Family Dentistry Care Providers in California

 Maintaining good oral health is important for the overall health and well-being of a person. Regular dental checkups and cleanings can help prevent serious dental problems. Finding a reliable family dentistry service provider is crucial for the oral health of your family. In California, there are many family dentistry service providers who offer a wide range of dental services to meet the needs of individuals and families. In this article, we will discuss some of the family dentistry service providers in California.

Western Dental & Orthodontics - Western Dental & Orthodontics is one of the largest dental service providers in California. They offer comprehensive dental care services, including cleanings, fillings, extractions, root canal therapy, and orthodontic treatment. They have over 300 locations throughout California, making it convenient for patients to find a location near them.

Bright Now! Dental - Bright Now! Dental has multiple locations throughout California, and they offer a variety of dental services, including routine checkups, cleanings, and cosmetic dentistry procedures. They accept most insurance plans, making dental care affordable for everyone.

Coast Dental - Coast Dental is another large dental service provider in California that offers comprehensive dental care services. They have multiple locations throughout the state, and they accept most insurance plans. Their services include routine checkups, cleanings, and cosmetic dentistry procedures.

Gentle Dental - Gentle Dental is a family dentistry service provider that offers a wide range of dental services, including routine checkups, cleanings, and cosmetic dentistry procedures. They have multiple locations throughout California, making it easy for patients to find a location near them.

Western Dental Kids - Western Dental Kids is a specialized dental service provider that focuses on children's dental care. They offer comprehensive dental care services for children, including cleanings, fillings, extractions, and orthodontic treatment. They have multiple locations throughout California, making it convenient for parents to find a location near them.

Kids Dental Kare - Kids Dental Kare is another specialized dental service provider that focuses on children's dental care. They offer a wide range of dental services for children, including routine checkups, cleanings, fillings, and extractions. They have multiple locations throughout California, making it easy for parents to find a location near them.

In conclusion, maintaining good oral health is important, and finding a reliable family dentistry service provider is crucial for the oral health of your family. California has many family dentistry service providers that offer a wide range of dental services to meet the needs of individuals and families. Some of the largest family dentistry service providers in California include Western Dental & Orthodontics, Bright Now! Dental, Coast Dental, Gentle Dental, Western Dental Kids, and Kids Dental Kare. It is recommended to research and compare different providers to find the one that suits the needs of your family the best.

Dental Service providers accepting Medicaid in Texas

 Dental care is essential for maintaining good oral health and preventing serious dental problems. However, dental care can be expensive, and many people cannot afford it. Fortunately, the state of Texas has Medicaid, a government-funded program that provides healthcare coverage to low-income individuals and families, including dental care. In this article, we will explore the dental service providers listed in Medicaid in the state of Texas.

First, let's discuss Medicaid. Medicaid is a joint federal and state program that provides health care coverage to low-income individuals and families. Medicaid covers a variety of health care services, including dental care. In Texas, Medicaid is administered by the Texas Health and Human Services Commission (HHSC).

Dental services covered by Medicaid in Texas include routine exams, cleanings, X-rays, fillings, extractions, and dentures. Medicaid also covers orthodontic treatment for children with certain qualifying conditions. However, not all dental service providers accept Medicaid.

In Texas, there are several dental service providers that accept Medicaid. These providers offer a range of dental services to Medicaid recipients. Some of the largest dental service providers in Texas that accept Medicaid include DentaQuest, MCNA Dental, and Texas Children's Health Plan.

DentaQuest is one of the largest dental service providers in Texas that accepts Medicaid. DentaQuest provides a wide range of dental services, including routine exams, cleanings, X-rays, fillings, extractions, and dentures. DentaQuest also offers orthodontic treatment for children with certain qualifying conditions.

MCNA Dental is another large dental service provider in Texas that accepts Medicaid. MCNA Dental provides comprehensive dental services to Medicaid recipients, including routine exams, cleanings, X-rays, fillings, extractions, and dentures. MCNA Dental also offers orthodontic treatment for children with certain qualifying conditions.

Texas Children's Health Plan is a not-for-profit health plan that provides a variety of health care services, including dental care, to children and pregnant women enrolled in Medicaid. Texas Children's Health Plan offers a range of dental services, including routine exams, cleanings, X-rays, fillings, extractions, and orthodontic treatment.

Other dental service providers that accept Medicaid in Texas include DentaCare, Lovett Dental, and Kool Smiles. These providers offer a range of dental services to Medicaid recipients, including routine exams, cleanings, X-rays, fillings, extractions, and dentures.

In conclusion, dental care is essential for maintaining good oral health, but it can be expensive. Fortunately, the state of Texas has Medicaid, a government-funded program that provides healthcare coverage to low-income individuals and families, including dental care. There are several dental service providers in Texas that accept Medicaid, including DentaQuest, MCNA Dental, and Texas Children's Health Plan. These providers offer a range of dental services to Medicaid recipients, including routine exams, cleanings, X-rays, fillings, extractions, and dentures. If you are a Medicaid recipient in Texas and need dental care, be sure to check with your provider to see if they accept Medicaid.

Early closure of a suture is called:

 # Early closure of a suture is called: 

A. Synchondrosis 

B. Ankylosis 

C. Synostosis 

D. Epiphysis

The correct answer is C. Synostosis.

Synostosis is the early or premature fusion of two or more bones that normally remain separate. In the context of cranial sutures, synostosis refers to the premature fusion of the fibrous connective tissue that normally separates the cranial bones, resulting in a reduction or loss of cranial flexibility. This condition is also known as craniosynostosis and can lead to abnormalities in skull shape and brain growth if not treated appropriately.

In contrast, synchondrosis is a type of joint where the bones are connected by hyaline cartilage, such as the joints between the ribs and sternum. Ankylosis refers to the fusion of a joint due to disease or injury, while epiphysis refers to the rounded end of a long bone that forms a joint with another bone.

First evidence of calcification of deciduous incisors is at:

 # First evidence of calcification of deciduous incisors is at:

A. 2 months 

B. Between 1 to 2 months

C. 30 weeks in utero 

D. 11 weeks in utero

The correct answer is D. 11 weeks in utero.

According to "Developmental Dentistry" by J.R. Rooper and A.M. Foreman, the calcification of deciduous incisors begins at around 11 weeks in utero, followed by the development of other teeth in a specific sequence over the subsequent weeks and months of fetal development. 

Maximum development of face takes place in:

 # Maximum development of face takes place in:

A. 1st to 3rd  week of intrauterine life

B. 3rd to 8th week of intrauterine life

C. 9th to 12th week of intrauterine life

D. After 12th  week of intrauterine life

The correct answer is B. 3rd to 8th week of intrauterine life.

The maximum development of the face takes place during the 3rd to 8th week of intrauterine life. This is the critical period for the formation of the facial structures and features such as the eyes, nose, mouth, and ears. During this time, the embryonic tissue undergoes complex interactions and transformations that ultimately give rise to the characteristic appearance of the human face. After the 8th week, further growth and refinement of the facial structures continue, but the basic blueprint has already been established.

Reference: Langman's Medical Embryology by T.W. Sadler

The intercanine width in the mandible is completed by:

 # The intercanine width in the mandible is completed by:

A. 4 to 5 years

B. 7 to 8 years

C. 9 to 10 years

D. 10 to 12 years

The correct answer is C. 9 to 10 years.

The intercanine width in the mandible is typically completed by the time a child is 9 to 10 years old, which is when the mandibular canine teeth have fully erupted and have reached their final position in the arch. This timing can vary slightly between individuals, and it is important to consider other factors such as dental crowding or spacing when evaluating intercanine width.

The reference for this explanation is: Naini FB. Biological basis of orthodontics. John Wiley & Sons; 2015. Chapter 5: Growth and development of the mandible.

The main growth site for mandible is:

 # The main growth site for mandible is:

A. Condyle 

B. Angle

C. Symphysis 

D. Body

The correct answer is A. Condyle.

The mandibular condyle is the main growth site for the mandible. The condyle is a specialized growth center that contributes to both the length and width of the mandible. The condyle grows through endochondral bone formation, which involves the transformation of cartilage into bone tissue. The growth of the condyle is regulated by various factors such as growth hormones, growth factors, and mechanical stimuli.

While the other parts of the mandible also contribute to its overall growth and development, the condyle is the primary growth site for the mandible.

Therefore, the correct answer is A, the condyle.

Reference: Proffit, W. R., Fields, H. W. Jr, & Sarver, D. M. (2013). Contemporary Orthodontics. (5th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Mosby/Elsevier. Chapter 4: Growth of the Face and the Jaws.

Meckel's cartilage is essential for mandibular growth because:

 # Meckel's cartilage is essential for mandibular growth because:

A. It is converted into bone 

B. It is a template for bone deposition

C. It is a skeletal unit

D. It is a secondary cartilage

The correct answer is B. It is a template for bone deposition.

Meckel's cartilage is a temporary cartilage structure that forms the basis of the mandibular skeleton in the early embryo. During development, the cartilage acts as a template for the formation of bone, and the mandible grows around it. Meckel's cartilage eventually undergoes resorption, and the mature mandible is formed through a combination of endochondral and intramembranous ossification.

Therefore, the correct answer is B, that Meckel's cartilage is essential for mandibular growth because it serves as a template for bone deposition.

Reference: Proffit, W. R., Fields, H. W. Jr, & Sarver, D. M. (2013). Contemporary Orthodontics. (5th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Mosby/Elsevier. Chapter 4: Growth of the Face and the Jaws.

The mandibular condyle grows by:

 # The mandibular condyle grows by:

A. Endochondral bone formation

B. Subperiosteal surface addition

C. Interstitial growth

D. Sutural bone growth

The correct answer is A. Endochondral bone formation.

The mandibular condyle is a part of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) and it is a specialized growth center. The growth of the mandibular condyle occurs through endochondral bone formation, which involves the transformation of cartilage into bone tissue. This process is regulated by various factors such as growth hormones, growth factors, and mechanical stimuli. The endochondral bone formation process is essential for the development and growth of many bones in the body, including the long bones of the limbs and the mandible.

Reference: Proffit, W. R., Fields, H. W. Jr, & Sarver, D. M. (2013). Contemporary Orthodontics. (5th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Mosby/Elsevier. Chapter 4: Growth of the Face and the Jaws.

Center of resistance of maxilla is at:

 # Center of resistance of maxilla is at:

A. Point A

B. Palatal suture

C. Above the roots of premolar

D. Maxillary tuberosity

The correct answer is C. Above the roots of  premolar.

In theory, the movement of the maxilla can be controlled in the same way as a single tooth is controlled: by managing forces and moments relative to the center of resistance of the jaw. In practice, it is difficult to analyze exactly where the center of resistance and center of rotation of the maxilla might be, but they are above the teeth and most likely above the premolar teeth. Directing the line of force closer to the center of resistance is another major reason for including an upward direction of pull for most children who have headgear force to the maxilla.

Reference: Contemporary Orthodontics, Proffit

Age of closure of sphenooccipital synchondrosis is:

 # Age of closure of sphenooccipital synchondrosis is:

a) 6 years 

b) 12 years

c) 18 years 

d) 25 years

The correct answer is C. 18 years.

The spheno-occipital synchondrosis (also known as the basiocciput or basicranial synchondrosis) is the synchondrosis between the basisphenoid and basiocciput bones, which together when joined form the clivus. When fused, the synchondrosis is often called the spheno-occipital suture - this is a misnomer - as anatomically it is not a suture.

Fusion of the spheno-occipital synchondrosis initiates in girls at 12-13 years, and in boys at 14-15 years and is complete by 17-18 years. Fusion begins superiorly and progresses inferiorly, and also starts at the inner surface of the skull base proceeding towards the ectocranial surface.

Purpose of the post treatment retention of an orthodontic case is:

 # Purpose of the post treatment retention of an orthodontic case is:

A. To allow bony changes

B. To prevent tongue thrusting

C. To encourage the space closure

D. To let the patient get used to the new functional position of the teeth

The correct answer is D. To let the patient get used to the new functional position of the teeth

The purpose of post-treatment retention of an orthodontic case is to let the patient get used to the new functional position of the teeth. After completing orthodontic treatment, the teeth are in a new position, and the surrounding bone and soft tissues need time to adapt to this new position. During the retention period, the teeth are held in place while the surrounding structures adjust to the new position of the teeth. This helps to ensure the long-term stability of the treatment results. The retention period also allows the patient to become accustomed to the new position of their teeth and develop new habits such as proper oral hygiene practices and speech patterns.

In determining the psychological prognosis for a complete denture patient, one of the most valuable aids is which of the following?

 # In determining the psychological prognosis for a complete denture patient, one of the most valuable aids is which of the following?

A. A classification of the ridge relation

B. An evaluation of the  resorption of the ridges

C.  An evaluation of the patient’s occupational background

D. An evaluation of the patient’s present  dentures and attitudes

The correct answer is D. An evaluation of the patient’s present  dentures and attitudes

An evaluation of the patient’s present dentures and attitudes is one of the most valuable aids in determining the psychological prognosis for a complete denture patient. This is because the patient's previous experiences with dentures can greatly influence their attitude towards wearing dentures again. If the patient had a positive experience with their previous dentures, they are more likely to have a positive attitude towards wearing new dentures. On the other hand, if the patient had a negative experience with their previous dentures, they may be more resistant to wearing new dentures and have a more negative attitude towards the treatment. Therefore, evaluating the patient's present dentures and attitudes can help the clinician anticipate any potential difficulties and plan an appropriate treatment approach to ensure a successful outcome.

MCQs on Protein Metabolism - Biochemistry MCQs

# Tertiary structure of proteins is maintained by all except:
A. H2 bond
B. Hydrophobic
C. Ionic bond
D. Disulphide bond
E. None of the above

# Which of the following is a derived protein?
A. Protamines
B. Peptones
C. Prolamines
D. Lactalbumin

Which of the following is the general term for the complex microbial community that develops on the tooth surface?

 # Which of the following is the general term for the complex microbial community that develops on the tooth surface? 

a. Calculus. 

b. Saliva. 

c. Dental plaque. 

d. Dental stain. 

The correct answer is C. Dental Plaque. 

Dental plaque is the general term for the complex microbial community that develops on the tooth surface. Plaque is a soft, sticky film that forms on the teeth and can lead to dental caries and gum disease if not removed through proper oral hygiene practices, such as brushing and flossing. Calculus (also known as tartar) is a hard mineral deposit that can form on the teeth when plaque is not removed, and it can contribute to gum disease. Saliva is a fluid that helps to protect the teeth and oral tissues from infection, but it is not the same as dental plaque. Dental stain refers to discoloration of the teeth that can be caused by various factors, such as smoking, drinking coffee or tea, or poor oral hygiene.

Herpes simplex type 1 virus can be transmitted in dentistry by which of the following?

 # Herpes simplex type 1 virus can be transmitted in dentistry by which of the following? 

a. Sharps injury. 

b. Contact with skin. 

c. Inhalation of infected droplets. 

d. Contact of infected material with skin or eyes 

The correct answer is D. Contact of infected material with skin or eyes 

Herpes simplex type 1 virus can be transmitted in dentistry through direct contact with infected oral secretions or lesions, such as through contaminated instruments or gloves, or through accidental exposure to infected material during dental procedures. It is important for dental healthcare personnel to use standard precautions, such as wearing gloves and eye protection, to minimize the risk of transmission of herpes simplex virus and other infectious agents. Sharps injury and inhalation of infected droplets are not routes of transmission for herpes simplex virus, and while contact with skin may be a route of transmission, contact with infected oral secretions or lesions is a more likely mode of transmission in a dental setting.

HIV infection can be transmitted in dentistry by which of the following?

 # HIV infection can be transmitted in dentistry by which of the following? 

a. Inhalation of infected droplets. 

b. Contact with contaminated dental unit water supplies. 

c. Contact with skin. 

d. Use of infected instruments. 

The correct answer is D. Use of infected instruments. 

HIV infection can be transmitted in dentistry by the use of contaminated instruments, such as needles, dental handpieces, and other reusable instruments that are not properly sterilized. While the risk of transmission of HIV in dentistry is low, it is important for dental healthcare personnel to follow standard precautions, including proper sterilization of instruments and use of personal protective equipment, to prevent the transmission of HIV and other infectious agents. HIV is not transmitted through inhalation of infected droplets, contact with skin, or contact with contaminated dental unit water supplies, although these can be routes of transmission for other infectious agents. 

Treating all patients with the same precautions is the definition of which of the following?

 # Treating all patients with the same precautions is the definition of which of the following? 

a. Routine precautions. 

b. Standard or universal precautions. 

c. Patient-specific precautions. 

d. Procedure-specific precautions. 

The correct answer is B. Standard or universal precautions.

Standard or universal precautions are a set of infection control practices designed to prevent the transmission of infectious agents from patients to healthcare personnel and vice versa. The concept of standard precautions involves treating all patients as potentially infectious and using the same level of precautions for all patients, regardless of their diagnosis or presumed infection status. Standard precautions include practices such as hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment (PPE), safe injection practices, respiratory hygiene and cough etiquette, and safe handling of potentially contaminated equipment and surfaces. The use of standard precautions is important for protecting both healthcare personnel and patients from the spread of infectious diseases. 

Routine precautions: This term is not commonly used in infection control, but it could refer to the general precautions that are routinely taken in healthcare settings to prevent the spread of infection. These precautions may include practices such as hand hygiene, disinfection of surfaces and equipment, and isolation of patients with infectious diseases.

Patient-specific precautions: This refers to infection control measures that are tailored to the specific needs and risks of individual patients. For example, a patient with a highly contagious respiratory illness may be placed in an airborne infection isolation room, which is a specific type of isolation room that is designed to prevent the spread of infectious agents through the air.

Procedure-specific precautions: This refers to infection control measures that are tailored to specific medical procedures. For example, a surgical procedure may require the use of sterile equipment and surgical attire, and the cleaning and disinfection of the surgical site before and after the procedure. Procedure-specific precautions are designed to prevent the transmission of infectious agents during the performance of specific procedures.

The classification of infection control depends on the procedure being performed and the risk of which of the following?

 # The classification of infection control depends on the procedure being performed and the risk of which of the following? 

a. Contamination. 

b. Disinfection. 

c. Transmission. 

d. Splatter. 

The correct answer is C. Transmission.

The classification of infection control measures depends on the procedure being performed and the risk of transmission of infectious agents. Infection control measures are designed to prevent the transmission of infectious agents, which can occur through various means, such as contact with contaminated surfaces or equipment, exposure to droplets or aerosols generated during procedures, or direct contact with infected patients. The classification of infection control measures takes into account the nature of the procedure being performed, the potential for exposure to infectious agents, and the level of risk associated with the procedure. The classification can range from standard precautions for low-risk procedures to transmission-based precautions for high-risk procedures.

Which of the following defines the processes and precautions that can be taken to control the spread of infection?

# Which of the following defines the processes and precautions that can be taken to control the spread of infection? 

a. Chemical disinfectant. 

b. Aseptic technique. 

c. Infection control. 

d. Surgery cleanliness. 

The correct answer is C. Infection control.

 Infection control refers to the measures and protocols designed to prevent and control the spread of infections in healthcare settings and other settings where people may be at risk of contracting infectious diseases. This can include practices such as hand hygiene, wearing personal protective equipment (PPE), isolating patients with infectious diseases, and disinfecting surfaces and equipment. Chemical disinfectants, aseptic technique, and surgery cleanliness are all important components of infection control, but they are specific methods or tools used to achieve the goal of controlling the spread of infection. 

All of the following are examples of fibrous joint EXCEPT:

 # All of the following are examples of fibrous joint EXCEPT:

A. Symphysis

B. Gomphosis

C. Sutures

D. Syndesmosis

The correct answer is A. Symphysis.

Fibrous joints: Consists mainly of collagenous junctions between bones, Eg: Sutures, Gomphosis and syndesmosis

Cartilaginous joints: Synchondrosis (Primary cartilaginous joint) and Symphysis (Secondary cartilaginous joint)

Symphyses: All symphyses are median and almost confined to the axial skeleton.

Negative growth is a characteristic of:

 # Negative growth is a characteristic of:

A. Testis

B. Brain

C. Mandible

D. Thymus

The correct answer is D Thymus.

According to Scammon’s curves for growth, the growth of the neural tissues is nearly complete by 6 or 7 years of age. General body tissues, including muscle, bone, and viscera, show an S-shaped curve, with a definite slowing of the rate of growth during childhood and an acceleration at puberty. Lymphoid

tissues proliferate far beyond the adult amount in late childhood and then undergo involution at the same time that growth of the genital tissues accelerates rapidly. 

(From Scammon RD. The measurement of the body in childhood. In: Harris JA, ed. The Measurement of Man. Minneapolis: University of Minnesota Press; 1930.)

In sutures, there is proliferation of connective tissue followed by replacement of bone. This is called:

 # In sutures, there is proliferation of connective tissue followed by replacement of bone. This is called:

A. Endochondral bone growth

B. Intramembranous growth

C. Appositional growth

D. Periosteal growth

The correct answer is B. Intramembranous growth.

During the fourth month in utero, there is an ingrowth of blood vascular elements into various points of the chondrocranium (and the other parts of the early cartilaginous skeleton). These areas become centers of ossification, at which cartilage is transformed into bone in the process called endochondral ossification, and islands of bone appear in the sea of surrounding cartilage. The cartilage continues to grow rapidly but is replaced by bone with equal rapidity. The result is that the amount of bone increases

rapidly and the relative (but not the absolute) amount of cartilage decreases. Eventually, the old chondrocranium is represented only by small areas of cartilage interposed between large sections of bone, which assume the characteristic form of the ethmoid, sphenoid, and basioccipital bones. Growth at these cartilaginous connections between the skeletal bones is similar to growth in the limbs.

Not all bones of the adult skeleton were represented in the embryonic cartilaginous model, and it is possible for bone to form by secretion of bone matrix directly within connective tissues, without any intermediate formation of cartilage. Bone formation of this type is called intramembranous ossification. This type of bone formation occurs in the cranial vault and both jaws. 

Ref: Contemporary Orthodontics, William R. Proffit

Epigenetic factors controlling the growth of skeleton are:

 # Epigenetic factors controlling the growth of skeleton are:

A. Genetic factors present within skeleton

B. Genetic factors present outside skeleton

C. Local genetic factors

D. General non-genetic factors

The correct answer is B. Genetic factors present outside the skeleton.

According to "Van Limborgh's" multifactorial theory, growth is under control of genetic and environmental factors. Intrinsic genetic factors are the factors present within the skeleton. Epigenetic factors present outside the skull and manifests their influence in indirect way by intermediary action on associated structures Eg:- Eyes, brain etc. 

All of the following increase primary stability of miniscrew implants EXCEPT:

 # All of the following increase primary stability of miniscrew implants EXCEPT: 

A. Cortical predrilling

B. Cortical bone thickness

C. Spongy bone thickness

D. Length or diameter

The correct answer is A. Cortical predrilling

• Studies about various miniscrew designs to improve primary stability are increasing. Different changes in screw diameter, length and the design of the threads have been investigated

• Primary stability is influenced and increased by optimum loading, good bone density, more cortical bone thickness, advance screw design and root proximity. 

• Drill free method of MSI insertion is much better than pre-drilled method for primary stability of mini screw implants as in case of pre drilled method more heat is produced which leads to compromised bone regeneration hence jeopardize implant stability. 

The characteristic feature of Brader arch form is:

 # The characteristic feature of Brader arch form is:

A. Resembles metal chain hanging from two ends

B. Expanded in second molar region

C. Constricted in second molar region

D. Offsets in premolar region are present

The correct answer is C. Constricted in the second molar region.

Brader arch form: 

• Based on a trifocal ellipse 

• Trifocal ellipse almost the same wide as the catenary curve anterior segment 

• It has a somewhat wider premolar segment than the catenary curve 

• In the posterior segment trifocal ellipse constricts gradually while catenary curve does not 

• This arch form is more constricted or closely approximate at 2nd & 3rd molars 

An early prepubertal growth spurt indicates:

 # An early prepubertal growth spurt indicates:

a) Longer treatment time 

b) Fast maturing child

c) Slow maturing child 

d) An endocrine dysfunction

The correct answer is B. Fast maturing child.

An early prepubertal growth spurt can indicate a fast-maturing child. In general, girls experience a growth spurt before boys, with the average age of onset around 10 years for girls and 12 years for boys. However, in some cases, children may experience an early prepubertal growth spurt, which can occur before the typical age of onset.

While an early prepubertal growth spurt can be a sign of a fast-maturing child, it is not necessarily an indication of longer treatment time or an endocrine dysfunction. The timing and duration of growth spurts can vary widely among children and are influenced by a variety of factors, including genetics, nutrition, and overall health. If there are concerns about a child's growth or development, it is important to consult a healthcare provider for evaluation and guidance.

Greatest amount of cranial growth occurs by:

 # Greatest amount of cranial growth occurs by:

a) Birth to five years 

b) 5 - 6 years

c) 6 - 7 years 

d) 7 - 10 years

The correct answer is: A. Birth to five years.

The greatest amount of cranial growth occurs from birth to five years of age. During this time, the skull undergoes rapid growth and development to accommodate the growing brain and other structures. This period of growth is known as the rapid growth phase.

After the age of five, the rate of cranial growth slows down, and the skull undergoes more subtle changes as the child ages. While there may be some additional growth from 5-10 years of age, it is not as significant as the growth that occurs during the first five years of life.

 

Growth site of the mandible is in the:

 # Growth site of the mandible is in the:

a) Body 

b) Condylar cartilage

c) Coronoid 

d) Ramus

The correct answer is B. Condylar cartilage.

The growth site of the mandible is in the condylar cartilage. The condylar cartilage is a layer of cartilage at the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) that allows for growth and movement of the mandible. As a child grows, the cartilage in the condylar process of the mandible expands and is gradually replaced by bone. This process contributes to the growth of the mandible. The other areas of the mandible, such as the body, coronoid, and ramus, are important for muscle attachment and provide support for the teeth, but they do not play a significant role in the growth of the mandible.

Pterygoid point (Ptm) is a cephalometric point representing the radiolucent foramen of:

 # Pterygoid point (Ptm) is a cephalometric point representing the radiolucent foramen of:

A. Magnum

B. Ovale

C. Rotundum

D. Spinosum

The correct answer is C. Rotundum.

Pterygomaxillary Fissure (Ptm): 

• A bilateral teardrop-shaped area of radiolucency 

• The anterior shadow of which is the posterior surfaces of the tuberosities of the maxilla. 

• The PTM point is the intersection of the inferior border of the foramen rotundum with the posterior wall of the pterygomaxillary fissure.