World No Tobacco Day 2018, just as in the previous years was marked and celebrated by organizing a Cartoon Poster Competition for the undergraduate students and Extempore Speech Competition for Post Graduate Students at College of Dental Surgery, BPKIHS, Dharan, Nepal. The program was Co-organized by Department of Oral Medicine and Radiology and Department of Public Health Dentistry, CODS, BPKIHS.
The theme for this year's World No Tobacco Day was " Tobacco and Heart Disease".
The Winners and runner - ups for the poster competition were Anumesh Dahal, Dimpal Thapa Magar and Smriti Chaudhary. Similarly, winners and runner-ups for the extempore speech competition were Dr. Sagar Adhikari (Department of Oral Medicine and Radiology), Dr. Shashikant Chaudhary (Department of Periodontology and Oral Implantology), and Dr. Abhinaya Luitel (Department of Oral Medicine and Radiology).
Here are the posters that participated in the program.
# Which is the immediate danger to a patient with severe facial injuries?
A. Bleeding
B. Associated fracture spine
C. Infection
D. Respiratory Obstruction
# Craniofacial dysjunction is seen in:
A. LeFort III fracture
B. Guerrin's fracture
C. High LeFort I fracture
D. None of the above
# The 'hanging drop appearance' in the maxillary sinus radiograph indicates:
A. a nasal polyp
B. a blowout fracture of the orbit
C. a radiograph artefact
D. an antrolith
# Suturing in facial wound injuries should be done within:
A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 8 hours
# Diplopia is most common with:
A. Mandibular fracture
B. Craniofacial dysjunction
C. Nasal fractures
D. Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture
# Paresthesia is seen with which of the following types of fractures?
A. Subcondylar
B. Zygomatico maxillary
C. Coronoid process
D. Symphyseal
# Forceps used for maxillary fracture disimpaction:
A. Rowe's
B. Bristows
C. Ashs
D. Walshams
# A patient is in shock with gross comminuted fracture. Immediate treatment is to give:
A. Normal saline
B. Ringer's lactate solution
C. Whole blood
D. Plasma expanders
# Walsham's forceps are used to:
A. remove teeth
B. remove root
C. clamp blood vessels
D. Reduce nasal bone fractures
# 'Panda facies' is commonly seen after:
A. Le Fort I fractures
B. Le Fort II fractures
C. Mandible fractures
D. None of the above
# A fracture of eye by a ping pong ball is:
A. Blow out fracture
B. Orbital fracture
C. Blow in fracture
D. Compound fracture
# Guerin fracture is :
A. Maxillary fracture
B. Maxillary and zygomatic fracture
C. Maxillary and nasal bone fracture
D. only nasal bone fracture
# Gillis approach for reduction of zygomatic fractures is done through:
A. Temporal fossa
B. Infratemporal fossa
C. Infraorbital fossa
D. All of the above
# Which of the following is not a feature of Le Fort II fracture?
A. Enophthalmos
B. Malocclusion
C. Paresthesia
D. CSF rhinorrhea
# The first step in management of head injury is:
A. Secure airway
B. i.v. mannitol
C. i.v. dexamethasone
D. Blood transfusion
# After fracture of middle cranial foramen, there is epiphora, this is due to damage of:
A. Ciliary ganglion
B. Greater palatine nerve
C. Infraorbital nerve
D. None of the above
# The most common complication of CSF rhinorrhea is:
A. Brain herniation
B. Blindness
C. Ascending meningitis
D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
# A 35 year old man with Le fort III fracture complains of blood tinged watery discharge from his nose 2 days after the trauma. CT scan confirms NOE fracture as well. What investigation is most confirmatory for detecting CSF leak?
A. CT scan
B. MRI scan
C. Presence of glucose in the fluid
D. presence of Transferrin Beta
# CSF rhinorrhea is found in:
A. Frontal bone fracture
B. Zygomaticomaxillary fracture
C. Nasoethmoidal fracture
D. Condylar fracture
# Which of the following is not included in the Glasgow coma scale?
A. Eye opening
B. Motor response
C. Verbal response
D. Pupil size
# Le fort III fracture is the same as:
A. Craniofacial dysjunction
B. Guerrin's fracture
C. Pyramidal fracture
D. None of the above
# Compression osteosynthesis heals fracture mandible by:
A. Primary union without callus formation
B. Secondary union without callus formation
C. Compression union
D. All of the above
# The treatment for a mandibular fracture between the incisors is:
A. Risdon wiring
B. Essig wiring
C. Cap splint with circum-mandibular wiring
D. Transosseous wiring
# Green stick fracture are most common with:
A. Older people
B. Adult
C. Children
D. Soldiers
# Lower lip paresthesia occurs in:
A. Body fracture
B. Symphysis fracture
C. Coronoid fracture
D. Condyle fracture
# Eburnation is seen in:
A. Malunion
B. Non union
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Osteoradionecrosis
# Primary healing of mandibular fracture is seen following fixation with ?
A. Gunning Splints
B. Compression plates
C. Transosseous wires
D. Clampy plates
# A fractured mandibular condyle is displaced forward and medially by the action of the following muscle:
A. Temporalis
B. External Pterygoid
C. Internal Pterygoid
D. Masseter
# Bucket handle type of fractures are seen in:
A. Children
B. Soldiers
C. Edentulous persons
D. Young adults
# A patient with unfavourable fracture of the angle of mandible is best treated by:
A. Closed reduction with intermaxillary fixation
B. Closed reduction with cap splints
C. Open reduction with interosseous wiring
D. Open reduction with rigid bone fixation
# The most common site of fracture of the mandible is the:
A. Body
B. Angle
C. Symphysis
D. Condyle
# A fracture of the mandible in the canine region in a 6 year old child should be managed by:
A. Cap splint fixation
B. Intermaxillary fixation
C. Risdon wiring
D. Transosseous wiring
# A displaced mandibular fracture in a child should be managed by:
A. Circum mandibular wiring
B. Early mobilization
C. Intermaxillary fixation
D. Transosseous wiring
# The proximal segment of mandibular angle fracture is usually displaced in which direction?
A. Anterior and superior
B. Posterior and Interior
C. Interior only
D. Posterior and Superior
# The fracture of the tooth bearing segment of the mandible is :
A. Simple
B. Complex
C. Compound
D. Comminuted
# In cases of subcondylar fracture, the condyle moves in :
A. anterior lateral direction
B. posterior medial direction
C. posterior lateral direction
D. anterior medial direction
# Most common complication of condylar injuries in children:
A. Pain
B. Ankylosis
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Fracture of glenoid fossa
# A fracture mandible should beimmpbilized for an average of:
A. 3 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 9 weeks
D. 12 weeks
# A 7 year old boy presented with fracture of left sub condylar region with occlusion undisturbed, the treatment would be:
A. Immobilization for 7 days
B. Immobilization for 14 days with intermittent active opening
C. No immobilization with restricted mouth opening for 10 days
D. No immobilization and active treatment
# The ideal treatment for fracture of the angle of mandible is:
A. Transosseous wiring
B. Intermaxillary fixation
C. Plating on the lateral side of the body of the mandible
D. Plating at the inferior border of the mandible
# All are true regarding fracture of mandible EXCEPT:
A. Fractures of the mandible are common at the angle of the mandible
B. Fractures of the mandible are effected bythe muscle pull
C. Fractures of the mandible are usually characterised by sublingual hematoma
D. CSF rhinorrhea is a common finding
Xerophthalmia characterized by dryness in conjunctiva and cornea
Bitot Spots in forms of triangular plaques in conjunctiva
if xerophthalmia persists, destruction of cornea occurs, causing total blindness. This condition is known as keratomalacia.
Keratinizing metaplasia of epithelium resulting in increased keratin formation
Occlusion of salivary gland ducts with keratin
Enamel hypoplasia, atypical dentin formation and epithelial invasion of pulpal tissue are characteristic features.
Enamel is more severely affected than dentine
Delayed eruption of teeth
Vitamin D (Anti rachitic vitamin)
Rickets in children
Osteomalacia in adults
Pigeon chest is one of the important features of rickets.
Renal rickets or renal osteodystrophy is seen in patients with chronic renal failure. Renal rickets is mainly due to decreased synthesis of calcitriol in kidney.
In rickets, the plasma calcitriol is decreased and alkaline phosphatase activity is elevated.
Delayed eruption of primary and permanent teeth
Malalignment of the teeth in the jaws
Developmental anomalies of dentin and enamel . The teeth shows wide predentin zone with much interglobular dentin.
The pulp horns are elongated and extend high , reaching the dentinoenamel junction
Vitamin E (anti -sterility vitamin)
Decreased male fertility
Impaired fetal maternal vascular relationships
Encephalomalacia
Nutritional muscular dystrophy
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Vitamin K (Coagulation vitamin)
Deficiency is uncommon
Brings about post translational modification of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, particularly prothrombin. So, deficiency may result in prolonged clotting time.
Prothrombin levels below 35% results in gingival bleeding after toothbrushing
Spontaneous gingival hemorrhages occur, when the prothrombin levels fall below 20%.
Vitamin
General Manifestations of deficiency
Oral manifestations of Deficiency
Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)
Deficiency may result in Scurvy. It is characterized by spongy and sore gums, loose teeth, anemia, swollen joints, delayed wound healing, hemorrhage, osteoporosis, etc.
Defective collagen synthesis
'Cork-screw' hair pattern, 'Woody legs' with large spontaneous bruises in lower extremities
'Trummer field zone' is the characteristic histologic picture of bone in Scurvy.
The pathognomic sign is the swollen and spongy gums, particularly the interdental papillae is involved producing the appearance of scurvy buds.
In severe cases, hemorrhages to periodontal membranes followed by loss of bone and loosening of teeth occurs.
Vitamin B1 (anti beri-beri or anti neuritic vitamin)
Vit B1 deficiency is seen in populations consuming polished rice as staple food.
Dry beri-beri or peripheral neuritis; Wet berl-beri or cardiac manifestations, and cerebral or Wernickes encephalopathy with Korsakoff's psychosis are features of vit. B1 deficiency
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Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)
Riboflavin deficiency is common in children who do not drink milk.
Nasolabial seborrhea or dyssabacea.
Vascularisation of cornea
Scrotal dermatitis
Glossitis: The filiform papillae become atrophic while the fungiform papillae become engorged and mushroom shaped, resulting in magenta colored tongue.
Cheilosis, ocular lesions. (Non-specific bilateral angular cheilosis may be seen in association with faulty dentures or in patients with reduced vertical dimension due to attrition.)
Niacin
Pellagra (the symptoms of pellagra are referred to as three D's i.e., dermatitis, diarrhoea, dementia and if not treated may lead 4th 'D' i.e, death)
Bald tongue of Sandwith
'Raw beefy tongue'
The mucosa becomes fiery red and painful
Salivation is profuse.
Vitamin B5 (pantothenic acid or chick anti dermatitis factor)
Burning feet syndrome : Pain and numbness in the toes, sleeplessness and fatigue are features
Pantothenic acid is one of the water-soluble vitamins that is synthesized in the body.
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Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
Peripheral neuropathy (due to decreased synthesis of serotonin catecholamines) and demyelination of neurons.
Isoniazid (drug used in treatment of TB) is a antagonist of Vitamin B6.
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Biotin (Anti egg white injury factor)
Biotin deficiency is uncommon since it is well distributed to foods and also supplied by the intestinal bacteria.
also known as Vitamin B7 or Vitamin H
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Folic acid
Macrocytic anemia, glossitis.
Aminopterin and methotrexate are structural analogues of folic acid used in treatment of many cancers including leukemia. These drugs block the formation of THF and hence DNA synthesis is impaired.
GLOSSITIS: The filiform papillae disappear first, but in advanced cases the fungiform papillae are lost and tongue becomes smooth and fiery red in color.
Vitamin B12 (anti pernicious vitamin or extrinsic factor of Castle)
Neurological manifestations due to degeneration of posterior and lateral tracts of spinal cord.
Degeneration of myelin sheath and peripheral nerves also occur.
Beefy red tongue with glossopyrosis, glossitis and glossodynia.
Hunter's glossitis or Moeller's glossitis, which is similar to 'bald tongue of Sandwith' seen in pellagra
#HealthForAll is a campaign to promote universal health coverage (UHC) by 2030 - our aim is to support policy-makers, civil society organizations, individuals and media in the journey to bring universal health coverage to your country. Something all countries committed to when they agreed the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) in 2015.
The World Health Organization (WHO) will maintain a high-profile focus on universal health coverage via a series of events, starting on World Health Day, 7 April 2018, with global and local conversations about ways to achieve Health for All.
- FDI offers different types of Corporate Partenerships to generate funds which are:
i) Exclusive Partnerships - FDI and its Corporate Partner would identify a common topic of interest and build together a custom-made project. Eg. FDI-Unilever Brush Day and Night Partnership started in 2004
Bleaching is a procedure which involves the lightening of the color of the tooth through the application of a chemical agent to oxidize the organic pigmentation of the tooth.
Properties of an ideal bleaching agent
An ideal bleaching agent should:
be easy to apply on the teeth
have a neutral pH
lighten the teeth efficiently
remain in contact with oral soft tissues for short periods
be required in minimum quantity to achieve desired results
not irritate or dehydrate the oral tissues
not cause damage to the teeth
be well controlled by the dentist to customize the treatment of patient needs.
Bleaching Techniques:
a) For Vital Teeth
- Home bleaching technique / Night guard vital bleaching / Matrix bleaching
# Macrolide antibiotics are usually avoided in asthmatics because:
A. it can precipitate asthmatic attack
B. it interacts with theophylline
C. such patients are usually allergic to penicillins
D. such patients show penicillin resistant infections
# Anticoagulation therapy should be advised to discontinue before minor or major oral surgical procedures if:
A. INR (international normalized ratio) is less than 3.0
B. INR is more than 3.0
C. PT (Prothrombin time) is less than 10 seconds
D. PT is in range of 10-15 seconds
# Which of the following oral manifestations can be often seen in asthmatics?
A. Xerostomia
B. Geographic tongue
C. Enamel hypoplasia
D. Aphthous ulcers
# A male patient of 76 yrs is on warfarin therapy and needs emergency extractions of a decayed tooth. Select the appropriate protocol given below.
A. Do not stop the warfarin therapy – perform the surgery with local hemostatic agents - administer vitamin K if necessary.
B. Administer heparin along with warfarin – perform the surgery
C. Advise INR – If INR is less than 2 perform surgery, if more than 2 do not perform the surgery
D. Extraction cannot be done to a patient who is on warfarin therapy
# A hospitalized patient on heparin therapy needs dental extraction. Select the antidote for such patients from the following:
A. Warfarin
B. Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)
C. Vitamin K
D. Protamine sulfate
# Endocarditis prophylaxis is recommended in one of the following conditions before extractions:
A. Cardiac pacemakers
B. Mitral valve prolapse without valvular regurgitation
C. Tetralogy of Fallot
D. Implanted defibrillators
# Which of the oral procedures will not need any antibiotic prophylaxis to minimize the risk of bacterial endocarditis?
A. Root planing
B. Suture removal
C. Placement of orthodontic bands
D. Intraligamentary injections
# Why erythromycin and tetracyclines are prescribed carefully in patients with peptic ulcers?
A. Increases acid production
B. Interacts with acid and the drug availability is reduced
C. Interacts with antacids if any
D. Both are bacteriostatic
# Pigmentation of the face, lips and oral cavity is seen in a patient who gives a history of intestinal polyps. The systemic disorder that is present is:
A. Peutz Jeghers syndrome
B. Cowden's syndrome
C. Gardner's syndrome
D. Addison's disease
# Prilocaine, an amide type of local anesthetic should not be used in one of the following conditions:
A. Renal disorders
B. Hypotension
C. G6PD deficiency
D. CNS disorders
# Choose one of the following medications that can be safely administered to a patient with chronic renal failure without any change in dosages.
A. Doxycycline
B. Gentamicin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Ciprofloxacin
# 'Mona Lisa face' is seen in which disorder?
A. Angioedema
B. Scleroderma
C. Discoid lupus erythematosus
D. Sjogren syndrome
# Which of the following are the prominent features of Behcet's disease?
A. Aphthous stomatitis, anemia, cardiac arrhythmia
B. Genital ulcers, dermal pustules, oral ulcers
C. Hematuria, periodontitis, xerostomia
D. Arthralgia, geographic tongue, ear infections
# Facial xanthomas may help in recognition of:
A. Porphyria
B. Waldenstrom's hypergammaglobulinemia
C. Hyperlipoproteinemia
D. Homocysteinuria
# One of the following disorders will not cause scarring of oral mucosa:
A. Major aphthae
B. Erythema multiforme
C. Epidermolysis bullosa dystrophica
D.
# In a patient with cardiac pacemaker, which of the following equipment can be safely used?
A. MRI
B. Ultrasonic scaler
C. Electrocautery
D. Radiographic equipment
# In a 58 year old female with insulin dependent diabetes mellitus under treatment, surgical removal of impacted mandibular third molar can be performed only if the glycated hemoglobin value is:
A. less than 80 %
B. less than 88 %
C. less than 8 %
D. less than 18 %
# A patient gives history of viral hepatitis C after undergoing liver transplant. He is on immunosupressive medications. On examinations of oral cavity, white striated lesions were present. It could be any of the following EXCEPT:
A. Graft vs host disease
B. Oral lichen planus
C. Lichenoid reaction
D. Leukoplakia
# A patient who is on high doses of corticosteroid therapy will face all of the following problems during dental treatments except:
A. Impaired wound healing
B. minor difficulties to achieve hemostasis
C. Xerostomia
D. susceptibility to infections
# What crystals are deposited in TMJ in gouty arthritis?
A. Monosodium urate
B. Calcium hydroxyapatite
C. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate
D. Calcium dihydroxide
# An elderly patient under corticosteroid therapy has to undergo dental extraction. Which is the best method to proceed?
A. Taper the dose and perform the extraction
B. Completely stop the drug and then perform the extraction
C. Supplementation of corticosteroids should be given before extraction
D. Stop the drugs immediately after extraction to allow healing
# A patient presents with bilateral facial palsy and uveitis with enlargement of parotid glands. He could be suffering from:
A. Ramsay Hunt syndrome
B. Melkerson Rosenthal Syndrome
C. Heerfordt syndrome
D. Sjogren syndrome
# A 67 year old male with a medical history of bronchial asthma and glaucoma was diagnosed of xerostomia. The appropriate method to manage the condition is:
A. Pilocarpine 5 mg thrice daily
B. Cevimeline HCl 10mg twice to thrice daily
C. Anetholetrithione
D. Artificial saliva
# 'Crowe sign' is seen in which of the following diseases?
A. Neurofibromatosis I
B. Albright syndrome
C. MEN type III
D. Cowden syndrome
# 'Coast of Maine' like border is seen in pigmented lesions of:
A. Von Recklinghausen's disease
B. Peutz - Jeghers syndrome
C. McCune Albright syndrome
D. Acanthosis nigricans
# Pseudomembranous candidiasis is seen in oral cavity of AIDS patients commonly when CD4 cells count:
A. less than 80 cells per cubic mm
B. less than 400 cells per cubic mm
C. less than 1000 cells per cubic mm
D. less than 4000 cells per cubic mm
# Trigeminal neuralgia, sensory neuropathy of trigeminal nerve and facial palsy can be usually seen in which of the following diseases?
A. Parkinsonism
B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Alzheimer's disease
# Macroglossia is seen in all of the following systemic diseases except:
A. Cretinism
B. Amyloidosis
C. Beckwith's hypoglycemic syndrome
D. Oral facial digital syndrome
# 'Rh hump' is the term used to describe:
A. hump back seen in Rh negative people
B. green or blue hue seen in teeth of erythroblastosis fetalis
C. ring-like enamel hypoplasia seen in erythroblastosis fetalis
D. hump joints seen in rheumatoid arthritis
# Chromosomal studies should be performed in a patient with taurodontism, mental retardation, tall and thin appearance with prognathic jaws to detect which of the following disorders ?
A. Rubinstein Taybi Syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Acromegaly
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
# Saddle nose is seen in all of the following disorders except:
A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
B. Thalassemia major – β
C. Congenital syphilis
D. Crouzon syndrome
# “Crocodile tears” is seen in:
A. Horton‟s syndrome
B. Frey‟s syndrome
C. Raeder‟s syndrome
D. Meniere‟s disease
# Widespread osteosclerosis is present in all of the following diseases except:
A. Marble bone disease
B. Paget‟s disease
C. Generalized cortical hyperostosis
D. Phantom bone disease
# “Bald tongue of Sandwith” is an oral manifestation of:
A. Pellagra
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Fanconi‟s anemia
# “Tapir lips” (patient unable to whisper or smile- myopathic facies) is seen in:
A. Bell‟s palsy
B. Marcus Gunn phenomenon
C. Muscular dystrophy
D. Myasthenia Gravis
# A patient with Down‟s syndrome should be sent for Physician opinion before doing any extraction. Choose the appropriate justification.
A. As they are mentally retarded, physician opinion is sought.
B. They will have to undergo multiple extractions, hence opinion is obtained.
C. Down‟s syndrome is usually associated with cardiac problems which may need antibiotic prophylaxis.
D. Local anesthesia may cause anaphylactic reactions in such patients.
# Which among the following antibiotics commonly used in dentistry may not cause pseudomembranous colitis?
A. Erythromycin
B. Ampicillin
C. Clindamycin
D. Metronidazole
# Oral bacteremias after a tooth extraction are:
A. now considered as a myth
B. generally transient & last for less than one hour
C. present at least for 6 hours
D. rare with Streptococci Viridans
# In a patient with splenectomy, which of the following is not a matter of concern for a dentist?
A. Antimicrobial prophylaxis
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Corticosteroid therapy
D. Bleeding dyscrasias
