# The eosinophil count in the peripheral blood smear is increased in:
A. Allergic conditions
B. Anemia
C. Polycythemia
D. Typhoid fever
# The number of walls in the apical portion of the defect is often greater than that of its occlusal portion, it is referred to as:
A. Osseous craters
B. Combined osseous defect
C. Horizontal defect
D. Vertical defect
# In marasmus, wasting is due to:
A. Prolonged dietary deficiency of calories
B. Prolonged dietary deficiency of Protein
C. Excess catabolism of fat and muscle mass to provide energy
D. All of the above
# Hyperparathyroidism is associated with:
A. Renal stones
B. Bone resorption
C. Increased level of serum calcium
D. All of the above
# Normal body mass index is between:
A. 16.5-20.5
B. 18.5-24.9
C. 25.0-29.9
D. 30.0-39.9
# Speed at which electrons travel in gas tube once released from cathode filament is dependent on:
A. Potential difference between electrodes
B. Angle between filament and andoic target
C. Amount of kilovoltage applied to the circuit
D. Intensity of current applied to the target
# Most common cause of cerebrovascular accident:
A. Arterial thrombosis
B. Venous thrombosis
C. Embolism
D. Tumor
# Which one of the following is the precursor of both gonadal and adrenocortical hormones?
A. Progesterone
B. Cortisol
C. Testosterone
D. Corticosterone
# Gingival manifestation is seen maximum with:
A. AML
B. CLL
C. CML
D. ALL
# A material like amalgam with high compressive strength but low tensile strength is said to be having:
A. Toughness
B. Brittleness
C. Ductility
D. Malleability
# Immediate management of tension pneumothorax is:
A. Tracheostomy
B. CT thorax
C. Central venous line access
D. Decompression with needle or chest tube
# Platelets adhere to the subendothelial collagen through one of the following:
A. Platelet factor 4
B. Fibronectin
C. Von Willebrand's factor
D. None of the above
# Most abundant immunoglobulin is:
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgA
# Dilatation of the pupil in head injury is due to:
A. Cerebral irritation
B. Compression of III cranial nerve
C. Pontine hemorrhage
D. All of the above
# Most common cause of thyrotoxicosis is:
A. Grave's disease
B. Multinodular goiter
C. TSH secreting pituitary tumor
D. Toxic adenoma
# Drugs producing ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity are:
A. Tetracyclines
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Quinolones
D. Macrolides
The correct answer is C. Disappearance of Nissl granules.
Chromatolysis is a reactive change that occurs in the cell body of damaged neurons. It involves the dispersal and redistribution of Nissl substance (rough endoplasmic reticulum and polyribosomes) to meet an increased demand for protein synthesis.
# Salivary protein which prevents transmission of HIV via saliva is:
A. Sialoperoxidase
B. Secretory IgA
C. Salivary leukocyte protease inhibitor
D. Histidine rich proteins
The correct answer is C. Salivary leukocyte protease inhibitor.
SLPI blocks HIV-1 infection of macrophages and primary T cells at concentrations (1–10 μg/mL) that occur naturally in saliva (Shugars and Wahl, 1998). These findings suggest that SLPI may be partially responsible for the low rate of oral transmission of HIV-1.
# Rotational force of extraction is used for delivery of which tooth out of the socket?
A. Upper central incisors and lower premolars
B. Upper centrals and lateral incisors
C. Upper and lower central incisors
D. Upper premolars and lower central incisors
The correct answer is A. Upper central incisors and lower premolars.
Rotational pressure, as the name implies, rotates the tooth, which causes some internal expansion of the tooth socket and tearing of periodontal ligaments. Teeth with single, conical roots (such as maxillary incisors and mandibular premolars) and those with roots that are not curved are most amenable to luxation by this technique. Teeth that have other than conical roots or that have multiple roots—especially if those roots are curved—are more likely to fracture under this type of pressure.
Ref: Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery 6th Edition, Hupp
The correct answer is C. Calcium hydroxide + Iodoform.
Metapex = Calcium hydroxide + iodoform
Vitapex = Calcium hydroxide + iodoform + Silicon based oil (better flow able property)
• Ideal material for obturating primary teeth = same resorption rate as of primary tooth roots
• Both Vitapex & metapex has same resorption rate to primary tooth root but due to better flow able property of vitapex its nearly IDEAL and best material for obturation in primary teeth.
# The condylar cartilage in the mandible is held to be a:
A. Primary cartilage
B. Secondary cartilage
C. Tertiary cartilage
D. Non growing cartilage
The correct answer is B. Secondary cartilage.
Meckel's cartilage is the primary cartilage of mandible. The cartilages at the condyle, coronoid and symphysis are the secondary cartilages. The condylar cartilage is considered as the pacemaker for growth of that bone. Nasal septum is considered as the pacemaker for growth of maxilla.
# In Peck and Peck index, mesiodistal and buccolingual measurements of which of the following tooth is taken:
A. Maxillary central incisor
B. Mandibular central incisor
C. Maxillary premolars
D. Mandibular molars
The correct answer is B. Mandibular central incisor.
Peck and Peck index:
The mandibular incisors in persons with no crowding will have smaller mesiodistal width and large labiolingual width than in persons with incisal crowding.
The proportion of the mesiodistal width of each tooth to the labio lingual thickness is calculated using the formula:
M.D.W./L.L.W x100
Mean value for lower central incisor should be 88 to 92%.
Mean value for lower lateral incisor should be 90 to 95%
If the calculated value is greater than mean value, it indicates that the mesiodistal width is more than labiolingual width and hence proximal stripping is indicated.
# According to Edward H. Angle's classification of malocclusion, what is the defining characteristic of Class III malocclusion?
A) Normal relationship of the molars but malposed teeth
B) Lower molar distally positioned relative to the upper molar
C) Lower molar mesially positioned relative to the upper molar
D) Correct line of occlusion with rotated teeth
The correct answer is C. Lower molar mesially positioned relative to the upper molar.
Angle’s classification of malocclusion in the 1890s was an important step in the development of orthodontics because it not only subdivided major types of malocclusion but also included the first clear and simple definition of normal occlusion in the natural dentition. Angle’s postulate was that the upper first molars were the key to occlusion and that the upper and lower molars should be related so that the mesiobuccal cusp of the upper molar occludes in the buccal groove of the lower molar. If the teeth were arranged on a smoothly curving line of occlusion and this molar relationship existed, then normal occlusion would result. This statement, which 100 years of experience has proved to be correct except when there are aberrations in the size of teeth, brilliantly simplified normal occlusion.
Angle then described three classes of malocclusion, based on the occlusal relationships of the first molars:
• Class I: Normal relationship of the molars, but line of occlusion incorrect because of malposed teeth, rotations, or other causes
• Class II: Lower molar distally positioned relative to upper molar, line of occlusion not specified
• Class III: Lower molar mesially positioned relative to upper molar, line of occlusion not specified
Ref: Proffit, W. R., Fields, H., Msd, D. M., Larson, B., & Sarver, D. M. (2019). Contemporary Orthodontics, 6e: South Asia Edition-E-Book. Elsevier India.
# What was Norman Kingsley's contribution to orthodontics during the latter half of the 19th century?
A) He developed the first orthodontic appliances in Greek materials.
B) He was among the first to use extraoral force to correct protruding teeth.
C) He introduced the concept of occlusion in the natural dentition.
D) He focused on the removal of teeth for various dental problems.
The correct answer is B. He was among the first to use extraoral force to correct protruding teeth.
After 1850 the first texts that systematically described orthodontics appeared, the most notable being Norman Kingsley’s Oral Deformities. Kingsley, who had a tremendous influence on American dentistry in the latter half of the 19th century, was among the first to use extraoral force to correct protruding teeth. He was also a pioneer in the treatment of cleft palate and related problems.
Ref: Proffit, W. R., Fields, H., Msd, D. M., Larson, B., & Sarver, D. M. (2019). Contemporary Orthodontics, 6e: South Asia Edition-E-Book. Elsevier India.
C. Incoordination between condylar surfaces and disc
D. Condyle too far anterior in relation to disc
The correct answer is A. Retruded condyle.
Early stages of disc displacement are characterised by clicking. Clicking can be heard while opening the mouth, while closing the mouth, or both. An opening click signifies recapture of the displaced disc between the articulating joint surfaces. A closing click occurs just prior to tooth contact and is not as loud as the opening click. When the disc becomes non-reducible, i.e. there is no recapture of the disc while opening the mouth, the clicking reduces in intensity or vanishes.
In the early stages (disc displacement with reduction), patients have been described as having increased range of anterior condylar translation. As the stage of disc displacement without reduction ensues, the patient encounters reduced mouth opening and even locked closed in some cases.
Ref: Mehndiratta A, Kumar J, Manchanda A, et al. Painful clicking jaw: a pictorial review of internal derangement of the temporomandibular joint. Pol J Radiol. 2019;84:e598-e615. Published 2019 Dec 23. doi:10.5114/pjr.2019.92287
# The best space maintainer for the early loss of upper primary incisor is the pin and tube maintainer, because :
A. It is aesthetically acceptable
B. It does not injure the upper lip
C. It is easy to fabricate
D. It allows lateral growth of the bone
The correct answer is D. It allows lateral growth of the bone.
The removable pin and tube space maintainer is designed to prevent space loss after the premature loss of a primary incisor. It allows for the natural lateral growth of the bone and provides sufficient space for the permanent tooth to erupt properly. This type of space maintainer is usually considered effective and well-tolerated by patients. While aesthetics and ease of fabrication are also important considerations, the primary purpose of a space maintainer is to preserve the space for the permanent tooth and support proper oral development.
# Salt and pepper appearance in MRI of salivary gland is suggestive of:
A. Sjogren syndrome
B. Thalassemia
C. Mumps
D. Salivary gland tumor
The correct answer is A. Sjogren syndrome.
A salt and pepper appearance of the salivary glands on MRI is particularly suggestive of Sjogren syndrome. Salt and pepper appearance of IOPA X rays is seen in Thalassemia.
The pharyngeal arches, also known as visceral arches, are structures seen in the embryonic development of vertebrates that are recognisable precursors for many structures.
In the human embryo, the arches are first seen during the fourth week of development. They appear as a series of outpouchings of mesoderm on both sides of the developing pharynx. The vasculature of the pharyngeal arches is known as the aortic arches.
During human, and all vertebrate development, a series of pharyngeal arch pairs form in the developing embryo. These project forward from the back of the embryo toward the front of the face and neck. Each arch develops its own artery, nerve that controls a distinct muscle group, and skeletal tissue. The arches are numbered from 1 to 6, with 1 being the arch closest to the head of the embryo, and arch 5 existing only transiently.
# What is the most superior point of the external auditory canal?
A. Sella
B. Porion
C. Basion
D. Orbitale
The correct answer is B. Porion.
The porion is the most superior point of the external auditory canal. The sella is the center of the hypophyseal fossa. The basion is the most anterior point of the foramen magnum. The orbitale is the most inferior point of the infraorbital rim.
# Which factor requires careful consideration, when taking measurements from an image?
A. Definition
B. Magnification
C. Reconstruction
D. Superimposition
The correct answer is B. Magnification.
The magnification factor of any image must be carefully considered when taking measurements. Image definition is significant to the overall diagnosis; however, the magnification factor is of special concern when calculating bone dimensions. Image reconstruction is largely a function of multiplanar reformatting (MPR). Superimposition is a factor for some images (panoramic radiographs and conventional tomograms); however, the magnification factor must be carefully considered when calculating bone dimensions.
# Irregular opaque areas are found on radiographs of lower anterior teeth, the teeth are vital. The cause may be:
A. Subgingival calculus
B. Cementoma
C. Condensing osteitis
D Chronic apical periodontitis
The correct answer is A. Subgingival calculus.
Calculus may be seen as small angular radiopaque deposits projecting between interproximal surfaces of the teeth or as radiopaque bands across the roots representing circumferential accumulation as illustrated in the figure.
Ref: White, S.C. and Pharoah, M.J., 2014. Oral radiology-E-Book: Principles and interpretation. Elsevier Health Sciences.
No. 245 bur has a head length of 3 mm and head diameter of 0.8 mm. This is an inverted cone carbide bur used for amalgam cavity preparations.
Benefits of the bur:
• For amalgam cavity preparations, the initial punch cut should have a depth of 1.5 mm, so it is half of this bur length, so it is very convenient to use the bur.
• In class II the proximal ditch cut is established easily with the 0.8 mm diameter bur end cuts 0.5 mm into dentin and 0.3 mm into enamel.
# During countercurrent mechanisms, which of the following area of nephron does filtrate become hypertonic to plasma?
A. Bowman’s capsule
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule
The correct answer is C. Loop of Henle.
A circuit of fluid in the loop of Henle—an important part of the kidneys—allows for gradual buildup of the concentration of urine in the kidneys, by using active transport on the exiting nephrons (tubules carrying liquid in the process of gradually concentrating the urea). The active transport pumps need only to overcome a constant and low gradient of concentration, because of the countercurrent multiplier mechanism.
Sectional NiTi wires can also be used to align a malpositioned tooth in a piggyback manner where rest of the arch is ligated with a stiff wire. With this arrangement, a light continuous force is exerted to bring the displaced tooth into the alignment while reciprocal force is distributed over the anchor teeth.
Case done by: Dr. Sushant Pandey, CODS BPKIHS
Piggyback wires offer the potential to combine wires of similar or, more commonly, markedly different physical properties. In relation to space redistribution and alignment, piggybacks typically involve use of flexible round NiTi wires in combination with more rigid base arch wires permitting alignment of displaced teeth limiting the effect of reactive forces in terms of horizontal and vertical anchorage.
Reference:
1. Kharbanda, Om. (2013). Orthodontics: Diagnosis and Management of Malocclusion and Dentofacial Deformities 2nd ed..
The atmosphere within a dental clinic plays a pivotal role in shaping patients' perceptions and experiences. Dental professionals recognize the importance of creating a welcoming and comfortable environment that goes beyond the clinical aspect of oral care. The interior design of a dental clinic is an art and science that seamlessly combines aesthetics, functionality, and the unique needs of the dental practice. Let's delve into the key considerations that make dental clinic interior designing an essential aspect of the overall patient experience.
1. Balancing Functionality and Aesthetics:
Dental clinics require a careful balance between functionality and aesthetics. The layout should be designed to optimize workflow for dental practitioners while providing a warm and inviting atmosphere for patients. Well-designed reception areas, consultation rooms, and treatment spaces contribute to a positive overall experience.
2. Patient Comfort and Relaxation:
Dental anxiety is a common concern among patients. Interior designers focus on creating spaces that alleviate stress and promote relaxation. Comfortable seating, soothing color schemes, and ambient lighting all contribute to an environment that helps patients feel at ease.
3. Ergonomics for Dental Professionals:
The efficiency of dental practitioners is directly influenced by the ergonomics of the workspace. Interior designers collaborate with dental professionals to ensure that treatment rooms are designed to support optimal working conditions. This includes considerations for equipment placement, lighting, and accessibility.
4. Technology Integration:
Modern dental practices rely on advanced technologies for diagnosis and treatment. The interior design should seamlessly integrate these technologies into the clinic's aesthetic. Concealed wiring, strategically placed outlets, and designated spaces for digital displays contribute to a streamlined and contemporary look.
5. Infection Control and Hygiene:
Maintaining a sterile and hygienic environment is paramount in dental clinics. Interior designers work closely with dental professionals to select materials that are easy to clean and resistant to bacteria. Design choices should facilitate efficient infection control practices without compromising on visual appeal.
6. Branding and Identity:
The interior design of a dental clinic serves as a visual representation of the clinic's brand and identity. Consistent color schemes, logo placement, and branded elements create a cohesive and recognizable image that reinforces the clinic's professionalism.
7. Accessibility and Inclusivity:
Dental clinic interiors should be designed with accessibility and inclusivity in mind. This involves considerations for individuals with mobility challenges and the implementation of universal design principles to ensure that everyone, regardless of physical abilities, can access and navigate the space comfortably.
In conclusion, dental clinic interior designing is a multidimensional endeavor that goes beyond choosing colors and furniture. It involves a thoughtful integration of functionality, patient experience, and the unique needs of the dental practice. A well-designed dental clinic not only fosters a positive environment for patients but also enhances the efficiency and effectiveness of dental professionals. As the field of dentistry evolves, so too does the art and science of dental clinic interior design, creating spaces that truly reflect the commitment to oral health and patient well-being.
# The preferred agent for base formation below restorative resin is:
A. Calcium hydroxide
B. Cavity varnish
C. Zinc oxide-eugenol cement
D. None of the above
# Dentin protection during cavity restoration is most important when the "remaining dentin thickness" is:
A. 1 - 2mm
B. 1.5 mm
C. 0.5 - 1mm
D. 0.5 mm
# Cavity varnish is indicated under amalgam restorations to:
A. Prevent galvanic currents from reaching the pulp
B. Improve the marginal seal of the restorations
C. Seal the dentinal tubules completely
D. Act as an effective thermal insulator
# Calcium hydroxide is preferred to ZOE fillings below a composite resin restoration as:
A. Calcium hydroxide forms a calcific bridge
B. Eugenol irritates the inflamed pulp
C. Eugenol interferes with the setting of composite resins
D. None of the above
# When using the acid etch technique to restore a Class IV fracture, exposed dentin should first be covered with:
A. Cavity varnish
B. Phosphoric acid
C. A calcium hydroxide liner
D. Zinc oxide-eugenol cement
# Which of the following bases are contra indicated under a composite resin restoration?
A. Calcium hydroxide
B. Eugenol base
C. Zinc phosphate cement
D. None of the above
# Cements in dentistry can be used as:
A. Liners
B. Bases
C. RC fillers
D. All of the above
# Cavity varnish is used for:
A. To reduce thermal conductivity
B. To reduce the permeability of acid into dentinal tubules
C. Action as an obtundant
D. All of the above
# Amount of gap required for cement in restoration is:
A. 10-25 microns
B. 2 microns
C. 50-100 microns
D. No gap required
# Copal varnish is:
A. ZnO resin
B. Ca(OH)2
C. ZnO glycerin
D. All of the above
# Amalgam often tends to discolor the teeth. This can be inhibited by using:
A. A zinc free alloy
B. An alloy containing zinc
C. Calcium hydroxide on the pulpal floor
D. Cavity varnish on all cut surfaces
# Fluoride rich materials include:
A. Silicate cement
B. Glass ionomer cement
C. Polycarboxylate cement
D. All of the above
# Glass ionomer cements are composed of:
A. Alumino silicate powder and phosphoric acid
B. Alumino silicate powder and polyacrylate liquid
C. Zinc oxide powder and phosphoric acid
D. Zinc oxide powder and polyacrylate liquid
# Which one of the following dental cement accelerates the formation of reparative dentin?
A. Eugenol
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Zinc oxide
D. Silica
# Minimum thickness for type-I zinc phosphate cement should be:
A. 15 microns
B. 25 microns
C. 50 microns
D. 100 microns
# Increased amount of powder in zinc phosphate cement mixture will cause:
A. Decreased strength
B. Decreased film thickness
C. Decreased solubility
D. Increased setting time
# Which of the following is common to both zinc eugenol cement and polycarboxylate cement?
A. Polyacrylic acid is liquid
B. Chemical bond to tooth structure
C. Chelation
D. Substitution of eugenol by EBA to increase strength of cement
# The addition of which of the following can accelerate the setting time of zinc oxide cement:
A. Zinc acetate
B. Barium sulphate
C. Zinc sulphate
D. Barium chloride
# Which of the following show chemical bond with enamel:
A. Composites
B. Direct filling resins
C. Polycarboxylate cements
D. BIS-GMA resins in pit and fissure sealants
# Which of the following cements is pulpal tissues?
A. Zinc phosphate
B. Silicate
C. Glass ionomer
D. Polycarboxylate
# Which of the following do polycarboxylate and GIC have in common?
A. Polysiloxane
B. Phosphoric acid
C. Polyacrylic acid
D. Ion leachable glass
# pH of polycarboxylate liquid is:
A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 1.7
# Which is the cement with adhesive properties?
A. Zinc oxide eugenol
B. Zinc polycarboxylate
C. Silicate
D. Zinc phosphate
# Eugenol may be replaced in the zinc oxide eugenol cement by:
A. Acetic acid
B. Alginic acid
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Ortho-ethoxy acid
# The setting time of zinc phosphate may be retarded by:
A. Increase in the ratio of powder to liquid
B. Diluting the liquid with water
C. Increase the addition of powder to liquid
D. Decrease the addition of powder to liquid
# Thermal conductivity of which material is close to dentin:
A. Amalgam
B. Silicate
C. Composite resin
D. Cavity varnish
# The logical explanation for the unique anticariogenic property of most silicate cements is:
A. The reduction in enamel solubility due to fluoride uptake by enamel
B. That beryllium flux is used in silicates
C. That silicates show very little leakage at the margins of the restoration
D. Due to the high silica content
# Pulpal medication and thermal protection is given by:
A. Solution liners (2-5μm)
B. Suspension liners (25-30μm)
C. Traditional Liner (0.2-0.3 mm)
D. Cement bases
# Glass ionomer cement is composed of:
A. Zinc oxide powder and polycarboxylic liquid
B. Zinc oxide powder and phosphoric acid
C. Aluminia silicate powder and polcarboxylic liquid
D. Aluminia silicate powder and phosphoric acid
# Which of the following cements is most biocompatible with pulp?
A. GIC
B. Copper cement
C. Zinc phosphate cement
D. Zinc oxide eugenol cement
# The major component of zinc phosphate cement is:
A. Zinc oxide
B. Phosphoric acid
C. Zinc
D. None of the above
# Which of the following cements is most kind to pulp?
A. Glass ionomer
B. Polycarboxylate
C. Silicate
D. Resin cement
# Polycarboxylate cement is used for:
A. Temporary restoration
B. Luting
C. Permanent restoration
D. Die material
# Silicate cement is indicated in:
A. Mouth breathers
B. Patients with high caries index
C. In the restoration of posterior tooth
D. None of the above
# Stages of setting of GIC are:
A. Decomposition, migration, post set hardening, maturation.
B. Migration, decomposition, maturation,
post set hardening
C. Decomposition, post set hardening, migration, maturation
D. Decomposition, post set hardening, migration, maturation
# The cement, which is least soluble in oral cavity:
A. Glass ionomer
B. Resin cement
C. Polycarboxylate cement
D. Silico - phosphate cement
# Which of the following restorative material is recommended for root surface caries?
A. GIC
B. Composites
C. Direct filling gold
D. Amalgam
# If hypersensitivity develops in a glass ionomer filled tooth, indicated treatment:
A. Extraction
B. Remove the restoration and place a sedative dressing
C. Remove the restoration perform pulpectomy
D. No treatment is necessary
# The role of itaconic acid copolymer in glass ionomer cement:
A. Reduces the viscosity of the liquid and inhibits gelation
B. Increases the viscosity of the liquid and accelerates gelation
C. Increases cohesion
D. To provide radiolucency
# The advantage of glass ionomer cement reinforced with metal particles is:
A. Decreased strength but biocompatibility
B. Increased resistance to abrasion
C. Better colour
D. Ease of manipulation
# Which is the material of choice to be given in class V cavities?
A. Silicate cement
B. Polycarboxylate cement
C. Glass ionomer cement
D. Unfilled resin
# Initial best sealing of margins is done best by:
A. GIC
B. Acid etched composite
C. Amalgam
D. Polycarboxylate
# Sandwich technique consists of:
A. GIC and composite
B. Amalgam and GIC
C. Amalgam and composite
D. None of the above
# Resin modified glass ionomer is designed to:
A. Provide rapid setting to minimize cement acidity allowing early finishing
B. Reduce the rate of fluoride release
C. Reduce the cost of the product
D. Change the translucency of the products
# After 24 hrs. of setting tensile stength of GIC is:
A. Equal to ZnPO4
B. Greater to ZnPO4
C. Lesser to ZnPO4
D. None of the above
# Bond found in GIC is:
A. Covalent bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Hydrogen bond
D. Metallic bond
# Calcium Hydroxide is used in deep cavities in order to:
A. Form dentin bridge
B. To kill microorganism
C. To cause necrosis
D. As a base under restoration
# Deep caries ( less than 2 mm of dentine remaining) management with resin composite restoration would include:
A. Calcium hydroxide
B. Glass-ionomer cement
C. Dentine bonding agent
D. All of the above
# Vitremer is:
A. Resin modified GIC
B. Metal modified GIC
C. Organically modified composite
D. Polyacid modified composite
# High Viscosity GIC was discovered in:
A. 1970
B. 1980
C. 1990
D. 2000
# Atraumatic Restorative Treatment (ART) technique utilises:
A. Glass ionomer cement
B. Composite resin
C. Silver amalgam
D. Reinforced zinc oxide eugenol cement
# In class II cavity for inlay, the cavosurface margin of the gingival seat clears the adjacent tooth by:
A. 0.20 ± 0.05mm
B. 0.50 ± 0.20mm
C. 0.80 ± 0.35mm
D. 1.10 ± 0.45mm
# Cavities beginning in the proximal surfaces of bicuspids and molars are:
A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 4
D. Class 6
# Incipient caries consists of opaque, chalky white areas that appear when the tooth surface is dried, this is referred as:
A. white spot
B. hot spot
C. translucent zone
D. body of lesion
# Pit and fissure caries is seen in:
A. Class I
B. Class I compound
C. Class II
D. Class II compound
# Smear Layer consists of:
A. Enamel debris
B. Micro organisms
C. Dentinal chips
D. all of the above
# A butt joint is a:
A. 90° joint
B. 120° joint
C. 70° joint
D. 180° joint
# Enameloplasty is:
A. Filling of enamel fissures with amalgam
B. Elimination of shallow enamel fissures
C. Is same as prophylactic odontomy
D. All of the above
# A prepared cavity is best protected from moisture by:
A. Cotton rolls
B. Saliva ejector
C. Rubber dam
D. Paper napkin
# Retentive grooves in the proximal box of a class II amalgam cavity should be:
A. Sharp and elongated at the dentinoenamel junction
B. Round and elongated in the dentin
C. Round and short in the dentin
D. Sharp and elongated in the dentin
# The term ' Primary Prevention' means all of the following except:
A. Planning the patient's diet
B. Prophylactic odontomy
C. Topical application of fluoride
D. Extending cavity preparation to prevent Recurrence
# Infected dentine shows:
A. Both organic and inorganic components in reversible form
B. Both organic and inorganic components in irreversible form
C. Organic components in irreversible form and inorganic components in reversible form
D. Inorganic component in reversible form and organic component in irreversible form
# Deepening the pulpal floor during cavity preparation provides for:
A. Outline form
B. Retention form
C. Convenience form
D. Resistance form
# In which type of lesion 'eburnation' of the dentine is seen?
A. Acute caries
B. Chronic caries
C. Arrested caries
D. Root Caries
# In case of a deep carious lesion incomplete debridement is done to:
A. Allow secondary dentin formation first
B. To seal the cavity and create aseptic field
C. Prevent pulp exposure and allow a thin layer of a dentin to remain
D. Avoid microleakage
# Beveling of the pulpoaxial line angle of a class II cavity is done to:
A. Increase the strength of the restoration
B. Improved marginal adaptation
C. To prevent the fracture of enamel
D. To prevent the fracture of amalgam
# Restoration of a cusp using dental amalgam requires that:
A. All enamel be removed to provide bulk
B. Only the enamel be removed to conserve tooth structure
C. At least 2 mm of cusp be removed to provide retention form
D. At least 2mm of cusp be removed to provide resistance form
# What is common in class I cavity preparation for amalgam and gold inlay?
A. Buccolingually divergent walls
B. Mesiodistally divergent walls
C. Maximum depth is needed in both cases to provide sufficient thickness
D. All of the above
# In class 2 inlay preparation, How should the pulpal floor be placed in comparison with pulpal floor in amalgam class 2 preparation?
A. Deeper
B. Pulpal floor for amalgam should be placed deeper in dentin
C. Same as Amalgam
D. None of the above
# Class IV cavity:
A. Occurs on the proximal surface not involving the incisal edge of anterior teeth
B. Occurs on proximal surface involving the incisal edge of anterior teeth
C. Occurs on proximal surface involving the incisal edge of posterior teeth
D. Involves the buccal surface of Anterior and posterior teeth
# The retention for class 5 restoration are placed:
A. In mesial and distal areas
B. Occlusal and gingival area
C. In all except the axial wall
D. At expense of axial wall
# Extension for prevention is directly related to:
A. Removal of unsupported enamel on proximal surface of Class III cavity
B. Depth of the axial wall of a class III cavity preparation
C. Elimination of all carious dentin beyond average depth of pulpal wall
D. The outline form of the cavity preparation
# While preparing a Class II cavity on a maxillary first molar which of the pulp horns are likely to get exposed:
A. Mesiolingual and mesiobuccal
B. Distolingual and distobuccal
C. Mesiolingual and distobuccal
D. Distolingual and mesiobuccal
# In a class 1 cavity prepared for silver amalgam is extended to half the distance between the contact area and the fissures and the cusp tip, the direction of the buccal and lingual walls is:
A. Diverging
B. Converging
C. Parallel
D. Independent
# The reason for sealing caries during cavity preparation is:
A. To eliminate the need for eventual direct pulp capping
B. Produce an aseptic filed when pulp exposure is inevitable
C. To allow the formation of secondary dentin before excavation
D. To produce a hard surface as a foundation for subsequent restoration
# In a cavity preparation in which the remaining thickness of dentin is more than 1.5mm, the ideal base is:
A. Ca(OH)2
B. Zinc Phosphate
C. Silicophosphate
D. Glass ionomer
# The function of proximal grooves in a class II cavity is:
A. Resistance form
B. Retention form
C. Increases strength
D. Resistance and retention form
# An incipient carious lesion on an inter proximal surface is usually located:
A. At the contact area
B. Facial to contact area
C. Gingival to contact area
D. Lingual to contact area
# In an ideal restoration, gingival margin should be:
A. Below contact point but 1mm occlusal to gingival crest
B. Below contact point but at level of gingival crest
C. Below gingival crest
D. At contact point
# Gingival extension for a restoration should be:
A. At the gingival crest
B. At least 1mm above the alveolar crest
C. At least 3mm above the alveolar crest
D. Doesn't have any relation with alveolar crest height
# Resistance form of cavity preparation is:
A. Flat pulp floor
B. enough depth of the cavity
C. Restricted size of the external walls
D. all of the above
# During M.O.D. preparation one of the cusps is undermined, indicated treatment is:
A. Reduction of cusp and include in the preparation for on lay
B. Reduction of all the cusps and crown is indicated
C. Strengthened by use of Amalgam core
D. Cusp is beveled and the patient is advised not to exert force on the cusp
# Resistance form is that shape of cavity which:
A. Prevents displacement of restoration
B. permits the restoration to withstand occlusal forces
C. Allows adequate instrumentation
D. Allows the restoration to withstand occlusal forces and prevent displacement
# A dental floss is applied to the distal bow of a clamp, its function is:
A. To facilitate the removal of the clamp
B. To prevent aspiration of clamp
C. To anchor the dam as cervically as possible
D. To stabilize the damp
# Which of the following is commonly recommended procedure for debridement?
A. Citric acid
B. Hydrogen peroxide - 10%
C. Air and water spray
D. Hydrochloric acid
# The axiopulpal depth of the proximal box in class II cavity is:
A. 0.2 to 0.8 mm
B. 0.5 to 1 mm
C. 1 to 2 mm
D. 2 to 3 mm
# Purpose of cavity preparation is:
A. To receive restorating material
B. To cleanse the caries
C. To remove bacteria
D. None
# First step in removing a rubber dam is to:
A. Remove the clamp
B. Release the holder
C. Apply a water soluble Lubricant
D. Cut the interseptal rubber with scissors
# To avoid pulpal irritation below a resistant metallic restoration, the minimum dentin thickness which should remain is:
A. 0.5 mm
B. 1.5 mm
C. 1.0 mm
D. 2.0 mm
# According to Black's classification caries on lingual pits of maxillary central incisors are:
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
# In a class II cavity in an incisor the retentive points are placed:
A. At the DEJ
B. In the dentin
C. In the axial wall
D. Never on labial or Lingual walls
# Inappropriate margins in restorations are corrected primarily because:
A. They retain food debris
B. Inhibit proper plaque removal
C. Disturb occlusion
D. Create Sensitivity
# The most common cause of fracture at the isthmus of class II dental amalgam restoration is:
A. Delayed expansion
B. Inadequate depth at the isthmus area
C. Inadequate width at the isthmus area
D. Moisture contamination of the amalgam during placement.
# 'Saucering" out of small pits to improve self cleansing property is called:
A. Saucerisation
B. Enameloplasty
C. Odontotomy
D. None of the above
# Mesial and distal wall of class V cavity depends on:
A. Direction of enamel rods
B. Presence of carious Lesion
C. Contour of gingiva
D. Location of contact area
# The base of class III preparation is:
A. Axial wall
B. Gingival wall
C. Facial wall
D. Lingual wall
# While preparing occlusal cavity for amalgam in mandibular first premolar, the bur:
A. Is kept absolutely vertical
B. Is tilted slightly buccally
C. Is tilted slightly lingually
D. Can be kept in any direction
# Which of the following is not a consideration for obtaining a resistance form during cavity preparation?
A. Stress patterns of teeth
B. Direction of enamel rods
C. Designing outline form with minimal extension
D. Dovetail preparation of restoration to occlusal loading
# Gingivally the depth of a class V cavity is:
A. 0.5 - 1 mm
B. 0.75 - 1 mm
C. 1-1.25 mm
D. 2-3 mm
# For cast restorations the cavity wall should have a taper of:
A. 30-45
B. 5-10
C. 2-5
D. none of the above
# In modified class III cavity restoration retention is obtained mainly by:
A. Acid etching
B. Retentive groove/slot
C. Retentive point
D. Retentive pin
# During cavity preparation, more incidence of exposure is in:
A. Class V cavity in first premolar
B. Class II mesio occlusal cavity
C. Class II disto occlusal cavity
D. Class IV cavity
# Transverse section of Class V through the axial wall is:
A. Convex
B. Concave
C. Kidney shaped
D. Straight
# The cavosurface angle for inlay cavity preparation:
A. 90 degree
B. 150 degree
C. Less than 90 degree
D. 180 degree
# Caries detection dye can stain the following except:
A. Granular necrotic tissue
B. Dry, leathery dentin
C. Reversibly denatured collagen
D. lrreversibly denatured collagen
# The modified class III preparation uses a dovetail on the lingual side in:
A. Maxillary canine
B. Mandibular canine
C. Mandibular central incisor
D. Mandibular lateral incisor
# Preparation of class I cavities for dental amalgam, direct filling gold or gold in lays have in common:
A. Occlusally diverging facial and lingual walls
B. Occlusally diverging mesial and distal
C. Occlusally converging facial and lingual walls
D. Occlusally converging mesial and distal walls
# Which of the following prevents fracture of MO amalgam:
A. Beveling of axiopulpal line angle
B. Occlusal dovetails
C. Pin retained amalgam
D. Removal of unsupported enamel rods
# The non-active carious lesion is distinguished by all except:
A. Covered by a layer of plaque
B. Soft and leathery in consistency
C. Brown or black discolouration
D. Severe pain during caries removal
# In a class III cavity in an incisor tooth the retentive points are placed:
A. At the expense of facial and lingual walls and not in dentin
B. Entirely in dentin
C. In axial wall
D. By placing a groove in the lingual surfaces
# All enamel walls of a cavity preparation must consist of full length enamel rods on
A. Affected enamel
B. Affected dentin
C. Sound enamel
D. Sound dentin
# In air-abrasive technology the abrasive particles used are:
A. Iron oxide
B. Tin oxide
C. Aluminium oxide
D. Silicon oxide
# In an early carious lesion, the first structure to show evidence of destruction is the:
A. Enamel prism
B. Cuticle
C. Interprismatic substance
D. Lamellae
# Which of the following principles of the cavity preparation is not considered much in modern methods of restorative Dentistry?
A. Extension for prevention
B. Convenient form
C. removal of the undermined enamel
D. Removal of the carious dentine
# The wall absent in class V lesion:
A. Axial wall
B. Mesial
C. Distal
D. Pulpal wall
# It is essential to lubricate dam before applying it. Which of these is NOT a suitable lubricant?
A. Shaving cream
B. Liquid soap
C. Scrub gel
D. Vaseline
# Which is the WRONG way to apply dam using a wingless clamp?
A. Put the clamp on the tooth
B. Place the dam on the tooth with fingers, and then position the clamp over it
C. Attach the dam over the clamp and frame outside the mouth, then put the assembly over the tooth using clamp holders OVER THE dam
D. Attach the dam over the clamp and frame outside the mouth, and then put the assembly over the tooth using clamp holders UNDER the dam
# When composites are given, exposed dentin should be covered with:
A. Varnish
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Phosphoric acid
D. ZnO eugenol cements
# Dental Pulp under any restoration is best protected by:
A. Cavity liner
B. Cavity base
C. 2 mm thick dentin
D. All of the above
# Which one of the following provides most conservative approach while restoring the tooth?
A. Cast gold
B. Dental amalgam
C. Glass ionomer cement
D. Composite resin
# In cavity preparation, line angle is:
A. Union of three surfaces
B. Union of four surfaces
C. The junction of two plane surfaces of different orientation along a line
D. Internal boundary of a cavity
# The tip diameter of a 245 bur used for conventional amalgam preparation is:
A. 2 mm
B. 0.8 mm
C. 0.3 mm
D. 0.4 mm
# The total number of point angles present for Class II amalgam restorations is:
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 11
# Whenever the caries cone in enamel is larger or at least the same size as that in dentin, it is called as:
A. Residual caries
B. Recurrent caries
C. Forward caries
D. Backward caries
# What is the major difference between a class V cavity preparation for amalgam and one for composite resin by the acid-etch technique?
A. Depth
B. Convenience form
C. Position of retentive points
D. Angulation of enamel cavosurface margins
# Cervical restorations fail mostly due to:
A. Inadequate moisture control
B. Marginal gingivitis
C. Cuspal flexure
D. All of the above
# Proximal walls in a class I tooth preparation for amalgam should:
A. Converge occlusally
B. Diverge occlusally
C. Remain straight
D. Rounded
# The configuration factor ["C" factor] for an occlusal class I cavity is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
# Preventive resin restorations are indicated in ?
A. Non-cavitated pit and fissures
B. Deep caries to prevent progress of lesion
C. Cavitated fissures which require restoration
D. Wide cavity to prevent cusp fracture
# In diagnosing the carious lesions, the tooth surface is examined visually and tactilely. Which of the following is NOT considered as visual examination?
A. Cavitations
B. Surface roughness
C. Opacification
D. Softness of the tooth surface
# For gold inlays gingival margin finish line should be:
A. Shoulder preparation
B. Chamfer preparation
C. Bevel
D. Knife edge
# The base of class III preparation is:
A. Axial wall
B. Lingual wall
C. Gingival wall
D. Facial wall
