MCQs on Cardiovascular System - Physiology

# The first heart sound is produced by the :
A. Closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves
B. Opening of the aortic and pulmonary valves
C. Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves
D. Opening of the mitral and tricuspid valves


# Parasympathetic stimulation of heart causes:
A. SA node decreases firing
B. Increased AV node excitability
C. Decreased ventricular contraction
D. Tachycardia

# Normally, the rate of the heart beat in a human is determined by:
A. Bundle of His
B. all cardiac muscles
C. the SA node
D. the cervical ganglion

# The ventricular repolarisation in ECG is best seen in:
A. "P" wave
B. "Q" wave
C. "R" wave
D. "T" wave

# Stroke output of each ventricle in normal adult is :
A. 30 ml
B. 130 ml
C. 70 ml
D. 5 liters

# Cardiac output is a measure of :
A. Peripheral resistance * tissue fluid
B. Peripheral resistance * cardiac rate
C. Blood pressure * Cardiac rate
D. Heart rate * Stroke volume

# Cardiac output is not affected by :
A. Heart rate
B. Peripheral resistance
C. Systolic blod pressure
D. Venous return

# The largest function of the total peripheral resistance is due to:
A. Venules
B. Arterioles
C. Capillaries
D. Precapillary sphincters

# All the heart valves are open during which stage of cardiac cycle?
A. Systolic ejection
B. Isovolumetric relaxation
C. Isovolumetric contraction
D. None of the above

# Minimum blood Pressure is in:
A. Aorta
B. Arteries
C. Capillaries
D. Venules
# Starling's law of the heart
A. Does not operate in the failing heart
B. Does not operate during exercise
C. Explains the increase in cardiac output that occurs when venous return is increased
D. Explains the increase in cardiac output when the sympathetic nerves supplying the heart are stimulated

# Which of the followings is true ?
A. Starling's law of heart states that increase in force of contraction is directly related to cardiac output
B. Starling's law of heart states that the force of ventricular contraction is directly related to the end diastolic volume
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

# Peripheral resistance is maximum in:
A. Aorta
B. Artery
C. Arteriole
D. Vein

# Stimulatuion of baroreceptor leads to :
A. Increased blood pressure, Increased heart rate
B. Decreased BP, decreased heart rate
C. Increased BP, decreased heart rate
D. Decreased BP, Increased heart rate

# Increased functional demand on the heart produces increased size of the myocardium by:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Fatty infiltration
D. Increased amounts of fibrous connective tissue

# Cardiac index is related to :
A. Cardiac output and body weight
B. Cardiac output and body surface area
C. Cardiac output and work of the heart
D. Stroke volume and pulse rate

# Absolute refractory period in heart :
A. Lasts till cardiac contraction
B. Longer than refractory period in skeletal muscle
C. A phase of cardiac cycle in which heart cannot be stimulated by any amount of stimulus
D. Corresponds with duration of action potential
E. All of the above

# Closure of the aortic valve occurs before the following event:
A. Isovolumetric contraction
B. Isovolumetric relaxation
C. Prediastole
D. Presystole

# Conduction velocity is least in:
A. AV node
B. SA Node
C. Purkinje fibers
D. Budele of His

# Fastest conducting tissue in human heart:
A. AV node
B. SA node
C. Bundle of His
D. Purkinje fibers

# Under resting condition, the cardiac output is ____ L/min:
A. 2.5
B. 4.25
C. 5.25
D. 9.5

# Coronary blood flow is usually predominantly controlled by :
A. Auto regulation
B. Hormones
C. Parasympathetic impulses
D. Sympathetic impulse

# Cardiac output in L/min divided by heart rate equals:
A. Cardiac efficiency
B. Cardiac index
C. Mean Stroke volume
D. Mean arterial pressure

# Cardiac cycle duration in man is:
A. 0.4 sec
B. 0.8 sec
C. 1.2 sec
D. 1.6 sec

# First heart sound occurs during the period of:
A. Isotonic relaxation
B. Isovolumetric relaxation
C. Isovolumetric contraction
D. Isotonic contraction

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Oral Cancer and Precancer of the Oral Mucosa : Histological Classification

Histological Classification of Cancer and Precancer of the Oral Mucosa
1. Carcinomas Squamous cell carcinoma Verrucous cell carcinoma Basaloid squamous cell carcinoma Adenoid squamous cell carcinoma Spindle cell carcinoma Adenosquamous carcinoma Undifferentiated carcinoma
2. Benign lesions capable of microscopically resembling oral squamous cell carcinoma and oral verrucous carcinoma Papillary hyperplasia Granular cell tumor Discoid lupus erythematosus Median rhomboid glossitis Keratoacanthoma Necrotizing sialometaplasia Juxtaoral organ of Chievitz Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis Verruciform xanthoma Verruca vulgaris Condyloma acuminatum
3. Precancerous lesions (Clinical classification) Leukoplakia Erythroplakia Palatal keratosis associated with reverse smoking
4. Precancerous lesions (Histological classification) Squamous epithelial dysplasia Squamous cell carcinoma in situ Solar keratosis
5. Benign lesions capable of resembling oral precancerous lesions White lesions resembling leukoplakia red lesions resembling erythroplakia Focal epithelial hyperplasia Reactive and regenerative atypia
6. Precancerous conditions Sideropenic dysphagia Lichen planus Oral submucous fibrosis Syphilis Discoid lupus erythematosus Xeroderma pigmentosum Epidermolysis bullosa

MCQs on Complete Dentures: Border Moulding and Posterior Palatal Seal - Prosthodontics

# The upper denture falls when the patient opens his mouth wide. This is due to:
A. Thick labial flange
B. Over extended borders
C. Thick Disto buccal flange
D. Poor Peripheral Seal

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# Distolingual extension of the mandibular impression for a complete denture is limited by the action of :
A. Stylohyoid muscle
B. Medial pterygoid muscle
C. Lateral Pterygoid muscle
D. Superior Constrictor Muscle

# Posterior Palatal Seal (PPS) anatomically is :
A. Pterygomaxillary notches and Fovea Palatine
B. Pterygomaxillary notches and PNS
C. Maxillary tuberosity and Pterygomandibular Raphe
D. Posterior limit of palatine bone

# Secondary peripheral seal area in mandible is provided by:
A. Buccal Shelf
B. Anterior lingual Border
C. Retromolar pad
D. Crest of the ridge

# Increased depth in posterior palatal seal area in mandible is provided by :
A. Tingling sensation
B. Gagging
C. Increased retention
D. Unseating of denture base

# The posterior palatal seal for a maxillary complete denture :
A. Is placed immediately posterior to the vibrating line
B. Is placed immediately anterior to the vibrating line
C. Is not necessary if a metal base is made
D. Will vary in outline and depth according to the palatal form

# The coronoid process :
A. Limits the extension of maxillary posterior teeth setting
B. Limits the thickness of the distobuccal flange of the upper complete denture
C. Limits the thickness of the distobuccal flange of the lower complete denture
D. Determines Posterior palatal seal

# The function of the posterior palatal seal is:
A. To aid in balanced occlusion
B. To aid in insertion and removal of complete denture
C. To ensure a complete seal thus helping in retention of a denture
D. Retention of mandibular denture by sealing its posterior margin

# The buccal frenal attachment of mandibular denture should be trimmed and rounded to allow proper function of :
A. Masseter
B. Buccinator
C. Triangularis
D. Zygomaticus major

# Over extension of the posterior border of the denture causes:
A. Gagging sensation
B. Epulis fissuration
C. Sagging of the corners of the mouth
D. All of the above

# Distal palatal termination of the maxillary complete denture base is dictated by the:
A. Vibrating line
B. Fovea palatine
C. Tuberosity
D. Maxillary torus

# Incorporation of peripheral seal in an impression is necessary to obtain :
A. Stability
B. Functionally moulded periphery
C. Harmonious occlusion
D. Posterior palatal seal

# In determining the posterior limit of a maxillary denture base, which of the following is on the posterior border?
A. Hamular notch
B. Hamular process
C. Fovea palatine
D. Vibrating line

# Vibrating line is on the :
A. Hard palate
B. Junction of the hard palate and soft palate
C. On soft palate
D. At the junction of the muscularis uvulae and palatine muscle

# Post dam area serves mainly to:
A. Preventing ingress of food and saliva beneath denture base
B. Preventing lifting away of denture during incising
C. Stabilize the denture
D. All of the above

# Distobuccal flange of mandibular denture is influenced by:
A. Masseter
B. Buccinator
C. Temporalis
D. Platysma


# Broad palatal seal indicates :
A. Type A palatal form
B. Type B palatal form
C. Type C palatal form
D. None of the above

# Which of the following is not a mouth temperature waxes?
A. Adaptol
B. Korrecta type I
C. HL physiologic paste
D. IOWA paste

# Posterior palatal seal is recorded when the head is bent at:
A. 30 degrees
B. 15 degrees
C. 60 degrees
D. 45 degrees

# Instructing the patient to say "AH" with short vigorous bursts will help in visualizing :
A. Soft palate
B. Posterior vibrating line
C. Anterior vibrating line
D. Junction of soft and hard palate

# Fovea palatine are situated in:
A. Hard palate
B. Soft palate
C. At the junction of hard and soft palate
D. Their position is not fixed

# Which muscle has dual function as related to complete dentures?
A. Masseter
B. Buccinator
C. Temporalis
D. Lateral Pterygoid

# The correctly placed posterior palatal seal creates :
A. Vacuum in posterior part of the palate
B. Vacuum beneath the maxillary denture
C. Partial vacuum beneath the maxillary denture
D. A close adaptation of maxillary denture at tuberosity

# Anterior vibrating line is located on:
A. Soft palatal tissue
B. Hard palatal tissue
C. Either on soft or hard palatal tissue
D. Posterior to Fovea palatine

# Mandibular complete denture should cover retromolar pad because:
A. More surface area gives better retention
B. Provides border seal
C. Resists movement of denture base
D. All of the above

# Posterior palatal seal is seen in:
A. Hard palate
B. Soft palate
C. Junction of hard and soft palate
D. Both of them

# A high tracing device is used for:
A. Extra oral graphic tracings
B. Intra oral graphic tracings
C. Cephalometric tracings
D. Determining focal forms

# The average intercondylar distance which is adequate for complete dentures is:
A. 110 mm
B. 120 mm
C. 115 mm
D. 140 mm

# The primary cause of Bennet movement is due to contraction of :
A. Lateral pterygoid
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Masseter
D. Temporalis

# Posterior palatal seal is present on:
A. Hard palate
B. Rugae area
C. Movable soft palate
D. Immovable soft palate

# Fovea palatine are:
A. Structures through which blood supply takes place
B. Mucosal salivary glands
C. Palatal termination of maxillary denture
D. Found in every individual

# During recording of the posterior palatal seal, face is tilted down 30 degrees to touch the sternum:
A. to activate the muscle of palate and pharynx
B. to activate the muscle of soft palate only
C. to prevent flow of material to throat
D. to help in sucking and swallowing

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MCQs on Developmental disturbances of Orofacial Region - Oral Pathology Part 4

# The cyst which is found within the bone at the junction of the globular process, the lateral nasal process and maxillary process is :
A. Naso-alveolar cyst
B. Globulomaxillary cyst
C. Nasopalatine cyst
D. Mid palatine cyst

# The histological appearance of " lava following around boulders in dentin dysplasia " suggests :
A. Attempt to repair the defective dentin
B. Abrupt arrest to dentin formation in crown
C. Abnormal dentin formation in disorganised fashion
D. Cascades of dentin to form root

# A four year old child with one tooth less than the normal dentition shows a large tooth with two crowns and two root canals. The anomaly is :
A. Dilaceration
B. Fusion
C. Concrescence
D. Gemination

# Which of the following is most common developmental cyst ?
A. Nasopalatine cyst
B. Naso- alveolar cyst
C. Globulomaxillary cyst
D. Median palatal cyst

# A 6 year old patient with extra cusp on maxillary central incisor is associated with all except :
A. Mohr's syndrome
B. Sturge- weber syndrome
C. Rubinstein Taybi Syndrome
D. Proteus Syndrome

# Taurodontism is seen in :
A. Klinefelter's syndrome
B. Sturge weber syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Turner syndrome

# Static bone cyst is cyst developing from ?
A. Infection of salivary gland in the mandible
B. Tissue of odontogenic apparatus
C. Tissue of the oral mucosa
D. None of the above

# Most common site for melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy (MNTI) is :
A. Maxilla
B. Mandible
C. Ethmoid bone
D. Cervical Spine

# A girl suffering from browning of teeth, wearing of enamel but not cavitory. OPG shows obliteration of pulp with narrowing of canal and deposition of secondary dentin, she gave the history that out of her four brothers, 2 are suffering from the same disease. She is suffering from :
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
C. FLuorosis
D. Odontodysplasia

# Cysts associated with vital teeth are :
A. Dentigerous cyst, Globulomaxillary teeth , Lateral periodontal cyst , OKC
B. Dentigerous cyst , Globulomaxillary cyst , Radicular cyst
C. Dentigerous cyst , OKC , radicular cyst
D. B and C

# Failure of descent of thyroid analage can be seen in the tongue :
A. In anterior 2/3 of dorsal aspect
B. In posterior 1/3 of dorsal aspect
C. Near the base of the tongue close to foramen caecum
D. In anterior 2/3 of inferior surface

# Premaxilla - Premaxillary cyst :
A. Nasoalveolar cyst
B. Nasopalatine cyst
C. Incisive canal
D. Globulomaxillary cyst
# Geographic tongue is of red color because of :
A. Infiltration of eosinophils
B. Infiltration of neutrophils
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

# According to Veau's classification of cleft lip and palate , isolated cleft palate falls under :
A. Group I
B. Group II
C. Group III
D. Group IV

# Developmental enamel defects are most commonly seen in :
A. Primary incisors
B. Primary second molar
C. Permanent incisors
D. Permanent first molar

# Based on the degree to which apical displacement of the pulpal floor is seen , " Cynodont " is the name given to :
A. Hypotaurodont
B. Mesotaurodont
C. Hypertaurodont
D. Normal tooth
# Fordyce granules mostly occurs in all of the following areas EXCEPT :
A. Vermillion of the lip
B. Posterior tonsillar pillar
C. Alveolar ridge
D. Palate

# Brittle bone syndrome is caused by :
A. Improper synthesis of procollagen
B. Polymerisation of collagen
C. Increased osteoclastic activity
D. Increased fibroblastic activity

# A 7 year old child has yellowish discoloured spot of maxillary central incisor. His mother presents a history of injury to deciduous tooth three years back with recurrent infections and swelling. The diagnosis is :
A. Turners hypoplasia
B. Generalised dental fluorosis
C. Syphillitic hypoplasia
D. Rickets hypomineralisation

# Marked reduction in amount of dentin, widening of predentin layer, presence of large area of interglobular dentin and irregular pattern of dentin is seen in :
A. Hypocalcified dentin
B. Odontodysplasia
C. Dentin dysplasia
D. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

# Amelogenesis imperfecta is a disorder of :
A. Ectoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Endoderm
D. Ecto and Mesoderm

# A child has marked difference of crown, root size, eruption pattern of left and right side of jaw. The condition is :
A. Crouzan Syndrome
B. Hemifacial hypertrophy
C. Cherubism
D. Achondroplasia

# Hypodontia is mainly found in all, except :
A. Papillon Levefre syndrome
B. Osteopetrosis
C. Cleidocranial dysostosis
D. Ectodermal dysplasia

# Most characteristic feature of mandibulofacial dysostosis is :
A. Normal hearing
B. Normal vision with coloboma
C. Mandibular prognathism
D. Vertical maxillary excess

# How will you differentiate between fibrous dysplasia and facial hemiatrophy ?
A. Size of the face
B. Distance between the anatomical soft tissue landmarks from midline
C. Shape, size and difference in eruption pattern of teeth
D. Shape of tooth and supporting structures

# A true cyst which is derived from stellate reticulum and grows in place of tooth is known as ?
A. Primordial cyst
B. Eruption cyst
C. Dentigerous cyst
D. Radicular cyst

# Supernumerary tooth, tooth within tooth is most commonly seen in :
A. Maxillary lateral incisors
B. Mandibular second premolar
C. Mandibular incisors
D. Mandibular central and lateral incisors

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MCQs on Developmental Disturbances of Orofacial region - Oral Pathology Part 3

# Epstein pearls are cysts that arise from ?
A. Squamous tissue of the mucosa
B. Connective tissue of the mucosa
C. Rests of the Malassez
D. Dental Lamina

# A dens in dente is caused by :
A. An abnormal proliferation of pulp tissue
B. Denticle formation within the pulp tissue
C. A deep invagination of the enamel organ during formation
D. A supernumerary tooth bud enclaved within a normal tooth

# In children the most frequently missing permanent teeth are :
A. First premolars
B. Second premolars
C. Maxillary lateral incisors
D. Mandibular lateral incisors

# Hutchinson's incisors are present in:
A. Congenital syphilis
B. Tertiary syphilis
C. Secondary syphilis
D. Acquired syphilis

# A 15 year old boy shows an inverted pear shaped radiolucency between the upper central incisors. The teeth are normal in all aspects. The most likely diagnosis is :
A. Globulomaxillary cyst
B. Nasopalatine cyst
C. Aneurysmal cyst
D. Dentigerous cyst

# Odontodysplasia is most common in :
A. Mandibular premolar
B. Mandibular canine
C. Mandibular third molar
D. Maxillary central incisor

# Epstein pearls are :
A. Gingival cyst of the newborn
B. Gingival cyst of adult
C. Enamel pearls
D. Epithelial rests

# Which of the following is not hereditary ?
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Cleidocranial dysostosis
C. Regional odontodysplasia
D. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

# The second most common supernumerary tooth is :
A. Mesiodens
B. Distal to third molar in maxilla
C. Distal to mandibular third molar
D. Paramolars

# Turner's hypoplasia most commonly affects :
A. Deciduous maxillary anteriors
B. Deciduous mandibular anteriors
C. Permanent maxillary anteriors
D. Permanent mandibular anteriors

# Shell teeth are more common in this variant of dentinogenesis imperfecta :
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type III and I

# Complete obliteration of pulp is seen in all except :
A. Type I dentinogenesis imperfecta
B. Type II dentinogenesis imperfecta
C. Type III dentinogenesis imperfecta
D. Dentin Dysplasia

# Which of the following is unlikely to cause enamel hypoplasia ?
A. Rickets
B. Fluoride
C. Congenital syphilis
D. Cleidocranial dysostosis

# Mulberry molars are characteristic features of :
A. Severe fluorosis
B. Trauma at the time of birth
C. Congenital Syphilis
D. Due to chronic suppurative abscess in overlying gingival tissue

# Talon's cusp is characteristic of which syndrome ?
A. Edward's syndrome
B. Klinefelter's syndrome
C. Rubinstein-Taybi Syndrome
D. Down's Syndrome

# Thistle tube appearance of pulp chamber is a feature of :
A. Coronal dentin dysplasia
B. Regional odontodysplasia
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
D. Amelogenesis imperfecta

# A bony hard asymptomatic swelling found on the midline of the hard palate, that appears radioopaque on a radiograph is most likely a :
A. Odontoma
B. Myxoma
C. Bony Cyst
D. Torus palatinus
# Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormally large pulp chambers ?
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Regional odontodysplasia
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
D. Dentinal dysplasia type I

# In Treacher's collins syndrome, there is :
A. Upward sloping of the palpebral fissure
B. Poorly developed or absence of malar bones
C. Progenia and mandibular prognathism
D. No loss of hearing

# Pierre Robin syndrome is associated with :
A. Micrognathia
B. Cleft of the lip and palate
C. Tetralogy of Fallot
D. Syndactyly

# Which of the following teeth is most likely to be congenitally missing ?
A. Maxillary central incisor
B. Mandibular canine
C. Mandibular second premolar
D. Maxillary first premolar

# Which of the following dentitions shows the highest frequency of occurence of supernumerary teeth ?
A. Maxillary deciduous dentition
B. Maxillary permanent dentition
C. Mandibular deciduous dentition
D. Mandibular permanent dentition

# The inheritance pattern of dentinogenesis imperfecta is :
A. Homozygous
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Recessive
D. X linked recessive

# Heck's disease is another name for :
A. Focal epithelial hyperplasia
B. Fibromatosis gingiva
C. Oral melanotic macule
D. Hereditary intestinal polyposis syndrome

# Large pulp chambers are characteristic of all the following conditions except :
A. Shell teeth
B. Taurodontism
C. Dentin dysplasia
D. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
# Dens in dente is commonly seen in :
A. Premolars
B. Paramolars
C. Lateral incisors
D. Maxillary canine

# Taurodontism is usually seen in:
A. Mesiodens
B. Incisor with talon/cusp
C. Mandibular first molar
D. Maxillary premolars

# Puetz - Jegher Syndrome is characterized by :
A. Deafness
B. Multiple supernumerary teeth
C. Multiple intestinal polyposis
D. Scleroderma

# Which one of the following is the cause of dilacerations ?
A. Trauma to the tooth germ during root development
B. Abnormal displacement of tooth germ during root development
C. Abnormal proliferation of enamel epithelium during tooth development
D. Abnormal displacement of ameloblasts during tooth formation

# PARULIS is an inflammatory enlargement seen in :
A. End of sinus tract
B. Extraction socket
C. Due to irritation from calculus / overhanging restoration
D. None of the above

# Dentinal union of two embryologically developing teeth is referred as :
A. Gemination
B. Twinning
C. Concrescence
D. Fusion

# In hypodontia, the most commonly affected tooth is :
A. Permanent third molar
B. Permanent second premolar
C. Permanent lateral incisor
D. Permanent Canine

# The torus mandibularis is most commonly seen in the region of :
A. Incisor region
B. Canine region
C. Molar region
D. Premolar region

# Submerged teeth are :
A. Ankylosed teeth
B. Unerupted teeth
C. Impacted teeth
D. Intruded teeth

# The cyst located at the junction of medial nasal process, lateral nasal process and maxillary process is :
A. Globulomaxillary cyst
B. Median palatine cyst
C. Nasopalatine cyst
D. Nasoalveolar cyst

# The most common congenital defect of face and jaw is :
A. Macrostomia
B. Fetal alcohol syndrome
C. Cleft lip and palate
D. Ectodermal dysplasia

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MCQs on Developmental Disturbances of Orofacial Region - Oral Pathology Part 2

# Bohn's nodules are :
A. Cystic swellings in neonates
B. Cysts associated with soft palate
C. Cysts of gingiva in growing children
D. Warts on the tongue

# False about anodontia :
A. May involve both the deciduous and the permanent dentition
B. In false anodontia, tooth doesn't undergo full development
C. may involve a single tooth
D. In total anodontia , all teeth are missing

# Turner's tooth is seen in :
A. enamel hypoplasia due to hypocalcemia
B. enamel hypoplasia due to birth injuries
C. enamel hypoplasia due to congenital syphilis
D. enamel hypoplasia due to local infection or local trauma

# All are true about supernumerary tooth except :
A. may have resemblance to normal teeth
B. distomolars does not resemble any other tooth
C. Mesiodens is the most common supernumerary tooth
D. more common in mandible

# Dental anomaly of teeth associated with defective bone formation is seen in :
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. dentinogenesis imperfecta
C. Odontodysplasia
D. Osteitis deformans

# Fusion of teeth is more common in :
A. Primary dentition
B. Permanent dentition
C. Mixed dentition
D. None of the above

# Multiple osteomas, multiple polyposis, supernumerary teeth are found in __________ syndrome :
A. Reiter's
B. Peutz - jeghers
C. Gardner's
D. Behcet's

# Prolonged administration of broad spectrum antibiotics results in the formation of :
A. Black hairy tongue
B. Median rhomboid glossitis
C. Geographic tongue
D. Fissured tongue

# Hairy tongue is characterized by :
A. Hypertrophy of fungiform papillae
B. Hypertrophy of filiform papillae
C. Hypertrophy of foliate papillae
D. Hypertrophy of circumvallate papillae

# A four year old child has less number of teeth and lateral incisors with bifurcated roots with two root canals. This condition is called:
A. Dilaceration
B. Concrescence
C. Gemination
D. Fusion
# Nasolabial cyst is thought to arise from :
A. Remnants of cell rests of Serres
B. Remnants of cell rests of Malassez
C. Remnants of cell rests of embryonic lacrimal duct
D. Maxillary sinus lining epithelium

# Microdontia is seen most commonly affecting :
A. Maxillary lateral incisor
B. Mandibular second premolar
C. Mandibular central incisor
D. Mandibular first premolar

# Taurodontism is characterized by :
A. Hypercementosis
B. Elongated wide pulp canals and short roots
C. Obliterated pulp chambers with secondary dentine deposition
D. Rootless teeth with thin shell of enamel

# Mottled enamel is due to :
A. Vitamin A deficiency
B. Excess of fluoride
C. Vitamin D deficiency
D. Teratogens

# Which of the following is a Fissural Cyst ?
A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Primordial Cyst
C. Nasopalatine cyst
D. Radicular cyst

# Bifid tongue, a congenital anomaly occurs due to non-fusion of :
A. Tuberculum impar and lateral lingual swellings
B. Hypobranchial eminence and tuberculum impar
C. The two lateral lingual swellings
D. Some of the above

# Anodontia affects the growth of :
A. Maxilla
B. Mandible
C. Alveolar bone
D. Cranium

# Delayed eruption of at least part of the dentition is a recognized feature of all of the following except :
A. Rickets
B. Congenital hyperthyroidism
C. Cleidocranial dysplasia
D. Cherubism

# About geographic tongue, all are true except :
A. Lesions may be bilaterally symmetrical on tongue
B. No treatment is required
C. Is a precancerous condition
D. May be related to emotional stress

# Which of the following dental sequel is likely in child with a history of generalised growth failure (failure to thrive) in the first 6 months of life ?
A. Retrusive maxilla
B. Enamel hypoplasia
C. Retrusive mandible
D. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
# A 4 year old child has a normal complement of primary teeth, but they are gray and exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal wear. Radiographic examination indicates extensive deposits of secondary dentin in these teeth. This condition is most likely :
A. Neonatal hypoplasia
B. Amelogenesis imperfecta
C. Cleidocranial dysplasia
D. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

# A developmental abnormality characterized by the presence of fewer than the usual number of teeth is :
A. Anodontia
B. Oligodontia
C. Microdontia
D. Dens in dente

# Median rhomboid glossitis is asssociated with :
A. Oral cancer
B. Fungal infection
C. Leukoplakia
D. Burning sensation of tongue

# Most commonly submerged tooth is :
A. Mandibular primary first molar
B. Mandibular primary second molar
C. Maxillary primary first molar
D. Maxillary primary second molar

# Epstein pearls are cysts that arise from ?
A. Squamous tissue of the mucosa
B. Connective tissue of the mucosa
C. Rests of the Malassez
D. Dental Lamina

# A dens in dente is caused by :
A. An abnormal proliferation of pulp tissue
B. Denticle formation within the pulp tissue
C. A deep invagination of the enamel organ during formation
D. A supernumerary tooth bud enclaved within a normal tooth

# In children the most frequently missing permanent teeth are :
A. First premolars
B. Second premolars
C. Maxillary lateral incisors
D. Mandibular lateral incisors

# Hutchinson's incisors are present in:
A. Congenital syphilis
B. Tertiary syphilis
C. Secondary syphilis
D. Acquired syphilis

# A 15 year old boy shows an inverted pear shaped radiolucency between the upper central incisors. The teeth are normal in all aspects. The most likely diagnosis is :
A. Globulomaxillary cyst
B. Nasopalatine cyst
C. Aneurysmal cyst
D. Dentigerous cyst

# Odontodysplasia is most common in :
A. Mandibular premolar
B. Mandibular canine
C. Mandibular third molar
D. Maxillary central incisor

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MCQs on Developmental Disturbances of Orofacial Region - Oral Pathology Part 1

# A union of the roots of adjacent teeth through the cementum is referred to as :
A. Concrescence
B. Fusion
C. Gemination
D. None of the above

# The term dilaceration refers to :
A. A deformity of a tooth consisting of a sharp bend in the root
B. Abrasions on two surfaces of a single tooth
C. A root or tooth that is split into two
D. A tooth that is fractured at two or more places