AIIMS MAY 2011 MDS ENTRANCE EXAM PAST QUESTIONS

# All of the cranial nerve have parasympathetic outflow EXCEPT:
A. 5th Nerve
B. 7th Nerve
C. 3rd Nerve
D. 9th Nerve

# The future TMJ shows development at:
A. 12 week
B. 10 week
C. 18 week
D. 16 week

# Area that lies immediately lateral to the anterior perforating substance is:
A. Orbital gyrus
B. Uncus
C. Optic chiasma
D. Limen insulae

 

# Which of the following organ is located posterior to pancreas?
A. Kidney
B. Stomach
C. Colon
D. Duodenum

# Intrinsic factor of Castle is secreted by which of the following cells in Gastric glands?
A. Chief cells
B. Parietal cells
C. Mucus cells
D. B cells

# A patient was diagnosed with isolated increase in LDL. His father and brother had the same disease with increased cholesterol. The likely diagnosis is:
A. LDL receptor mutation
B. Familial lipoprotein lipase deficiency type I
C. Familial type 3 hyperlipoproteinemia
D. Genetic defect in LDL receptors

# Muscle spindle detects:
A. Muscle length
B. Muscle tension
C. Proprioception
D. Stretch

# Golgi tendon organ functions for:
A. Dynamic length
B. Static length
C. Muscle tension
D. Stimulates the motor neurons of the same

# Cortical representation of body in cerebrum is:
A. Vertical
B. Oblique
C. Transverse
D. Horizontal

# Main cause of increased blood flow to exercising muscles is:
A. Increased blood pressure
B. Vasodilation due to local metabolites
C. Increased sympathetic discharge to peripheral vessels
D. Increased heart rate

# Which of the following is true for electric transduction of visual cycle?
A. Depolarization
B. Repolarization
C. Hyperpolarization
D. Hyper depolarization

# Bezold's Jarisch reflex, which of the following is true?
A. Tachycardia with hypovolemia
B. Bradycardia with hypovolemia
C. Hypertension inspite of hypovolemia
D. Bradycardia with normovolemia

# Gene responsible for hereditary non polyposis colon carcinoma is:
A. BRCA2
B. p53
C. APC
D. hmlh1

# All are dimorphic EXCEPT:
A. Blastomyces dermatidis
B. Histoplasma
C. Penicillin mameffei
D. Phialophora verucosa

# A bacterial disease that has been associated with the 3Rs i.e. rats, ricefields, rainfall is:
A. Leptospirosis
B. Plague
C. Meliodosis
D. Rodent -bite fever

# Culture media for Leptospirosis is:
A. Korthoff
B. Perkin
C. Bakers
D. Tinsdale

# Microaerophilic bacteria is:
A. Campylobacter
B. Vibrio cholera
C. Pseudomonas
D. Salmonella

# Autoinfection is seen with:
A. Cryptosporidium
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Giardia
D. Gnathostoma

# Gas gangrene is caused by all EXCEPT:
A. Clostridium histolyticum
B. Clostridium novyii
C. Clostridium sporogenes
D. Clostridium septicum

# Serum fructosamine can used in all EXCEPT:
A. Screening diabetes
B. Rapid changes in diabetes treatment
C. Monitoring short term control of diabetes mellitus
D. Screening of diabetes mellitus in pregnancy

# In which area, gall stone pain is not perceived?
A. Epigastrium
B. Right hypochondrium
C. Right iliac fossa
D. Right shoulder

# Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Leucocytosis
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Hypothermia
D. Hyperthermia

# Diamond blackfan anemia is:
A. Inherited thrombocytopenia
B. Inherited leucopenia
C. Inherited Erythrocytopenia
D. All of the above

# In condylar fracture and bone plate synthesis to counteract the dynamic tension and compression zone the most acceptable place for plating is:
A. A plate fixed laterally in the neck of the condyle
B. One plate on posterior border of condyle only
C. One plate on anterior border of condyle only
D. One plate on anterior and one plate at posterior border of condyle

# Which of the following is the best for treatment of comminuted fracture?
A. 2.4 mm reconstruction plates with central hole
B. Dynamic screws/dynamic compression plates with eccentric screws
C. Multiple 2.00 mm monocortical plates
D. Multiple 1.5 mm monocortical plates

# A condylar fracture with fragment overlap of greater than 5 mm and angle greater than 37 degrees needs what treatment?
A. Closed reduction and IMF
B. ORIF (Open reduction Internal fixation)
C. Soft diet only
D. No treatment

# Which of the following area are the most complicated fractures of mandible located in:
A. Symphysis
B. Body
C. Condyle
D. Angle

# The weakest and most vulnerable part of fracture in the mandible is:
A. Ramus of mandible
B. Condylar neck
C. Angle of the mandible
D. Region of the canine tooth

# The most common anatomic site of fracture of the mandible is:
A. Body
B. Condyle
C. Symphysis menti
D. Coronoid process
E. Angle

# In fracture of atrophic mandible, which of the following is the best treatment modality?
A. Bone grafting and load bearing
B. Bone grafting and load sharing
C. Open reduction
D. Semi rigid

# Alveolar bone grafting in a cleft palate patient is done:
A. After maxillary expansion, cross bite correction, before canine eruption
B. Before maxillary expansion crossbite correction after canine eruption
C. After maxillary expansion, crossbite correction after canine eruption
D. Before maxillary expansion cross bite correction before canine eruption

# Most common impaction of mandibular third molar is:
A. Mesioangular
B. Vertical
C. Distoangular
D. Horizontal

# Nitrous oxide is common anesthesia now a days, nitrous oxide N2O acts by:
A. Non specific CNS depression
B. Gasserian ganglion blockade
C. Blocking peripheral pain pathways
D. Block neural trunk

# When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck to what variable its related?
A. Angulation of strike
B. Position of strike
C. Location of strike
D. Area of strike

# In lingual splaying of Guardman fracture with ORIF, which is clinical feature?
A. Intercanthal distance
B. Interangular distance
C. Go-Gn distance
D. Interpupillary distance

# It is essential to lubricate dam before applying it, which of the following is not a suitable lubricant?
A. Soapy water
B. Vaseline
C. Shaving cream
D. Scrub gel

# The thickness of thin rubber dam is:
A. 0.002 inch
B. 0.004 inch
C. 0.006 inch
D. 0.2 inch

# The distance between two holes in a rubber dam is ideally:
A. 6 mm
B. 6.3 mm
C. 6.5 mm
D. 6.9 mm

# Instrument used for gingival retraction during rubber dam placement is:
A. Retainer no 208
B. Retainer no 210
C. Retainer no 212
D. retainer no 216

# Which of the following is wrrong method to apply rubber dam with wingless clamp on the tooth?
A. Place clamp on tooth and insert the dam over it
B. Place dam on the tooth with fingers then place clamp over it
C. Place dam and frame outside the oral cavity and then on tooth using clamp over the dam
D. Place dam and frame outside the oral cavity and then on tooth using clamp under the dam

# Material of choice for restoring non carious erosive lesions of the cervical areas of the tooth:
A. GIC
B. RM-GIC
C. Compomer
D. Composite

# Most stable restoration for class V unstable erosive lesion:
A. GIC
B. RM-GIC
C. Compomer
D. Composite

# Fluoride released from GIC restoration is replaced by:
A. Hydroxyl ion
B. Aluminium ion
C. Silicate ion
D. Carboxylate ion

# Mechanism of adhesion of GIC restoration over tooth surface is by means of:
A. Carboxyl group
B. Chelates with metal ions
C. C=C double bond
D. Polymer chains

# In caries which structure becomes more prominent?
A. Striae of Retzius
B. Lines of Pickerill
C. Hunter Schreger lines
D. Stria of Wickhem

# The lateral spread of dentinal caries is facilitated most by the:
A. Enamel spindles
B. Dentinoenamel junction
C. Enamel lamellae
D. Stria of Retzius

# First histopathological change in enamel caries is:
A. Loss of interprismatic substance
B. Disintegration of enamel prisms
C. Accentuation of incremental line of Retzius
D. Chalky white area of calcification

# All are true about Striae of Retzius Except:
A. Constitute the rest lines within the enamel rods
B. Have high inorganic content
C. They are areas of increased porosity
D. Allow the movement of water and small ions

# In the ground sections of enamel, incremental lines of Retzius are because of:
A. Successive apposition of calcium and phosphate during enamel formation
B. Change in the direction of enamel rods
C. Successive apposition of layers of enamel matrix during enamel formation
D. None of the above

# External manifestations of the incremental lines of Retzius:
A. Enamel lamellae
B. Enamel cracks
C. Perikymata
D. Rod ends

# After amalgam polishing, the outermost surface has crystal arranged flattened to tooth surface. This is known as:
A. Beilby layer
B. Weelby layer
C. Sealby layer
D. Teilby layer

# In a class V cavity preparation Mesiodistal walls depend on:
A. Direction of enamel rods
B. Contours of gingiva
C. Size of carious lesion
D. Location of contact area

# In a class V cavity preparation placement of external walls depend on:
A. Direction of enamel rods
B. Contours of gingiva
C. Size of carious lesion
D. Location of contct area

# In a class V cavity preparation shape of the cavity depend on:
A. Direction of enamel rods
B. Contours of gingiva
C. Size of carious lesion
D. Location of contct area

# A periapical lesion was discovered 1.5 years after RCT on maxillary central incisor. Apical curettage and biopsy showed lesion to be apical cyst. 2 years later lesion is larger than it was before surgery. Which is most likely cause of continued failure?
A. Leaking from main canals
B. Unobturated accessory canals
C. Apex was not resected
D. Actinomycosis Infection

#A periapical lesion was discovered 1.5 years after RCT on maxillary central incisor. Apical curettage and biopsy showed lesion to be apical cyst. 2 years later lesion is larger than it was before surgery. Which is most likely cause of continued failure?
A. Leaking from poorly debrided or obturated canal
B. Unobturated accessory canals
C. Apex was not resected
D. Actinomycosis Infection

# In treating a lateral incisor with periapical abscess and draining sinus, the treatment of choice for draining sinus is:
A. NO treatment
B. Curettage of the sinus tract
C. Cauterization
D. Irrigation with sodium hypochlorite

# If histologic slide and contents of canal space could be obtained , most common finding in radiolucency region is:
A. Normal pulp
B. Osteoclastic activity
C. Necrotic pulp
D. Marked decrease in cellularity

# Acid etching is done to:
A. Decrease microleakage
B. Decrease polymerization shrinkage
C. Decrease coefficient of thermal expansion
D. Decrease porosity in restorative material

# Magnitude of normal mandibular plane is:
A. 17-30 degrees
B. 115-130 degrees
C. 25-40 degrees
D. greater than 130 degrees

# Which angle is not a component of Tweed angle?
A. Frankfort mandibular plane angle
B. Incisor mandibular plane angle
C. Frankfort mandibular incisor plane angle
D. Gonial angle

# If interincisal angle is 131 degree, it implicates:
A. Maxillary incisors are retroclined
B. Incisors are proclined
C. Incisors are crowded
D. Incisors are retroclined

# In cephalometry, y axis is formed by:
A. Obtained by joining sella to gnathion and FH plane
B. Angle formed by joining nasion to gnathion and FH plane
C. It is another name of IMPA
D. Mandibular plane with Frankfort horizontal plane

# Which of the following statement about simple random sampling is true?
A. Every element in population has equal chance of being included
B. Sampling is based on similar characteristics
C. Suitable for large heterogeneous population
D. Complete list of items within the sampling is not framed

# The guidelines according to baby friendly hospital initiative includes all EXCEPT:
A. Mother and infant should be together for 24 hours
B. Initiate breast feeding in 4 hour of normal delivery
C. Giving no food or drink other than breast milk
D. Encourage breast feeding on demand

# Which of the following statements about Standard Distribution curve is true?
A. Mean = Median
B. Mean = 2 Median
C. Median = Variance
D. Standard deviation = 2 variance

# All are approaches for health education EXCEPT:
A. Provision for incentives
B. Service approach
C. Education approach
D. Health approach

# Which cephalosporin does not does not require dose reduction?
A. Cefoperazone
B. Cefuroxime
C. Cefotaxim
D. Cefepime

# What is the term for radioopacity found at root apex of young permanent teeth involved with chronic pulpitis?
A. Apical condensing osteitis
B. Apical cyst
C. Stage I apical osteofibrosis
D. Chronic apical periodontitis

# A patient develops hypoglycemia. He was on insulin and acarbose. For treatment of above what should be given?
A. Maltose
B. Glucose
C. Galactose
D. Sucrose

# All are true about exenatide EXCEPT:
A. It is GLP1 analogue
B. It is used in treatment of type I diabetes mellitus
C. Decreases glucagon secretion
D. It is given subcutaneously

# Which does not cause hypoglycemia?
A. Insulin
B. Glimepiride
C. Nateglinide
D. Acarbose

# Most cariogenic sugar is:
A. Glucose
B. Sucrose
C. Lactose
D. Fructose

# A 8 year old child comes to dental clinic with large front tooth having jagged margins. What is the treatment plan for this patient?
A. Smoothen the jagged margins and apply fluoride varnish
B. Build up other teeth to large size
C. Extraction of big teeth
D. Assure him and send him back

# Ifosfamide is:
A. Alkylating agent
B. Antimetabolite
C. Folate antagonist
D. Plant alkaloid

# Which of the following is not a sign of successful stellate ganglion block?
A. Horner's syndrome
B. Guttman sign
C. Bradycardia
D. Nasal stuffiness

# Anesthetic drug injected for paravertebral block is least likely to diffuse to:
A. Epidural space
B. Intercostal space
C. Superior and inferior paravertebral space
D. Subarachnoid space

# While giving epidural nerve block by median approach, which of the following ligaments are not encountered in the midline?
A. Supraspinous ligament
B. Interspinous ligament
C. Posterior longitudinal
D. Ligamentum flavum

# Which of the following drugs is both anti resorptive and bone formative?
A. Strontium ranelate
B. Calcitonin
C. Ibadronate
D. Teriperatide

# All of the following decrease bone resorption in osteoporosis EXCEPT:
A. Alendronate
B. Etidronate
C. Strontium
D. Teriparatide

# Ideal analgesic drug is:
A. Rapid onset of action, high efficacy, intermediate duration
B. Shorter onset, high efficacy, short duration
C. Rapid onset of action, high efficacy, long duration
D. Intermediate onset of action, high efficacy and short duration

# Abrasion related cervical lesions are more commonly on:
A. Mandibular right side
B. Mandibular left side
C. Maxillary right side
D. Maxillary left side

# All of the following microorganisms are involved in periodontitis EXCEPT:
A. Bacteroids
B. Wollinella
C. Eikenella
D. Neisseria

# Bacteria not found in healthy periodontium is:
A. Eubacterium
B. Veilonella
C. Capnocytophaga
D. Actinomyces

# The bacterial flora associated with juvenile periodontitis is:
A. Gram positive aerobic cocci
B. Gram negative aerobic cocci
C. Gram positive aerobic rods
D. Gram negative anerobic rods

# Role of plaque is obscure in:
A. Desquamative gingivitis
B. Gingivitis
C. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
D. Juvenile gingivitis

# Histological picture of chronic gingivitis is:
A. Leukocytic infiltration with increased neutrophils
B. Widening of capillaries and venules
C. Increased plasma cell and neutrophils
D. Infiltration of neutrophils, lymphocytes and plasma cells

# Which of the following is not used as an abrasive in dentifrices?
A. CaCO3
B. Amylose
C. Silicate
D. Sodium chloride

# What is the function of humectants in dentifrices?
A. Liquifies the dentifrice
B. Prevents water loss and hardening on exposure to air
C. Flavors the tooth paste
D. Cleans tooth surface effectively

# In bass method of toothbrushing, brushing motion is:
A. Vibratory pulsing
B. Horizontal strokes
C. Vibratory horizontal jiggle
D. Sweep in arc occlusally

# Which of the following is most likely to undergo malignant transformation?
A. Intradermal nevus
B. Compound nevus
C. Junctional nevus
D. Blue nevus

# Self healing carcinoma among the following is:
A. Leukoplakia
B. Keratoacanthoma
C. Benign neuroma
D. Melanoma

# Commonest site of keratoacanthoma:
A. Lip
B. Palate
C. Buccal mucosa
D. Tongue

# Cardiovascular complications of HIV include all EXCEPT:
A. Pericardial effusion
B. Cardiac tamponade
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiomyopathy

# Marked reduction in amount of dentin, widening of predentin layer, presence of large areas of interglobular dentin and irregular tubular pattern of dentin is seen in:
A. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
B. Dentin dysplasia
C. Odontodysplasia
D. Hypocalcified dentin

# Most common developmental cyst is:
A. Median anterior maxillary cyst
B. Globulomaxillary cyst
C. Median palatal cyst
D. Median mandibular cyst

# RVG sensors are protected from infection while using the radiovisiography, the best method of infection control for receptors is:
A. Autoclave the receptors after each use
B. Immerse the receptors in disinfectant
C. Wipe the sensor with 5.25% hypochlorite
D. Cover with impervious plastic sheath

# Which of the following is identified only by radiographs?
A. Mental foramen
B. Apical cyst
C. Periapical granuloma
D. Chronic periodontitis

# Which of the following represents the correct patient position for left lateral cephalogram?
A. Mid sagittal plane should be 5 feet from tube
B. Right ear should be 5 feet from tube
C. Left ear should be 5 feet from tube
D. Left eye should be 5 feet from tube

# Mercury is best disposed off by:
A. Treat with acid
B. Safe collection and reuse
C. Dumping
D. Deep burial

# Which test uses oligomer with single base pair substitution?
A. PCR
B. RFLP
C. Error coded mutation analysis
D. None

# Which of the following organelles play a pivotal role in apoptosis?
A. Mitochondria
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Nucleus
D. Golgi apparatus

# All of the following are associated with increased aging except:
A. Increased cross linkages in collagen
B. Increased superoxide dismutase
C. Increased accumulation of free radicals
D. Accumulated mutation in somatic cells

# Adverse effects of valproic acid derivative include the following:
A. Alopecia
B. Liver failure
C. Weight gain
D. Osteomalacia

# False about pioglitazone is:
A. It is PPAR gamma agonist
B. It acts on insulin gene leading to absence of insulin helps in the metabolism of carbohydrate
C. It is metabolized in liver
D. Not given in diastolic dysfunction

# Specificity of a test refers to its ability to detect:
A. True positive
B. True negative
C. False positive
D. False negative

# The diagnostic power of a test to correctly exclude the disease is reflected by:
A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Positive predictivity
D. Negative predictivity

# Trauma from occlusion least affect:
A. Periodontal ligament
B. Enamel
C. Cementum
D. Epithelial attachment

# Occlusal trauma may initiate which of the following conditions?
A. Tooth mobility
B. Gingival recession
C. Periodontal pockets
D. Suppuration in periodontal ligament

# Which of the following is not a feature of trauma from occlusion?
A. Vertical bone loss
B. Sensitivity to percussion
C. Mobility
D. Thermal sensitivity

# All of the following muscles are attached to oblique line of thyroid cartilage EXCEPT:
A. Superior constrictor
B. Inferior constrictor
C. Thyrohyoid
D. Sternohyoid

# Route not used for sedation in child is:
A. Intravenous
B. Subdermal
C. Submucosal
D. Intramuscular

# Most common route for conscious sedation in pedodontics patients is:
A. Intravenous
B. Subdermal
C. Submucosal
D. Intradermal

# All of the following nutritional assessment methods indicate inadequate nutrition EXCEPT:
A. Hb less than 11.5 gm/dL during third trimester of pregnancy
B. Increased 1-4 year mortality rate
C. Birth weight less than 2500 gm
D. Decreased weight for height