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Which type of ameloblastoma appears to be aggressive with a marked proclivity for recurrence?

 # Which type of ameloblastoma appears to be aggressive with a marked proclivity for recurrence? A. Follicular ameloblastoma B. Plexiform ameloblastoma C. Granular cell ameloblastoma D. Acanthomatous ameloblastoma The correct answer is C. Granular cell ameloblastoma. Granular cell ameloblastoma is aggressive with a marked proclivity for recurrence. Follicular has highest recurrence rate (29%) with lowest for acanthomatous (4%). If 'aggressive' is asked, 'Granular cell ameloblastoma' is the answer, if only recurrence is asked, 'follicular ameloblastoma' is the answer. CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

Which is the only inorganic general anesthetic in use?

 # Which is the only inorganic general anesthetic in use?  a. Ether.  b. Chloroform.  c. Nitrous oxide.  d. Cyclopropane.  The correct answer is C. Nitrous oxide. It is a colourless, odourless, heavier than air, noninflammable gas supplied under pressure in steel cylinders. It is nonirritating, but low potency anaesthetic; unconsciousness cannot be produced in all individuals without concomitant hypoxia; MAC is 105% implying that even pure N2O cannot produce adequate anaesthesia at 1 atmosphere pressure. Patients maintained on 70% N2O + 30% O2 along with muscle relaxants often recall the events during anaesthesia, but some lose awareness completely.

Smile Inn dental clinic, Pulchowk, lalitpur

 Name of Dental Clinic: Smile Inn dental clinic Address (Full): Pulchowk, lalitpur Year of Establishment: 2017 Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr. Avinesh shrestha CONTACT NUMBER: 9841232892 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 14998 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF BAGMATI PROVINCE

Indian Dentists Act was formulated in:

 # Indian Dentists Act was formulated in:  A. 1942 B. 1947 C. 1948 D. 1949 The correct answer is C. 1948. Dentist act of India was introduced on 29th March 1948. 

Which is NOT a requirement for a local anesthetic drug?

 # Which is NOT a requirement for a local anesthetic drug?  A. Lipid solubility.  B. Water solubility.  C. Precipitate in interstitial fluid.  D. Depression of nerve conduction.  The correct answer is C. Precipitate in interstitial fluid. Local anesthetics must be lipid soluble in order for the drug to cross various barriers in the tissue. Local anesthetics must be water soluble to prevent the drug from precipitating when exposed to interstitial fluids. Local anesthetics must NOT precipitate in interstitial fluid because then they would be ineffective as anesthetics. A local anesthetic’s intended purpose is to block pain; therefore, it must depress nerve conduction.

Components of Acquired Enamel Pellicle

 # Which of the following is a component that is not present in the acquired enamel pellicle?  A. Glucan.  B. Proline-rich peptides.  C. Glucosyltransferases.  D. Enolase.  The correct answer is D. Enolase. Bacterial components such as glucosyltransferases and glucan can be detected in pellicle. Proline-rich peptides can be found in the acquired enamel pellicle. Bacterial components such as glucosyltransferases and glucan can be detected in pellicle. Enolase is an intracellular enzyme found in oral bacteria, but is not a major component of the acquired pellicle.

Etching time is more in primary teeth than permanent teeth due to:

 # Etching time is more in primary teeth than permanent teeth due to: A. Irregular placed enamel rods B. Aprismatic enamel C. More inorganic matrix D. More amount of water The correct answer is B. Aprismatic enamel. Deciduous teeth have an outer layer of aprismatic or prismless enamel. They require a longer etching time. Earlier it was advocated 120s, but now reduced to 60 s and more recently to 30s for bonding of pit and fissure sealants and orthodontic brackets. A significant research in this field made it clear that very long etching periods did not improve the bond strengths of the currently available adhesives.  CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

What is Geristore in Dentistry?

 # What is Geristore in Dentistry? A. Rapid setting resin ionomer, has the capacity to bond with the tooth B. ZOE based sealer C. Obturating material specifically for deciduous tooth D. Is a bioceramic The correct answer is A. Rapid setting resin ionomer, has the capacity to bond with the tooth Geristore:  • Geristore is a dual-cure, self-adhesive, resin glass ionomer formula that contains fluoride. It is a rapid setting resin ionomer (making it very suitable for repairing perforations when compared to MTA)  • It is hydrophilic, so it will bond in the presence of moisture and blood.  • It has low coefficient of thermal expansion and low polymerization shrinkage.  • It's often recommended when the periodontium is extensively involved. It is biocompatible for soft tissue and teeth - Studies show gingival cell re-attachment to the material, making it excellent for sub-gingival procedures.  Applications:  • Subgingival restorations for root perforation and...

Teeth that are least affected by periodontal disease are:

 # Teeth that are least affected by periodontal disease are:  A. Lower first molars and upper anteriors  B. Lower premolars and upper canines  C. Lower first molars and upper incisors and premolars  D. Lower centrals, laterals and upper molars  The correct answer is B. Lower premolars and upper canines. Teeth least affected by periodontitis are upper canine and lower second premolar. Most affected are lower molars. The teeth that are moderately affected by periodontal disease are all the upper molars; the upper centrals. laterals, and premolars; and the lower canines.  CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

The malleting force is directed:

 # The malleting force is directed: A. Perpendicular to the walls B. Parallel to the long axis of crown C. 45 degrees to the wall D. 30 degrees to the wall The correct answer is C. 45 degrees to the wall. To ensure dense masses in corners and at the junction between two walls, the line of force must be directed to bisect line angles and trisect point angles. CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

Which of the following is not a function of flux?

 # Which of the following is not a function of flux? A. To remove any oxide coating on parent metal B. To restrict the flow of solder over the parent metal C. To protect metal surface from oxidation during soldering procedures D. To permit the flow of solder over parent metal The correct answer is B. To restrict the flow of solder over the parent metal, this is the function of antiflux, not flux. The Latin word ‘flux’ means flow. For a solder to wet and flow properly, the parent metal must be free of oxides. This is accomplished with the help of a flux. FUNCTION OF FLUX 1. To remove any oxide coating on the parent metal. 2. To protect the metal surface from oxidation during soldering. TYPES Fluxes may be divided into three activity types. - Protective: This type covers the metal surface and prevents access to oxygen so no oxide can form. - Reducing: This reduces any oxide present to free metal and oxygen. - Solvent: This type dissolves any oxide present and carries it away. Most fl...

The temperature difference between gelation and liquefaction temperature of hydrocolloid is:

 # The temperature difference between gelation and liquefaction temperature of hydrocolloid is:  A. Syneresis B. Imbibition C. Hysteresis D. Chelation The correct answer is C. Hysteresis. Most materials melt as well as resolidify at the same temperature. However in agar this does not coincide. Gelation (solidification) occurs at 37°C approximately, whereas liquefaction (melting) occurs at a higher temperature, i.e., 60 to 70°C higher than the gelation temperature. This temperature lag between liquefaction and gelation is known as hysteresis. CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

Burning sensation of tongue is termed:

 # Burning sensation of tongue is termed: A. Glossopyrosis  B. Glossodynia C. Glossoptosis D. Odynophagia The correct answer is A. Glossopyrosis. Glossopyrosis is burning tongue. Various systemic and local factors had been suggested as the etiology of burning tongue, like nutritional deficiency, diabetes, gastric hyperacidity, psychological factors, xerostomia, candidiasis, use of tobacco etc. Glossodynia is painful tongue, odynophagia is pain during swallowing. Glossoptosis is airway obstruction caused by falling back of the tongue.  CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

Which of the following parts of hard palate is devoid of submucosa?

 # Which of the following parts of hard palate is devoid of submucosa? A. Anterolateral B. Posterolateral C. Raphe D. Incisive papilla The correct answer is C. Raphe. Masticatory mucosa in the oral cavity covers the gingiva and hard palate. In gingiva a separate submucosal layer does not exist as compared to hard palate. Underlying tissue without intervening submucosa and is called as mucoperiosteum. In hard palate, submucosa is absent in regions adjacent to gingiva and midpalatal raphe. In midpalatal raphe, submucosa is absent and dense lamina propria directly attaches to the bone. In anterolateral parts submucosa is rich in fatty adipose tissue and posterolateral regions it is glandular in nature with numerous minor salivary glands.  CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

Helena Vinayak Dental Clinic Pvt. Ltd. Kageshowri Manohara 9,Bagmati zone, Kathmandu

 Name of Dental Clinic: Helena Vinayak Dental Clinic Pvt. Ltd. Address (Full): Kageshowri Manohara 9,Bagmati zone, Kathmandu.. Year of Establishment: 2015A.D. (2072 B.S.) Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr. Helena Khadka CONTACT NUMBER: 9849895320 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 13625 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF BAGMATI PROVINCE

Why impacted third molars should be removed as soon as possible?

 Wisdom teeth or third molars usually enter the mouth between the ages of 17 and 25, a time of life that has been called the age of wisdom. When a tooth is blocked by another tooth or grows in a manner that makes it impossible to enter the mouth normally, it is said to be impacted. Many people have one or more impacted wisdom teeth. This article explains how third molar surgery can help prevent later problems in your mouth and teeth if wisdom teeth are to be extracted. We like to remove them when patients are younger: late teens or early twenties because it's an easier surgery for patients, the bone is more forgiving, the teeth aren't fully formed and we don't have to worry about the roots being close to important structures like the nerves in the lower jaw and the sinuses in the upper jaw.  The problem with third molars is that they often do not have enough space to grow into the mouth. For some patients, the teeth do come in but are so difficult to keep clean that it'...

Zenith Dental care pvt.ltd, Hospital road(Opposite of narayani samudayik hospital),chitwan ,nepal

 Name of Dental Clinic: Zenith Dental care pvt.ltd Address (Full): Hospital road(Opposite of narayani  samudayik hospital),chitwan ,nepal Year of Establishment: 2078 B.S Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr.Archana subedi CONTACT NUMBER: 056596545 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 19060 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF BAGMATI PROVINCE

Bir Dental Clinic, Sadarline,Nepalgunj

 Name of Dental Clinic: Bir Dental Clinic Address (Full): Sadarline,Nepalgunj Year of Establishment: 2068 BS Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr Ram Krishna Lamichhane CONTACT NUMBER: 081532375 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 9040 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF LUMBINI PROVINCE

Chandragiri Dental Home and Implant Centre Pvt. Ltd. Kausaltar 3 bhaktapur 50 meters towards balkot road

 Name of Dental Clinic: Chandragiri Dental Home and Implant Centre Pvt. Ltd. Address (Full): Kausaltar 3 bhaktapur 50 meters towards balkot road Year of Establishment: 2021 Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr. Prakriti Rupakhety  CONTACT NUMBER: 9860672540 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 30586 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF BAGMATI PROVINCE

Imperial dental studio Pvt ltd, Butwal, sukkhanagar opposite to Tinau hospital

 Name of Dental Clinic: Imperial dental studio Pvt ltd Address (Full): Butwal, sukkhanagar opposite to Tinau hospital Year of Establishment: 2018 Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr Tanuja Singh (Prosthodontist), Dr Tika Ram Ghimire (Orthodontist) CONTACT NUMBER: 9869672445 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 10738 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF LUMBINI PROVINCE

Dental World Multispeciality Center Pvt. Ltd. Mangalgadhi Chowk, Birendranagar-9, Surkhet (Beside Sanima Bank)

 Name of Dental Clinic: Dental World Multispeciality Center Pvt. Ltd. Address (Full): Mangalgadhi Chowk, Birendranagar-9, Surkhet (Beside Sanima Bank) Year of Establishment: 2077 BS Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr. Naveen Mandal  CONTACT NUMBER: 9852820876 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 15453 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF KARNALI PROVINCE

Natural Smile Dental Clinic Pvt.Ltd, Nagarjun1,Radha Krishna Mandir, Dhungedhara, Banasthali,Kathmandu

 Name of Dental Clinic: Natural Smile Dental Clinic Pvt.Ltd Address (Full): Nagarjun1,Radha Krishna Mandir, Dhungedhara, Banasthali,Kathmandu  Year of Establishment: 2078 Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr.Abhinash Adhikari CONTACT NUMBER: 9851315930 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 31011 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF BAGMATI PROVINCE

Dharan Dental, Putali line, Dharan- 9

 Name of Dental Clinic: Dharan Dental  Address (Full): Putali line,  Dharan- 9 Year of Establishment: 2002 Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Nandan Shrestha  CONTACT NUMBER: 9852045113 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 3905 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF PROVINCE NO 1

Guheswari Dental multi specialty Implant Hub, Jawalakhel lalitpur

 Name of Dental Clinic: Guheswari Dental multi specialty Implant Hub  Address (Full): Jawalakhel lalitpur  Year of Establishment: 2072 BS Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr.Ranjita Shrestha (Periodontist ),                                                           Dr Mukunda Regmi (Prosthodontist) CONTACT NUMBER: 9841308845 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 5135 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF BAGMATI PROVINCE

Bimal Dental Clinic, Free line, Hospital road, Near 9/11 Hotel, Galli no 4, Mahendranagar Bazar, Kanchanpur

 Name of Dental Clinic: Bimal Dental Clinic  Address (Full): Free line, Hospital road, Near 9/11 Hotel, Galli no 4, Mahendranagar Bazar, Kanchanpur  Year of Establishment: 2078, Magh 8 gate Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Bimal Chand  CONTACT NUMBER: 9843264659 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 26750 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF SUDURPASCHIM PROVINCE

Dent-Care Pokhara, Pokhara-8, Newroad

 Name of Dental Clinic: Dent-Care Pokhara Address (Full): Pokhara-8, Newroad Year of Establishment: 2077 B.S. Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr Puran Bishowkarma CONTACT NUMBER: 9856044887 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 27843 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF GANDAKI PROVINCE

Bishahara multispeciality Dental clinic pvt ltd

 Name of Dental Clinic: Bishahara multispeciality Dental clinic pvt ltd Address (Full): Triyuga municipality-10, setopul, udaypur, gaighat Year of Establishment: 2078 Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr. Ambika chaudhary CONTACT NUMBER: 9801557967 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 22590 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF PROVINCE NO 1

Gulmohar family dentistry, Harihar Bhawan, Opposite Sajha Petrol Pump, Pulchowk , Lalitpur

 Name of Dental Clinic: Gulmohar family dentistry  Address (Full): Harihar Bhawan, Opposite Sajha Petrol Pump, Pulchowk , Lalitpur  Year of Establishment: 2020 Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr Sanjay Sah and Dr. Preeti Mandal CONTACT NUMBER: 9851158031, 9803558767 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 6768, 7543 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF BAGMATI PROVINCE

Manokamana Dental Care Centre, Simara, Bara

 Name of Dental Clinic: Manokamana Dental Care Centre Address (Full): Simara, Bara Year of Establishment: 2078 Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr. Mukund Dahal CONTACT NUMBER: 9845260686 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 27288 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF PROVINCE NO 2  

Manav dental, Ilam chowk bzar

 Name of Dental Clinic: Manav dental Address (Full): Ilam chowk bzar Year of Establishment: 2065 Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Purushottam Pradhan  CONTACT NUMBER: 9840095194 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF PROVINCE NO 1

Astra dental clinic, Biratnagar Budhiganga 2

 Name of Dental Clinic: Astra dental clinic  Address (Full): Biratnagar budhiganga 2 Year of Establishment: 2078 Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr Biswash Khatiwada  CONTACT NUMBER: 9820728867 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 25208 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF PROVINCE NO 1

Kalika dental clinic, Rapti road , Hetauda -10

 Name of Dental Clinic: Kalika Dental Clinic Address (Full): Rapti road , Hetauda -10 Year of Establishment: 2078 Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr. Shivani Koirala, Dr. Kabin Muktan CONTACT NUMBER: 9845104828 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 28594 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF BAGMATI PROVINCE

The stock tray should be _______ mm larger than the ridge.

 # In primary impression, the stock tray should be _________ mm larger than ridge.  A. 2 mm  B. 4 mm C. 6 mm D. 8 mm The correct answer is C. 6 mm. If the tray is too large, it will distort the tissues around the borders of impression. If it is too small, the border tissues will collapse inward onto the residual ridge and thus reduce the support for the dentures. CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

The Bennett movement exerts its greatest influence in:

 # The Bennett movement exerts its greatest influence in: A. Lateral movement B. Protrusive movement  C. Opening movement D. Closing movement The correct answer is A. Lateral movement. Bennett movement is a lateral jaw movement demarcated by movement of balancfng side condyle. It is brought about by lateral pterygoid as it is attacked to neck of condyle and the capsule. CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

Minimum thickness of metal coping of base metal alloy is:

 # The minimum thickness of metal coping of base metal alloy is: A. 0.1 mm B. 0.2 mm C. 0.3 mm D. 0.4 mm The correct answer is B. 0.2 mm. For gold alloys, the minimum thickness of coping should be: 0.3 mm For base metal alloys, the minimum thickness of coping should be: 0.2 mm Minimum thickness of porcelain in metal ceramic restoration should be: 0.7 mm CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

Which has common role in osteoblast, fibroblast and cementoblast?

 # Which has common role in osteoblast, fibroblast and cementoblast? A. Osteopontin B. Osteocalcin C. Osteogenin D. Bone Sialoprotein The correct answer is A. Osteopontin. Osteopontin (OPN) is a highly phosphorylated sialoprotein that is a prominent component of the mineralized extracellular matrices of bones and teeth.  Osteopontin (OPN), also known as bone sialoprotein I (BSP-1 or BNSP), early T-lymphocyte activation (ETA-1), secreted phosphoprotein 1 (SPP1), 2ar and Rickettsia resistance (Ric), is a protein that in humans is encoded by the SPP1 gene (secreted phosphoprotein 1).  Osteopontin is biosynthesized by a variety of tissue types including fibroblasts preosteoblasts, osteoblasts, osteocytes, odontoblasts, some bone marrow cells, hypertrophic chondrocytes, dendritic cells, macrophages, smooth muscle, skeletal muscle myoblasts, endothelial cells and extraosseous (non-bone) cells in the inner ear, brain, kidney, deciduum and placenta.  CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs...

In a demographic cycle, if death rate is declining but there is no increase in birth rate, this population is called as:

 # In a demographic cycle, if death rate is declining but there is no increase in birth rate, this population is called as: A. Early expanding B. Low stationary C. High stationary D. Declining The correct answer is A. Early expanding. There is a demographic cycle of 5 stages through which a nation passes. First stage (High stationary): This stage is characterized by a high birth rate and high death rate which cancel each other and the population remains stationary.  Second stage (Early expanding): The death rate begins to decline while the birth rate remains unchanged. As the birth rates remain high, the population starts to grow rapidly. Third stage (Late expanding)- Death rate declines still further and birth rate tends to fall, but population tends to grow as birth rate supersedes the death rates, but rates of population growth decelerates. Fourth stage (Low stationary)- This stage is characterized by low birth and low death rate with the result that the population becomes ...

What is common to all Staphylococci?

 # What is common to all Staphylococci? A. All are gram positive B. Common in nosocomial infections C. All inhibited by penicillin G D. All of the above The correct answer is A. All are gram positive. Staphylococcus is a genus of Gram-positive bacteria in the family Staphylococcaceae from the order Bacillales. Under the microscope, they appear spherical (cocci), and form in grape-like clusters. Staphylococcus species are facultative anaerobic organisms (capable of growth both aerobically and anaerobically). Staphylococcus can cause a wide variety of diseases in humans and animals through either toxin production or penetration. Staphylococcal toxins are a common cause of food poisoning, for they can be produced by bacteria growing in improperly stored food items. The most common sialadenitis is caused by staphylococci, as bacterial infections.Staphylococci break down leucine into isovaleric acid, the main odor of foot odor. The widespread incidence of antibiotic resistance across va...

When the denture border is overextended on posterior region, common complaint by the patient is:

     # When the denture border is overextended on posterior region, common complaint by the patient is: A. Improper retention B. Difficulty in swallowing  C. Difficulty in speech D. Excess salivation The correct answer is A. Improper retention.  Persistent gagging can occur due to overextended denture borders especially in the posterior part of maxillary denture and the distolingual part of mandibular denture. Gagging usually produces displacement of the denture. When the denture border is overextended on distolingual region, difficulty in swallowing occurs. The overextension in the distolingual sulcus should be corrected. Ref: Nallaswamy

Stages of Tooth Development in a Multirooted Tooth

 Description of modified Moorrees' stages (Moorrees et al., 1963a,b) used to identify tooth developmental stages of multirooted teeth. 

Average vertical length a mandible moves in a chewing cycle is:

  # Average vertical length a mandible moves in a chewing cycle is: A. 3-5 mm B. 10-12 mm C. 16-20 mm D. 50-60 mm The correct answer is C. 16-20 mm. Chewing is highly complex oral motor behavior usually seen in the frontal plane in simple form. No archetypal chewing cycle exists. The means of the dimensions of the chewing cycle are between 16 and 20 mm for vertical movements and between 3 and 5 mm for lateral movements. The duration of the cycle varies from 0.6 to 1 second depending on the type of food. The speed of masticatory movement varies within each cycle, both according to the type of food and among individuals. Speed, duration, and form of the chewing cycle vary with the type of occlusion, kind of food, and presence of dysfunction. Reference: Wheeler's 10th Edition Page 263 CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

Oblique ridge at the centre of occlusal surface is reduced to the level of:

  # Oblique ridge at the centre of occlusal surface is reduced to the level of: A. Central groove B. Marginal ridges C. Cusp tips D. All of the above The correct answer is B. Marginal ridges. The oblique ridge is a ridge that crosses the occlusal surface obliquely. The union of the triangular ridge of the distobuccal cusp and the distal ridge of the mesiolingual cusp forms it. This ridge is reduced in height in the center of the occlusal surface, being about on a level with the marginal ridges of the occlusal surface. Sometimes it is crossed by a developmental groove that partially joins the two major fossae by means of its shallow sulcate groove. CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

Which Premolar develops from five lobes?

  # Which of the following premolars develop from five lobes? A. Maxillary first premolar B. Maxillary second premolar C. Mandibular first premolar D. Mandibular second premolar The correct answer is D. Mandibular second premolar. The mandibular first premolars are developed from four lobes, as were the maxillary premolars. The mandibular second premolars are, in most instances, developed from five lobes, three buccal and two lingual lobes. Reference: Wheeler's, 10th Edition, Page 151

Parahemophilia is due to deficiency of :

  # Parahemophilia is due to deficiency of : A. Clotting factor VIII B. Clotting factor IX C. Clotting factor V D. Clotting factor XI The correct answer is C. Clotting factor V. Parahemophilia:  a congenital deficiency of factor V in the blood that is associated with hemorrhagic diathesis and abnormally slow clotting time. — called also Owren's disease. CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

In the anteroposterior bar major connector, the shape of the bars are:

  # In the anteroposterior bar major connector, the shape of the bars are: A. Anterior bar – flat strap; posterior bar- half oval B. Anterior bar – half pear shape; posterior bar- half pear shape C. Anterior bar – half oval; posterior bar- flat strap D. Anterior bar – flat strap; posterior bar- flat strap The correct answer is A. Anterior bar – flat strap; posterior bar- half oval. The anterior component is a flat strap located as far posteriorly as possible to avoid rugae coverage and tongue interference. The anterior border of this strap should be located just posterior to a rugae crest or in the valley between two crests. The posterior strap is thin, a minimum of 8 mm wide, and located as far posteriorly as possible, yet entirely on the hard palate. It should be located at right angles to midline rather than diagonally. Posterior palatal component: a strap of 22-gauge thickness, 8 to 10 mm wide (a half-oval form of approximately 6-gauge thickness and width) may also be used. CLI...

The space maintainer which is contraindicated in a child suffering from subacute bacterial endocarditis is:

  # The space maintainer which is contraindicated in a child suffering from subacute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Removable B. Crown and loop C. Band and loop D. Distal shoe The correct answer is D. Distal shoe. A distal shoe space maintainer is indicated when the primary 2nd molar is lost before eruption of the permanent 1st molar.  Distal shoe space maintainer is contraindicated in:  • Patient with heart diseases  • Patients with poor oral hygiene  • Hemophilic patients  CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

Middle concha of nose are a part of:

 # Middle concha of nose are a part of: A. Nasal bone B. Ethmoid C. Vomer D. Maxilla The correct answer is B. Ethmoid. The nasal conchae are curved bony projections directed downward and medially.  The 3 conchae are:  i) Inferior concha: It is an independent bone.  ii) Middle concha: It is a projection from the medial surface of the ethmoidal labyrinth. iii) Superior concha: It is also a projection from the medial surface of the ethmoidal labyrinth. This is the smallest concha situated just above the posterior part of middle concha.  CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

Carboxylation reaction is related to:

 # Carboxylation reaction is related to: A. Biotin B. Vitamin B6 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin A The correct answer is A. Biotin. Biotin serves as a carrier of CO2 in carboxylation reactions. The reaction catalyzed by pyruvate carboxylase, converting pyruvate to oxaloacetate. CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

Which bone reaches its adult size at birth?

 # Which bone reaches its adult size at birth? A. Ear ossicles B. Parietal bone C. Mastoid process D. Maxilla The correct answer is A. Ear ossicles. The bone that reaches its adult size at birth are ear ossicles. The tympanic cavity, mastoid antrum, auditory ossicles and structures of the internal ear are almost fully developed at birth and undergo little change after birth. CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

Metopic suture fuses at:

 # Metopic suture fuses at: A. 2.5 years B. 6 years C. 18 months D. 9 months The correct answer is D. 9 months. The two frontal bones tend to fuse in the midline via the metopic or frontal suture. The timing of its closure is controversial. Fusion of metopic suture begins anteriorly at the bridge of the nose and progresses posteriorly. One-third of metopic sutures close at 3 months, and nearly 100% by 9 months. Although some may persist into 6 years and may not close until adulthood in up to 10% of patients. A premature fusion of the suture is termed metopic synostosis. This can result in trigonocephaly. It usually disappears by the age of 2 years but may even persist in a few individuals.  CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

If access is made in gold crown for endodontic procedure and after completion of procedure

 # If access is made in gold crown for endodontic procedure and after completion of procedure hole is filled with amalgam, which is correct about subsequent possible event? A.  Amalgam will act as anode to gold   B. Amalgam will act as cathode to gold C. Circuit will not be formed D. All of the above The correct answer is A. Amalgam will act as anode to gold. If an amalgam is in direct contact with an adjacent metallic restoration such as a gold crown, the amalgam is the anode in the circuit. This type of electrochemical corrosion is called galvanic corrosion and is associated with the presence of macroscopically different electrode sites. CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

What happens if gypsum is heated above 700 degree celsius?

 # What happens if gypsum is heated above 700 degree celsius? A. No by-product B. Breakdown of CaSO4 which affect gold alloy C. Breakdown of Na2SO4 which affect gold alloy D. Gas inclusion porosities The correct answer is B. Breakdown of CaSO4 which affect gold alloy. Gypsum-bonded investments are used for casting gold alloys. These can withstand a temperature of 700°C. If gypsum investment is heated about 700°C, decomposition of CaSO4 occurs with emission of SO2 gas. This not only causes shrinkage of the investment but also contaminates the gold castings with the sulphides of the non-noble elements such as silver and copper. So gypsum investments should not be heated above 700°C.  CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

Undercut desirable for wrought wire clasp:

 # Undercut desirable for wrought wire clasp: A. 0.02 inches with clasp length 8 mm B. 0.01 inches with clasp length 8 mm C. 0.02 inches with clasp length 5 mm D. 0.01 inches with clasp length 5 mm The correct answer is A. 0.02 inches with clasp length 8 mm. • Undercuts on the master cast may be measured with an undercut gauge, such as those provided with the Ney and Jelenko surveyors.  • The amount of undercut is measured in hundredths of an inch, with the gauges allowing measurements up to 0.03inch. Theoretically the amount of undercut used may vary with the clasp to be used up to a full 0.03 inch. However, undercuts of 0.01 inch are often adequate for retention by cast retainers. • Tapered wrought-wire retention may safely use up to 0.02 inch without inducing undesirable torque on the abutment tooth, provided the wire retentive arm is long enough (at least 8mm).  • The use of 0.03inch is rarely, if ever, justified with any clasp. When greater retention is required, suc...

Vitamin related to coenzyme A:

 # Vitamin related to coenzyme A: A. Thiamine B. Riboflavin C. Cobalamine D. Pantothenic acid The correct answer is D. Pantothenic acid. • Co-enzyme A is an important component of fatty acid synthase complex. The Co-enzyme A is a complex molecule containing B complex vitamin pantothenic acid and a molecule of beta mercaptoethanol amine.  • The ACP (acyl carrier protein) also contains pantothenic acid.  • The important CoA derivatives are: - Acetyl CoA - Succinyl CoA - HMG CoA - Acyl CoA.  • The functions of Pantothenic acid are exerted through CoA (A for acetylation). It is a component of Pyruvate dehydrogenase, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase and Thiokinase. Besides the various functions through coenzyme A, pantothenic acid itself is a component of fatty acid synthase complex and is involved in the formation of fatty acids.  CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs