier
D. Bjork

# The body tissue that grows rapidly but shows minimal growth after the age of 6–7 years is:
A. Neural tissue
B. Lymphoid tissue
C. Skeletal tissue
D. Genital tissue

# The movement of bone in response to its own growth is termed as:
A. Rotation
B. Secondary displacement
C. Primary displacement
D. Replacement shift

# Relapses occur most frequently following treatment of:
A. Extrusion
B. Intrusion
C. Rotation
D. Tipping