Dental Surgeon - Nepal Police Exam Lok Sewa Aayog 2078 Exam Questions

 

1. Cavosurface margin angulation in chamfer finish line is:

A. Always 90 degree

B. 90 degree or less than 90 degree

C. 90 degree or more than 90 degree

D. 120 degree

2. The midline fracture of the maxillary denture are mainly due to:

A. Teeth set too buccally

B. No midline relief

C. Ridge resorption

D. All of the above

3. Indirect retainers of partial denture:

A. Engages undercut areas

B. Most effective when close to direct retainer

C. Must be constructed with flexible materials like plastics

D. Should resist rotator forces about fulcrum

4. The advantage of metal base denture is:

A. Increase in tissue tolerance

B. Easy laboratory procedure

C. Rebasing and relining are quite easy

D. Increase in restorative cost

5. Bilateral balanced occlusion concept is given by:

A. Von Spee and Manson

B. GV Black

C. D Van

D. Sturdevant

6. With the increase of age, keratinization of gingiva:

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remains same

D. None of the above

7. The possible advantage of dental laser for soft tissue surgery include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Hemostasis

B. Improved patient management

C. Faster healing

D. Reduced pain

8. After curettage, re-epithelialization occurs in:

A. 1-2 days

B. 2-3 days

C. 2-7 days

D. Two weeks

9. With age, elastic fibre content of periodontal ligament:

A. Decreases

B. Increases

C. Remains same

D. Varies

10. Gracey curette number 17/18 is used for:

A. Mesial surfaces of anterior teeth

B. Distal surfaces of anterior teeth

C. Mesial surfaces of posterior teeth

D. Distal surfaces of posterior teeth

11. Which periodontal fibers are consistent and are reconstructed even after the destruction of alveolar bone?

A. Apical 

B. Alveolar crest group

C. Oblique

D. Transseptal

12. Refractive periodontitis is aggravated by:

A. Areca nut chewing

B. Smoking

C. Menstruation

D. Hormone PG and oestrogen

13. Healing of periodontal lesions may be retarded by following EXCEPT:

A. Protein deficiency

B. Vitamin C deficiency

C. Administration of Steroid

D. Presence of deep periodontal pocket

14. Pregnancy gingivitis is caused by:

A. Bacteroids melaninogenicus

B. Actinobacillus actinomycetamcomitans

C. Streptococcus sanguis

D. Fusobacterium

15. The stiffness of the bristles of nylon toothbrush depends on:

A. Color of filament

B. Amount of filament

C. Diameter and length of filament

D. Shape of filament

16. The mean daily eruption velocity of tooth is _______ micrometer/day.

A. 51

B. 71

C. 61

D. 81

17. Evidence from which study designs would most support the use of fluoridation in water supply is:

A. Cohort study

B. Cross sectional study

C. Randomized controlled trial

D. Systematic review

18. Pulp horn that is most likely to be exposed during cavity preparation on deciduous molars is:

A. Mesiobuccal of first molar

B. Distobuccal of first molar

C. Mesiobuccal of second molar

D. Distobuccal of second molar

19. Atraumatic restorative treatment (ART) was introduced first in:

A. USA

B. Tanzania

C. China

D. New Zealand

20. The periodontal disease index was given by:

A. Russel 

B. Ramfjord

C. Silness and Loe

D. Dean

21. The Knutson’s technique of fluoride application is done in the years:

A. 3,7,11,13

B. 2,6,10,16

C. 8,13,18,31

D. 2,7,11,18

22. Incidence can be best studied by:

A. Cross sectional study

B. Longitudinal study

C. Cohort study

D. Case control study

23. In case of rampant caries, the ideal procedure to perform in the first visit is to:

A. Diet control instructions

B. Topical fluoride application

C. Gross excavation and restoration of teeth

D. Oral hygiene instructions

24. Interceptive orthodontics does not include:

A. Space maintainer

B. Oral hygiene measure

C. Frenectomy

D. Serial extraction

25. Crow and loop space maintainer is a procedure in:

A. Interceptive orthodontics

B. Preventive orthodontics

C. Corrective orthodontics

D. Orthodontic camouflage

26. Pain due to gallstone can be perceived in all areas except:

A. Right shoulder

B. Right hypochondrium

C. Right iliac fossa

D. Epigastrium

27. Long term assessment of glucose control can be made by estimation of:

A. Postprandial blood sugar

B. Fasting sugar

C. Urine sugar level

D. Blood level of glycosylated hemoglobin

28. A diabetic patient in the waiting room develops giddiness, sweating and confusion, he is suffering from:

A. Hypertension

B. Ketoacidosis

C. Hypoglycemia

D. Hyperglycemia

29. Which of the following is the first sign that appears in hemorrhagic shock?

A. Hypotension

B. Tachycardia

C. Vasoconstriction

D. Syncope

30. Which one of the following is not a feature of congestive cardiac failure? 

A. Breathlessness

B. Bradycardia

C. Ankle oedema

D. Raised jugular venous pressure

31. Therapy of choice for diffuse toxic goiter in a patient over 45 years is:

A. Surgery

B. Antithyroid drugs

C. Radioiodine

D. Antithyroid drugs first, followed by surgery

32. Carcinoma due to chronic irritation is:

A. Kangri cancer

B. Countryman’s injury

C. Chimney-sweepers cancer

D. All of the above

33. Which of the following inhalational anesthetic has analgesic property?

A. Nitrous oxide

B. Halothane

C. Enflurane

D. Sevoflurane

34. In trauma or surgery which of the following fluids should be avoided?

A. 5% Dextrose

B. Isotonic saline

C. Ringer lactate

D. Blood

35. Frey’s syndrome occurs:

A. Sialectasis

B. After parotidectomy

C. Warthin’s tumor

D. In pleomorphic adenoma

36. Radiographs of a 40 year old  female revealed radiolucent areas around several of her mandibular teeth, all of which tested vital on the electric pulp tester. These areas represent:

A. Multiple granulomas

B. Periapical osteo-fibrosis

C. Chronic periapical abscesses

D. Bone hypoplasias associated with opalescent teeth

37. Cancer which most commonly metastasizes to jaw bone is:

A. Breast

B. Prostatic

C. Lung

D. Kidney

38. Dentigerous cyst is likely to cause:

A. Ameloblastoma

B. Fibrosarcoma

C. Adenocarcinoma

D. All of the above

39. Which of the following condition shows marked reduction in the amount of dentin, widening of predentin layer, presence of large areas of interglobular dentin and irregular pattern of dentin?

A. Hypocalcified dentin

B. Regional odontodysplasia

C. Dentin dysplasia

D. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

40. Reduction of flow of saliva is not generally seen in:

A. Elderly diabetes

B. Patient undergoing radiation

C. Patient suffering from parkinsonism

D. Patient of Phenothiazine drugs

41. For a patient diagnosed with T2N2M2 oral cancer, treatment is:

A. Surgery

B. Surgery + Radiotherapy

C. Surgery + Chemotherapy

D. Chemotherapy

42. In a leukemic patient, bleeding does not stop because:

A. Decreased platelet count 

B. Increased WBC count

C. Decreased calcium level

D. Decrease in coagulation level

43. An asymptomatic tooth has deep caries on occlusal surface. Radiograph shows radiopaque mass at apex of the tooth. This  mass is most likely to be:

A. Cementoma

B. Condensing osteitis

C. Chronic apical periodontitis

D. Acute apical periodontitis

44. Bleeding joints is a characteristic feature of:

A. Vitamin C deficiency

B. Vitamin K deficiency

C. Hemophilia

D. Thrombocytopenia

45. In which of the following oral lesions are saw tooth rete pegs seen?

A. Lichen planus

B. Lichenoid reaction

C. Leukoplakia

D. Leukoedema

46. Extraction of tooth during acute infection:

A. Can cause extensive spread of infection

B. Helps drainage and relieves pain if proper antibiotic is given and its adequate blood level is reached

C. Can cause sudden death due to pulmonary embolism

D. Can lead to trigeminal neuralgia in postoperative period

47. Flap with no vertical incision is called:

A. Triangular

B. Semilunar

C. Envelope

D. Trapezoidal

48. The principal action of ammonia in syncope is:

A. Respiratory stimulant

B. Vagal stimulant

C. Vasomotor stimulant

D. Inhibitor of vasomotor tone

49. Which of the following procedures can be used to treat oro-antral fistula resulting from posterior surgery?

A. Buccal mucoperiosteal flap

B. Palatal mucoperiosteal flap

C. Bridge flap

D. Palatal island flap

50. Biopsy specimen taken for examination should be immediately placed in:

A. 10% ethanol

B. Rectified spirit

C. 10% formalin

D. Hypo

51. Preanesthetic medication is commonly used with the following goals EXCEPT:

A. Decreasing nervous irritability

B. Decrease secretions

C. Providing analgesia

D. Desensitizing respiratory center to CO2

52. Local anesthetic with adrenaline is absolutely contraindicated in:

A. First trimester of pregnancy

B. Hyperthyroidism

C. Hemophilia

D. Hypertension

53. When blocking the nerve containing both motor and sensory fibres, the last functional property lost is:

A. Temperature

B. Pain

C. Proprioception

D. Touch

54. The percentage of xylocaine used in dentistry is:

A. 5%

B. 10% 

C. 2%

D. 0.1%

55. The most common anesthetic complication occurring within the first 24 hours after surgery under general anesthesia is:

A. Hypertension

B. Renal failure

C. Cardiac arrest

D. Atelectasis 

56. The extraction of retained roots of premolars is complicated by the use of:

A. Metformin

B. Propranolol

C. Zolendronate

D. Azathioprine

57. Gardner syndrome does not include:

A. Osteomas

B. Epidermoid cysts

C. Impacted permanent teeth

D. Osteosarcoma

58. Tetracycline stains appear as:

A. Yellow and brown stains in enamel and dentine

B. Yellow and brown stains only in enamel

C. Yellow and brown stains only in dentine

D. Only yellow stain in enamel

59. The most common intraoral pigmented lesion is:

A. Melanoma

B. Blue nevus

C. Amalgam tattoo

D. Junctional nevus

60. Xylitol is the low calories sweetener, also inhibits the growth of:

A. S. mutans

B. S. pyogens

C. S. viridans

D. Lactobacillus

61. The darkening of radiograph X ray depends on all EXCEPT:

A. Thickness of object

B. Quality and quantity of X ray

C. Angulation cone

D. Velocity of electron emitted from cathode

62. Which of the following is not a content of pterygomandibular space?

A. Long buccal nerve

B. Nerve to medial pterygoid

C. Nerve to mylohyoid

D. Lingual nerve

63. Osteoradionecrosis results from:

A. Infection, trauma, radiation

B. Trauma, radiation, infection

C. Radiation, trauma, infection

D. None of the above

64. A thin radiopaque line running around the curvature of root in IOPA is:

A. Lamina dura

B. Lamina propria

C. Lamina limitans

D. Lamina densa

65. LA does not act in the presence of inflammation because the LA solution molecules are __________ charged.

A. Positively 

B. Negatively

C. None 

D. Both A and B

66. At birth, the palate is relatively flat: in adults, it is vault shaped. By which of the following does this change occur?

A. Bone resorption in palatal vault

B. Growth of maxillary sinus

C. Deposition of alveolar crestal bone

D. Bone deposition on  the posterior wall of the maxillary tuberosity

67. Dontrix gauge is used for:

A. Measurement of wire strength

B. Measurement of force

C. Measurement of wire distortion

D. Measurement of wire deformation

68. By the age of 9 to 10 year, which organ shows 200% growth of an adult?

A. Lymphoid

B. Genital

C. Neural

D. None of the above

69. In cephalometric analysis of children with malocclusion, the angle ANB is frequently used in patients with severe class II malocclusions. This angle is:

A. Large

B. Small

C. Normal

D. Negative

70. Most commonly anterior cross-bite in mixed dentition is due to:

A. Jaw discrepancy

B. Thumb sucking

C. Prolonged retention of deciduous teeth

D. Mouth breathing

71. During orthodontic movement of maxillary central incisor, center of rotation is present at apex, it shows:

A. Controlled tipping

B. Uncontrolled tipping

C. Translation

D. Intrusion

72. The rectangular wire used to edgewise appliance is primarily meant for:

A. Increasing the strength of wire

B. Correction of arch length deficiency

C. Correction of crown –root position

D. Used for correction of anterior crowding

73. During which orthodontic tooth movement, center of rotation is at the bracket slot?

A. Rotation

B. Torqueing

C. Tipping

D. Translation

74. Catlan’s appliance is used for the correction of:

A. Deep bite

B. Anterior crossbite

C. Thumb sucking

D. Lip biting

75. In a 10 year old child the lower canines are trying to erupt in 2 mm insufficient space. The primary molars are large and firmly fixed. The first premolars are also erupting. The treatment of choice is:

A. Remove primary second molars

B. Place removable bite opener

C. Remove first premolars

D. Mesial Stripping of primary second molars

76. GIC is done for primary teeth mainly because of:

A. Its color

B. Adhesion

C. Fluoride release

D. All of the above

77. What does enamel bonding agent consist of?

A. Unfilled resin

B. Filled resin

C. Prime and bond mixture

D. A mixture of resins, acetone and ethanol

78. For porcelain fused to metal crown, the porcelain should have:

A. High fusion expansion

B. High fusion temperature

C. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion more than that of metal

D. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than that of metal

79. Efficiency of carbide bur increases by:

A. Negative or zero rake angle

B. At high speed

C. 90 degree edge angle

D. All of the above

80. The maximum thickness of composite which can be cured by a curing light is:

A. 0.5 mm

B. 1 mm

C. 2 mm

D. 4 mm

81. Addition of large amount of platinum to a casting gold alloy will:

A. Decrease its strength and ability to be hardened

B. Decrease its tarnish resistance

C. Increase its fusion temperature

D. Redden the alloy

82. Disadvantage of ceramic veneer is:

A. Discoloration

B. Lower strength

C. Absorption of oral fluids

D. Technique sensitive

83. Rubber base impressions are poured immediately as they:

A. Continue to polymerize

B. Become elastic

C. Show imbibition and syneresis

D. Show gelation

84. The restoration which shows percolation and shrinkage along the margin is:

A. Composites

B. Unfilled resins

C. Amalgam

D. Polycarboxylate

85. Setting time of MTA-portland cement is:

A. 2 hour

B. 30 minute

C. 2 hour 45 minute

D. 12 hour

86. What is patency filing?

A. A small file is pushed  through the apex to keep it clear of debris

B. A small file is used circumferentially on canal walls to prevent lateral canals getting blocked

C. A small file is used to open the coronal part of the canal

D. A small file is used to remove pulp content

87. Sterilization of handpiece will cause:

A. Rust of handpiece

B. Turbine wear

C. Fiber loss

D. Loss torque

88. The ultrasonic cleaning is found to be ______ times effective than hand cleaning of instruments.

A. 2

B. 9

C. 20

D. 100

89. The most important criteria in using irrigating solution is:

A. Volume of irrigant

B. Thickness of syringe used

C. Concentration of irrigant

D. Speed of irrigation

90. Improved marginal adaptation in composite restoration can be achieved by:

A. Moisture free environment

B. Application of pressure

C. Acid etching

D. Continued packing

91. White spot on tooth is best treated by:

A. Microabrasion

B. Bleaching

C. Veneer

D. Crown

92. The desired termination point of apical root canal preparation when performing endodontic treatment on a vital tooth is:

A. 0.5 mm to 1 mm short of the radiographic apex

B. 3 mm short of the radiographic apex

C. Slightly through the apical foramen

D. To the point where the patient feels sensation

93. Vital bleaching causes:

A. Internal resorption

B. Cervical resorption

C. External resorption

D. Periapical periodontitis

94. After treatment of periapical lesion, bone filling can be noticed in X ray after _______ months.

A. 8 to 12 months

B. 2 to 6 months

C. 1 to 2 months

D. 24 months

95. Firm contact between approximating teeth is important because:

A. Locate the marginal ridges of each tooth

B. Keeps the teeth from having any movement during function

C. Insures proper cusp form and increases masticatory efficiency

D. Stabilizes the dental arches and gives protection to the gingival papillae

96. Full mouth survey of radiographs for edentulous patient is done for:

A. Residual roots

B. Supernumerary tooth

C. Periapical lesion

D. Cyst and tumor

97. The correctly placed posterior palatal seal creates:

A. Vacuum in posterior part of the palate

B. Vacuum beneath the maxillary denture

C. A close adaptation of maxillary denture at tuberosity

D. Partial vacuum beneath the maxillary denture

98. Which of the following is less retentive as compared to others?

A. All cast metal crown

B. All ceramic crown

C. Inlay and Onlay

D. Partial veneer crown

99. Emergency retentive force for the maxillary complete denture is:

A. Deep palate

B. Soft palate

C. PPS

D. Base of tongue

100. The gingival finish line on a tipped molar should be:

A. Shoulder

B. Chamfer

C. Knife-edge

D. Feather-edge