Dentosphere : World of Dentistry: 2024

Sodium hypochlorite irrigation depends upon:

# Sodium hypochlorite irrigation depends upon:

1. pH

2. Temperature

3. Volume

4. Concentration

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. 2 and 4

The correct answer is: D. 2 and 4 (Temperature and Concentration)

Explanation:

The effectiveness of sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl) irrigation in endodontics depends significantly on:

Temperature: Increasing the temperature of sodium hypochlorite enhances its tissue-dissolving ability and antibacterial efficacy.
Concentration: Higher concentrations of sodium hypochlorite are more effective in tissue dissolution and microbial elimination. However, they can also increase the risk of cytotoxicity and irritation.

While pH and volume affect sodium hypochlorite's properties, they are not the primary factors affecting its irrigation efficacy.

Stain used to diagnose premalignant lesions of lip is:

# Stain used to diagnose premalignant lesions of lip is:

A. Crystal violet

B. Giemsa

C. H and E

D. Toluidine blue

The correct answer is: D. Toluidine blue

Explanation:

Toluidine blue is a metachromatic dye that stains acidic tissue components and is commonly used to identify premalignant and malignant lesions. It has an affinity for DNA and RNA, highlighting areas of increased nuclear activity, such as dysplastic or malignant cells. This makes it particularly useful in diagnosing premalignant lesions of the lip and oral mucosa.

Cleft lip and palate is associated with all, EXCEPT:

# Cleft lip and palate is associated with all, EXCEPT:

A. Van der Woude Syndrome

B. Gardner syndrome

C. Treacher Collin Syndrome

D. Pierre Robin Syndrome

The correct answer is:

B. Gardner syndrome

Explanation:

Van der Woude Syndrome:

This is a genetic condition commonly associated with cleft lip and/or palate. It is characterized by lip pits and other oral anomalies.

Gardner syndrome:

This syndrome is primarily associated with intestinal polyps, osteomas, and soft tissue tumors. It does not typically involve cleft lip or palate.

Treacher Collins Syndrome:

This genetic disorder affects craniofacial development and can be associated with cleft palate (though cleft lip is less common).

Pierre Robin Syndrome:

This condition is characterized by mandibular hypoplasia, glossoptosis, and cleft palate. Cleft palate is a hallmark feature of this syndrome.

Which of the following is not a systemic disorder causing delayed eruption of permanent teeth?

# Which of the following is not a systemic disorder causing delayed eruption of permanent teeth?

A. Segmental odontomaxillary dysplasia

B. Celiac disease

C. Cerebral palsy

D. Ichthyosis

The answer is A. Segmental odontomaxillary dysplasia.

Explanation:

Segmental odontomaxillary dysplasia:

This is a localized developmental disorder, not a systemic disorder. It affects the maxilla segmentally, often leading to delayed eruption of teeth in that specific area. However, it is not classified as a systemic disorder.

Celiac disease:

This is a systemic condition that can cause nutritional deficiencies (e.g., calcium, vitamin D), leading to delayed dental development and eruption.

Cerebral palsy:

A systemic neurological disorder that can indirectly delay the eruption of permanent teeth due to associated developmental challenges.

Ichthyosis:

Though primarily a skin disorder, certain severe systemic forms might cause delayed eruption due to associated developmental issues.

In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all EXCEPT:

# In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all EXCEPT:

A. Hemolysis

B. Malabsorption

C. Spleen sequestration

D. Bone marrow depression

The correct answer is B. Malabsorption.

In falciparum malaria, the causes of anemia include:

Hemolysis: Destruction of red blood cells.

Spleen sequestration: Trapping of red blood cells in the spleen.

Bone marrow depression: Reduced production of red blood cells in the bone marrow.

However, malabsorption is not typically a cause of anemia in falciparum malaria.

Acute angled cusps in permanent maxillary first molar are:

# Acute angled cusps in permanent maxillary first molar are:

A. Distobuccal and mesiolingual

B. Mesiobuccal and distolingual

C. Mesiobuccal and distobuccal

D. Mesiolingual and distolingual

The correct answer is B. Mesiobuccal and distolingual.

Explanation:

In the permanent maxillary first molar:

The mesiobuccal and distolingual cusps form acute angles.

The mesiolingual and distobuccal cusps form obtuse angles.

These acute and obtuse angles contribute to the rhomboid-shaped occlusal outline typical of the maxillary first molar.

Most common side effect of long term heavy dose of carbamazepine is:

# Most common side effect of long term heavy dose of carbamazepine is:

A. Aplastic Anemia

B. Fluid retention

C. Renal toxicity

D. Gingival hyperplasia

The correct answer is: A. Aplastic Anemia.

Explanation:

Carbamazepine is an antiepileptic drug with several potential side effects. The most common long-term serious side effect associated with heavy doses of carbamazepine is hematological toxicity, including aplastic anemia and agranulocytosis, though these are rare.

A. Aplastic Anemia: Correct. Long-term use of carbamazepine can suppress bone marrow, leading to aplastic anemia.

B. Fluid Retention: While carbamazepine can cause hyponatremia due to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), this is not the most common severe long-term side effect.

C. Renal Toxicity: Carbamazepine is not primarily known for causing renal toxicity.

D. Gingival Hyperplasia: This is more commonly associated with drugs like phenytoin, not carbamazepine.

# All are true about dental anomalies in cleft patients EXCEPT:

A. Hypodontia is the most commonly observed dental anomaly

B. Incidence of dental anomalies is strongly correlated with cleft severity

C. Maxillary lateral incisor is the most frequently affected tooth in the cleft area

D. Dental anomaly occurs more frequently on the non cleft side

The correct answer is D. Dental anomaly occurs more frequently on the non cleft side.

Explanation:

A. Hypodontia is the most commonly observed dental anomaly: True. Hypodontia, particularly in the maxillary lateral incisors, is frequently observed in cleft patients.

B. Incidence of dental anomalies is strongly correlated with cleft severity: True. More severe clefts are often associated with a higher prevalence of dental anomalies.

C. Maxillary lateral incisor is the most frequently affected tooth in the cleft area: True. This tooth is commonly missing, malformed, or displaced in cleft patients.

D. Dental anomaly occurs more frequently on the non-cleft side: False. Dental anomalies occur more frequently on the cleft side due to the disruption of normal development in the region of the cleft.

If retromolar pad and tuberosity contact, what should be done?

# If retromolar pad and tuberosity contact, what should be done?

A. Surgical reduction of tuberosity

B. Do not extend dentures to retromolar area

C. Denture fabrication not possible

D. Has no effect on denture

The correct answer is A. Surgical reduction of tuberosity.

A. Surgical reduction of tuberosity

If the retromolar pad and tuberosity contact, it can hinder proper denture seating and stability. Surgical reduction of the tuberosity creates space for the denture to fit properly and function effectively.

Sanjivani Dental Clinic Ghorahi Dang

Name of Dental Clinic: Sanjivani Dental Clinic Ghorahi Dang

Address (Full): Main Road, Infront of Krishi Bikash Bank, Ghorahi-15, Dang

Year of Establishment: 2024

Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr Aashish Upreti

CONTACT NUMBER: 082590731

NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 27536

MCQs in Orthodontics - Myofunctional and Orthopedic appliances

# All of the following can be classified as myofunctional appliances EXCEPT:
A. Anterior bite plane
B. Andersen appliance
C. Begg appliance
D. Oral screen

# All the following are passive tooth-borne functional appliances except:
A. Andersen activator
B. Woodside and Hawley activator
C. Expansion activator
D. Herbst appliance

MCQs in Orthodontics - Removable and Fixed appliances

# Adams cribs can fracture in use if the:
A. Wire is too soft
B. Tags are high on the bite
C. Base plate is too thick
D. Arrowheads are too small

# How/where should wire be bent to activate a correctly made palatal canine retractor?
A. Between the coil and tooth, but close to the coil
B. Between the coil and tooth, but close to the tooth
C. Between the coil and its insertion into the base of the palate
D. By opening out the coil

The bone of tooth socket is called:

# The bone of tooth socket is called:

A. Alveolar process

B. Alveolus

C. Gomphosis

D. Cancellous bone

The correct answer is A. Alveolar process.

The bone of the tooth socket is called the Alveolar process.

Here’s a brief explanation of the terms:

Alveolar process: The bony ridge in the jaw that contains the sockets (alveoli) for the teeth.

Alveolus: Refers specifically to the individual tooth socket itself.

Gomphosis: The fibrous joint between a tooth and its socket.

Cancellous bone: A type of bone tissue that is spongy and found within the alveolar process, but it is not specifically the term for the socket.

So the correct answer is A. Alveolar process.

Number of surfaces of an anterior tooth is:

# Number of surfaces of an anterior tooth is:

A. 5

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

The correct answer is C. 4.

The number of surfaces of an anterior tooth is typically 4. Anterior teeth, which include incisors and canines, generally have the following surfaces:

Facial (or Labial): The surface facing the lips.
Lingual: The surface facing the tongue.
Mesial: The surface closest to the midline of the dental arch.
Distal: The surface farthest from the midline.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. 4.

Universal tooth numbering system was given by:

# Universal tooth numbering system was given by:

A. ADA in 1968

B. WHO adopted

C. Adolph Zsigmondy

D. Palmer

The correct answer is A. ADA in 1968.

The Universal Tooth Numbering System, developed by the American Dental Association (ADA) in 1968, is a standardized method used primarily in the United States for identifying and labeling teeth. Here’s a detailed breakdown of its components and significance:

Overview of the System

Numbering Convention:

The system assigns a unique number to each tooth, starting from the upper right third molar (tooth #1) and moving across the upper arch to the upper left third molar (tooth #16).
The numbering then continues with the lower left third molar (tooth #17) and goes across the lower arch to the lower right third molar (tooth #32).
This creates a simple, sequential numbering system that allows for easy identification of each tooth.

Tooth Types:

The system includes all types of teeth: incisors, canines, premolars, and molars.

For example, incisors are numbered as follows:

Upper right central incisor: #7

Upper left central incisor: #9

Similarly, for molars:

Upper right first molar: #3

Lower left first molar: #19

Importance of the System

Communication:

The Universal Tooth Numbering System facilitates clear communication among dental professionals. By using a standardized number for each tooth, practitioners can avoid confusion that may arise from differing naming conventions.

Record Keeping:

This system is particularly useful for patient records, treatment planning, and documentation. It allows dentists to efficiently reference specific teeth during consultations, procedures, and follow-ups.

Education:

Dental students and practitioners benefit from learning this system as it is widely used in clinical practice. Mastery of tooth numbering is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

Alternatives to the Universal System

While the Universal Tooth Numbering System is prevalent in the U.S., other countries may use different systems, such as:

FDI World Dental Federation Notation: This system uses a two-digit code where the first digit represents the quadrant and the second digit represents the tooth within that quadrant.
Palmer Notation: This method employs a symbol to indicate the quadrant and numbers to denote the teeth within that quadrant.

Conclusion

The Universal Tooth Numbering System established by the ADA has become an integral part of dental practice in the U.S. Its simplicity and efficiency help streamline communication and improve the overall quality of dental care.

What is the area of biopsy of an ulcer?

# What is the area of biopsy of an ulcer?

A. Center of ulcer

B. Edge of ulcer

C. Adjacent mucosa

D. Margins of ulcer

The correct answer is B. Edge of ulcer.

The edge of the ulcer is the preferred site for biopsy because it is most likely to contain a mixture of both the pathological tissue and relatively healthy tissue, making it easier to assess the nature of the lesion. The center of the ulcer may contain necrotic tissue, which can obscure diagnosis, while adjacent mucosa and margins might not provide the necessary diagnostic material.

While the terms "edge" and "margin" may seem similar, in the context of ulcer biopsy, they refer to different areas:

Edge of the ulcer: This refers to the transitional zone where the ulcerated tissue meets the adjacent normal or mildly affected tissue. It contains a mix of pathological changes (inflammation, dysplasia, or neoplastic transformation) and some relatively intact tissue. This makes it ideal for biopsy because it provides a clearer picture of the disease process.

Margin of the ulcer: This term typically refers to the boundary or outer rim of the ulcer where the surrounding tissue is largely unaffected or healthy. A biopsy from the margin might miss the abnormal cellular changes that are occurring in the active disease area.

In summary, the edge includes both ulcerated and transitioning tissue, making it more useful for diagnosis, whereas the margin is often farther out in the healthier tissue, which may not show the necessary pathological changes.

Posterior triangle of neck is subdivided into two parts by which muscle?

# Posterior triangle of neck is subdivided into two parts by which muscle?

A. Sternocleidomastoid

B. Superior belly of Omohyoid

C. Inferior belly of Omohyoid

D. Pulley of Trapezius

The correct answer is C. Inferior belly of Omohyoid.

The posterior triangle of the neck is divided into two smaller triangles: the occipital triangle and the subclavian (supraclavicular) triangle. This division is created by the inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle.

Here’s a breakdown of the other options:

A. Sternocleidomastoid: Forms the anterior border of the posterior triangle, but does not subdivide it.

B. Superior belly of Omohyoid: Lies more anteriorly and is not involved in subdividing the posterior triangle.

D. Pulley of Trapezius: The trapezius muscle forms the posterior boundary of the posterior triangle but does not subdivide it.

Which of the following clinical features is not seen in Bell’s palsy?

# Which of the following clinical features is not seen in Bell’s palsy?

A. Lacrimation

B. Xerostomia

C. Drooling of saliva

D. Sensory loss over affected side

The correct answer is D. Sensory loss over affected side.

Bell’s palsy primarily affects the motor function of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), leading to muscle weakness or paralysis on one side of the face. Sensory loss is typically not a feature of Bell’s palsy, as the facial nerve is primarily motor, with only a small contribution to sensory function (taste sensation on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue). Sensory loss over the face would more likely be associated with trigeminal nerve issues (cranial nerve V).

Here’s a breakdown of the other options:

Lacrimation (A): The facial nerve affects the lacrimal gland, and changes in tearing can occur in Bell's palsy.

Xerostomia (B): The facial nerve also has parasympathetic fibers that innervate salivary glands, so dry mouth (xerostomia) can be a symptom.

Drooling of saliva (C): Muscle weakness can lead to drooling due to poor control of the facial muscles.

Anti caries vaccine is based on which immunoglobulin?

# Anti caries vaccine is based on which immunoglobulin?

A. IgA

B. IgE

C. IgM

D. IgG

The correct answer is A. IgA.

The major immunoglobulin in saliva is secretory IgA. whereas IgG, which comprises about 80% of the total immunoglobulin in serum, is found only in low level in salivary secretions. The molecular configuration renders the secretory IgA antibody exceptionally resistant to digestion by proteolytic enzymes. Consequently, it can function highly effectively in an oral environment which contains microbial proteases. Salivary IgA plays an important role in the defense of the host against colonization of streptococci by agglutination of the organisms.

Increased ketone bodies are seen in:

# Increased ketone bodies are seen in:

1. Uncontrolled diabetes

2. Protein deficiency

3. Well fed state

4. Prolonged starvation

A. 2 and 4

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1 and 2

D. 1 and 4

The correct answer is D. 1 and 4.

1. Uncontrolled diabetes: In uncontrolled diabetes, especially type 1 diabetes, there is a lack of insulin, leading to increased lipolysis and subsequent production of ketone bodies, resulting in diabetic ketoacidosis.

4. Prolonged starvation: During prolonged starvation, the body depletes its glucose stores and starts breaking down fats, leading to an increase in ketone bodies for energy.

2. Protein deficiency (Incorrect)

Protein deficiency does not typically lead to an increase in ketone bodies.

3. Well-fed state (Incorrect)

In a well-fed state, the body has sufficient glucose for energy, so ketone body production is minimal.

A 5 year old child is diagnosed with leukocyte adherence deficiency and is also affected with generalized severe bone loss adjacent to his primary teeth. What is the diagnosis?

# A 5 year old child is diagnosed with leukocyte adherence deficiency and is also affected with generalized severe bone loss adjacent to his primary teeth. What is the diagnosis?

A. Generalized aggressive periodontitis

B. Generalized chronic periodontitis

C. Gingival diseases modified by systemic factors

D. Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease

The correct answer is D. Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease.

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD) is a rare immunodeficiency disorder that impairs the body's ability to fight infection. This condition is associated with early, severe periodontitis due to the inability of leukocytes (white blood cells) to migrate to infection sites, leading to impaired immune responses and increased susceptibility to bacterial infections. The severe bone loss around the primary teeth is a manifestation of this systemic disease. Therefore, the periodontitis is secondary to the systemic condition, which makes D the most appropriate choice.

Which of the following premalignant conditions has the highest potential to become malignant?

# Which of the following premalignant conditions has the highest potential to become malignant?

A. Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia

B. Speckled leukoplakia

C. Lichen planus

D. Tobacco pouch keratosis

The correct answer is A. Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia.

Which of the following contains all three germ layers?

# Which of the following contains all three germ layers?

A. Teratoid cyst

B. Hamartoma

C. Dermoid cyst

D. Sebaceous cyst

The correct answer is A. Teratoid cyst.

In 1955, Meyer updated the concept of dermoid cyst to describe three histological variants, that is, the true dermoid, epidermoid and teratoid cyst. True dermoid cysts are cavities lined with epithelium with keratinization and skin appendages in cyst wall. Epidermoid cysts do not show skin appendages.

The lining of teratoid cyst varies from stratified squamous to a ciliated respiratory epithelium containing derivatives of ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.

Teratoid cyst rarely arises in the head and neck region, in the oral cavity; these cysts occur in the area of the floor of the mouth and may also occur on the tongue, lips, buccal mucosa or the interior of the bone.

What is not included in the measurement of the facial angle?

# What is not included in the measurement of the facial angle?

A. Facial height

B. Frankfort horizontal plane

C. Nasion point

D. Pogonion point

The correct answer is A. Facial height.

The facial angle is used to measure the degree of retrusion or protrusion of the lower jaw. This is the

inferior inside angle in which the facial line (nasion-pogonion) intersects the Frankfort horizontal

(FH). The mean reading for this angle is 87.8 degrees (SD, 3.6) with a range of 82 to 95 degrees. A prominent chin increases this angle, whereas a smaller than average angular reading suggests a retrusive chin.

Therefore, the facial angle indicates the degree of recession or protrusion of the mandible in relation

to the upper face at the point in which the Frankfort horizontal is related to the facial line (nasion-pogonion). The magnitude of this angle increases with a prominent chin.

Non surgical treatment for pericoronitis

Sometimes, the gingival tissue over your third molar teeth may become inflammed because of bacterial infections or food lodgement under the gums. The condition is very painful and may need extraction of third molar tooth or operculectomy for definitive management. However, for those patients unwilling to have their tooth extracted, conservative treatment with medication can be done for 1-2 episodes before they are ready to have the offending tooth extracted.

These medicines should be used for complete 5 days and consultation with registered doctor should be done before taking these. If you are allergic to penicillins and its congeners, these should not be taken. Stop the drug immediately and visit the emergency if you develop any rashes, difficulty in breathing after taking medicines.

Orthodontic Surgery Workshop: Diagnosis, Case Selection and Treatment Planning at BPKIHS Dharan

A two-day Orthodontic Surgery Workshop: Diagnosis, Case Selection and Treatment Planning was organized jointly by Department of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery and Department of Orthodontics and Dentofacial Orthopedics, BPKIHS, Dharan on 28th and 29th August 2024.

Due to large number and big sizes of photos, these are shared in 4 pages.

Photos of both the days are shared here.

CLICK HERE FOR DAY 1 PHOTOS

CLICK HERE FOR DAY 2 PHOTOS PART 1

CLICK HERE FOR DAY 2 PHOTOS PART 2

CLICK HERE FOR DAY 2 PHOTOS PART 3