EVALUATION SCHEME FOR COMMUNITY & PUBLIC HEALTH DENTISTRY BDS THIRD YEAR

EVALUATION SCHEME FOR COMMUNITY & PUBLIC HEALTH DENTISTRY   BDS THIRD YEAR

SECTION	TOPICS (THEORY)	TOTAL MARKS = 80	Time
SECTION A MCQ	ALL TOPICS	30 MARKS	30 mins
SECTION B SAQ	1.     Introduction/concepts of health/Basics of epidemiology, Environmental science and health, Nutrition, Demography 2.     Dental Public Health/Health Education and communication 3.     Survey and analysis, Planning and evaluation 4.     Research methodology and Biostatistics 5.     Ethics, Oral health program and policies 6.     Behavior sciences ,Dental Health Human resource	1.     6 marks 2.     5 marks 3.     5marks 4.     3 marks 5.     3 marks 6.     3 marks TOTAL =25	150 mins (Section B and C)
SECTION C SAQ	1.     Indices used in Dental public health 2.     Preventive Dentistry 3.     Fluorides 4.     Practice management, Occupational hazards 5.     School oral Health Program, Tobacco as a threat to oral health 6.     Epidemiology and prevention of dental diseases	3 marks 5marks 6marks 3 marks 3marks 5 marks TOTAL =25

NOTE:

-        One Problem-based question (PBQ’s) should be asked from section B or C.

-        MCQ’s will be single response type with 4 alternatives

-        MCQ’s distracter should not be ‘all of the above’ or ‘none of the above’.

Model Question

Community & Public Health Dentistry

3^rd Year BDS

SECTION A (MCQs)

1)     Nalgonda technique is used for

a)      Community water fluoridation

b)     Community defluoridation

c)      Salt fluoridation

d)     Milk fluoridation

Answer b

2)     Which generation of pit and fissure sealants consist of fluoride

a)      First

b)     Second

c)      Third

d)     Fourth

Answer d

3)     The most widely recommended method of removing plaque from proximal tooth surface is

a)      Unituft brush

b)     Dental floss

c)      Oral irrigating devices

d)     Chemical plaque control

Answer b

4)     Hospital acquired infection is:

a)      Water borne

b)     Contagious

c)      Opportunistic

d)     Nosocomial

Answer d

5)     When knowledge is instilled in the individual’s mind with readymade slogans, it is called

a)      Health education

b)     Health propaganda

c)      Health development

d)     Health motivation

Answer b

SECTION B                                                                                                       25 MARKS

1)     Define health. Enumerate the changing concepts of health. Write down the three elements and principles of primary health care. [1+2+3=6]

2)     Enlist the tools of dental public health. Differentiate between private practice and public health dentistry. [2+3=5]

 

3)     Classify the various types of surveys. Write about the steps of surveying. [2+3=5]

4)     Write short notes on: [3x3=9]

a.     Types of consent

b.     Functions of School dental nurse

c.      Characteristics of Normal distribution curve

SECTION C                                                                                                         25 MARKS 

5.     A 2 year old child weighing 10 kg accidentally swallowed a bottle of liquid containing 200 mg of fluoride. [2+2+2=6]

a)     What is the probable diagnosis of this condition?

b)     What could be the possible complications?

c)     How will you manage such complications?

6.     Enlist types of pit and fissure sealants. Write indications and contraindications of sealant. Mention types of Preventive Resin Restoration. [2+2+1=5]

7.     Enlist the various mechanical plaque control aids. Mention the levels of prevention of periodontal disease. [2+3=5]

8.     Short notes [3x3=9]

a)     DMFT Index

b)     Provisions of WHO – Framework Convention of Tobacco Control (FCTC)

c)     Types of Chemical disinfectants

PRACTICAL/CLINICAL EXAMINATION MARKS ALLOTMENT

University Practical Exam: 80 Marks                                           

1.     Practical Exercise – Case history, diagnosis, Comprehensive treatment planning, chair-side viva (20 marks)

2.     Index recording (10 marks)

3.     Preventive procedure (10 marks)

a.     ART, Pit and fissure sealants on extracted teeth

b.     Fluoride application

c.      Plaque control measures

d.     Oral health education

4.     OSPE (Objective structured practical exercise) [1X10=10 marks]

5.     Viva (20 marks)

6.     Project work (5 marks)

7.     Log book (5 marks)

PRACTICAL/CLINICAL WORK QUOTA

SN	Exercises	Quota
1	Comprehensive  case history taking and treatment planning	4
2	Indices ·        OHIS ·        DMFT/DMFS ·        deft/defs ·        Plaque index ·        Gingival index ·        CPI/CPITN ·        Russell’s Periodontal Index	4 4 2 2 2 2 2
3	Fluoride application	2
4	Atraumatic Restorative Treatment	3
5	Pit and fissure sealant	2
6	Plaque control	1
7	Water purification plant	1 visit
8	Waste management	1 visit
9	PHC	1 visit
10	Project work	1 group work

III BDS GENERAL SURGERY - Evaluation & Model questions (Final after NMC meeting) - TU BDS Syllabus

Evaluation Scheme

BDS 3^rd Year

General Surgery Theory

Total Marks: 100

Internal Assessment Marks: 20

Theory Marks: 80

Questions should be made according to the following topics distribution:

Section	Type of question	No of questions	Topics	Time Allocation
A	MCQ (Multiple choice question)	30 Q’s (MCQ) x 1 mark each Total: 30 marks	·     All topics (Unit I & II) Unit I - 15 marks Wounds, Fluid/Electrolytes-4 Inflammation, Infections-4 Shock, Hemorrhage-2 Operative surgery-2 Trauma, Soft tissue injuries-2 Miscellaneous-1 Unit II - 15 marks Tumors, Cysts, Ulcers- 2 Lymphatics/Vascular- 2 Oral cavity, Salivary glands- 4 Larynx, Nasopharynx- 2 Nervous system- 1 Thyroid, Parathyroid-2 Anomalies of Face- 1 Swellings of jaw- 1	30 minutes
B	SAQ (Short answer question)	1Q (SAQ)  x   6 marks                         =  6 marks 2 Q’s (SAQ)  x  5 marks                         = 10 marks 3 Q’s (SN) x 3 marks  =  9 marks Total: 25 marks	Unit I - 25 marks Wounds, Fluid/Electrolytes-6 Inflammation, Infections-6 Shock, Hemorrhage-4 Operative surgery-3 Trauma, Soft tissue injuries-3 Misc-3	150 minutes
C	S AQ (Short answer question)	1Q (SAQ)  x   6 marks                         =  6 marks 2 Q’s (SAQ)  x  5 marks                         = 10 marks 3 Q’s (SN) x  3 marks  =  9 marks Total: 25 marks	Unit II - 25 marks Tumors, Cysts, Ulcers- 4 Lymphatics/Vascular- 4 Oral cavity, Salivary glands- 4 Larynx, Nasopharynx- 3 Nervous system- 3 Thyroid, parathyroid-4 Anomalies of Face, Swellings of jaw- 3

Evaluation Scheme

BDS 3^rd Year

General Surgery Clinical/Practical

Total Marks: 100

Internal Assessment Marks: 20

Practical Marks: 80

Specification Table for Practical Exam:

Viva	Log book	Spotters	Clinical Exercise	Total
20	10	20	30	80

I.                 Viva (20 marks)

II.               Log Book (10 marks)

III.              Spotters (20 marks): (10 questions × 2 marks each)

·        Instruments

–       Basic surgical instruments

–       Sutures/needles

–       Gauze, bandages, swabs

·        Drugs- Lignocaine/Bupivacaine, Antibiotics

·        X-rays

–       Chest- Pneumothorax, Pleural effusion, Rib fractures

–       Abdomen- obstruction, perforation

·        Skills

–       IV cannulation, IM injection

–       Urethral catheterization

–       Chest tube, NG tube

–       Airway management- Oropharyngeal airway, endotracheal tube

IV.             Clinical Exercise (30 marks): (Subdivided into)

a.      One Long case (20 marks)

b.     One Short case (10 marks)

·        Examination of swellings and ulcers

·        General examination

–  Pulse, BP

–  Lymph node examination- Cervical, Axillary

·        Abdominal examination

·        Chest/ CVS

·        Cranial nerves

–  Facial

–  Trigeminal nerve

·        Neck examination

–  Thyroid

–  Parotid

General Surgery

Model questions

Section A (MCQ’s)

1.      Father of antiseptic surgery is

a.      Lord Moynihan

b.     Joseph Lister

c.      William S Halsted

d.      Harvey Cushing

2.      One of the following is a cause of cardiogenic shock

a.      Cardiac tamponade

b.      Tension pneumothorax

c.      Myocardial infarction

d.      Vomiting

3.      According to traditional classification, class 3 shock signifies ( …?..) percent of total blood loss

a.      <15%

b.      15-30%

c.      30-40%

d.      >40%

4.      Gas gangrene is caused by

a.      Clostridium perfringes

b.      Clostridium tetani

c.      Bacillus anthracis

d.      Staphylococcus aureus

5.      What is the maximum dose of Lignocaine with adrenaline (1:200000) as a local anaesthetic?

a.      3 mg/kg

b.     7 mg/kg

c.      15 mg/kg

d.      20 mg/kg

Section B (SAQ’s)

1.      Classify shock and write the management of septic shock (2+4=6)

2.      Classify wound. Enumerate causes of non-healing of wound. (2+3=5)

3.      Discuss strategies of airway management in facial trauma. (5)

4.      Write short notes on (3 x 3)

a.      Tru-cut biopsy

b.      Complications of blood transfusion

c.      Classification of suture materials

Section C (SAQ’s)

1.      Define goiter. Enumerate causes of goiter. Describe how you will evaluate a patient with solitary thyroid nodule. (1+2+3=6)

2.      Classify Parotid tumors. Describe in brief the evaluation and management of Pleomorphic adenoma. (2+3=5)

3.      Describe in short the embryological basis of cleft lip and palate. (5)

4.      Write short notes on (3 x 3)

a.      Sialadenitis

b.      Branchial cysts

c.      Epulis

World No Tobacco Day 2018 Celebrated at BPKIHS - WNTD 2018 : Tobacco and Heart Disease

World No Tobacco Day 2018, just as in the previous years was marked and celebrated by organizing a Cartoon Poster Competition for the undergraduate students and Extempore Speech Competition for Post Graduate Students at College of Dental Surgery, BPKIHS, Dharan, Nepal. The program was Co-organized by Department of Oral Medicine and Radiology and Department of Public Health Dentistry, CODS, BPKIHS.

The theme for this year's World No Tobacco Day was " Tobacco and Heart Disease".
The Winners and runner - ups for the poster competition were Anumesh Dahal, Dimpal Thapa Magar and Smriti Chaudhary. Similarly, winners and runner-ups for the extempore speech competition were Dr. Sagar Adhikari (Department of Oral Medicine and Radiology), Dr. Shashikant Chaudhary (Department of Periodontology and Oral Implantology), and Dr. Abhinaya Luitel (Department of Oral Medicine and Radiology).

 Here are the posters that participated in the program.

MCQs on Mandibular Fractures and Middle Third of Face Fractures - Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery

# Which is the immediate danger to a patient with severe facial injuries?
A. Bleeding
B. Associated fracture spine
C. Infection
D. Respiratory Obstruction

# Craniofacial dysjunction is seen in:
A. LeFort III fracture
B. Guerrin's fracture
C. High LeFort I fracture
D. None of the above



# The 'hanging drop appearance' in the maxillary sinus radiograph indicates:
A. a nasal polyp
B. a blowout fracture of the orbit
C. a radiograph artefact
D. an antrolith

# Suturing in facial wound injuries should be done within:
A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 8 hours

# Diplopia is most common with:
A. Mandibular fracture
B. Craniofacial dysjunction
C. Nasal fractures
D. Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

# Paresthesia is seen with which of the following types of fractures?
A. Subcondylar
B. Zygomatico maxillary
C. Coronoid process
D. Symphyseal

# Forceps used for maxillary fracture disimpaction:
A. Rowe's
B. Bristows
C. Ashs
D. Walshams

# A patient is in shock with gross comminuted fracture. Immediate treatment is to give:
A. Normal saline
B. Ringer's lactate solution
C. Whole blood
D. Plasma expanders

# Walsham's forceps are used to:
A. remove teeth
B. remove root
C. clamp blood vessels
D. Reduce nasal bone fractures

# 'Panda facies' is commonly seen after:
A. Le Fort I fractures
B. Le Fort II fractures
C. Mandible fractures
D. None of the above

# A fracture of eye by a ping pong ball is:
A. Blow out fracture
B. Orbital fracture
C. Blow in fracture
D. Compound fracture

# Guerin fracture is :
A. Maxillary fracture
B. Maxillary and zygomatic fracture
C. Maxillary and nasal bone fracture
D. only nasal bone fracture

# Gillis approach for reduction of zygomatic fractures is done through:
A. Temporal fossa
B. Infratemporal fossa
C. Infraorbital fossa
D. All of the above

# Which of the following is not a feature of Le Fort II fracture?
A. Enophthalmos
B. Malocclusion
C. Paresthesia
D. CSF rhinorrhea

# The first step in management of head injury is:
A. Secure airway
B. i.v. mannitol
C. i.v. dexamethasone
D. Blood transfusion

# After fracture of middle cranial foramen, there is epiphora, this is due to damage of:
A. Ciliary ganglion
B. Greater palatine nerve
C. Infraorbital nerve
D. None of the above

# The most common complication of CSF rhinorrhea is:
A. Brain herniation
B. Blindness
C. Ascending meningitis
D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

# A 35 year old man with Le fort III fracture complains of blood tinged watery discharge from his nose 2 days after the trauma. CT scan confirms NOE fracture as well. What investigation is most confirmatory for detecting CSF leak?
A. CT scan
B. MRI scan
C. Presence of glucose in the fluid
D. presence of Transferrin Beta

# CSF rhinorrhea is found in:
A. Frontal bone fracture
B. Zygomaticomaxillary fracture
C. Nasoethmoidal fracture
D. Condylar fracture

# Which of the following is not included in the Glasgow coma scale?
A. Eye opening
B. Motor response
C. Verbal response
D. Pupil size

# Le fort III fracture is the same as:
A. Craniofacial dysjunction
B. Guerrin's fracture
C. Pyramidal fracture
D. None of the above

# Compression osteosynthesis heals fracture mandible by:
A. Primary union without callus formation
B. Secondary union without callus formation
C. Compression union
D. All of the above

# The treatment for a mandibular fracture between the incisors is:
A. Risdon wiring
B. Essig wiring
C. Cap splint with circum-mandibular wiring
D. Transosseous wiring

# Green stick fracture are most common with:
A. Older people
B. Adult
C. Children
D. Soldiers

# Lower lip paresthesia occurs in:
A. Body fracture
B. Symphysis fracture
C. Coronoid fracture
D. Condyle fracture

# Eburnation is seen in:
A. Malunion
B. Non union
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Osteoradionecrosis

# Primary healing of mandibular fracture is seen following fixation with ?
A. Gunning Splints
B. Compression plates
C. Transosseous wires
D. Clampy plates

# A fractured mandibular condyle is displaced forward and medially by the action of the following muscle:
A. Temporalis
B. External Pterygoid
C. Internal Pterygoid
D. Masseter

# Bucket handle type of fractures are seen in:
A. Children
B. Soldiers
C. Edentulous persons
D. Young adults

# A patient with unfavourable fracture of the angle of mandible is best treated by:
A. Closed reduction with intermaxillary fixation
B. Closed reduction with cap splints
C. Open reduction with interosseous wiring
D. Open reduction with rigid bone fixation

# The most common site of fracture of the mandible is the:
A. Body
B. Angle
C. Symphysis
D. Condyle

# A fracture of the mandible in the canine region in a 6 year old child should be managed by:
A. Cap splint fixation
B. Intermaxillary fixation
C. Risdon wiring
D. Transosseous wiring

# A displaced mandibular fracture in a child should be managed by:
A. Circum mandibular wiring
B. Early mobilization
C. Intermaxillary fixation
D. Transosseous wiring

# The proximal segment of mandibular angle fracture is usually displaced in which direction?
A. Anterior and superior
B. Posterior and Interior
C. Interior only
D. Posterior and Superior

# The fracture of the tooth bearing segment of the mandible is :
A. Simple
B. Complex
C. Compound
D. Comminuted

# In cases of subcondylar fracture, the condyle moves in :
A. anterior lateral direction
B. posterior medial direction
C. posterior lateral direction
D. anterior medial direction

# Most common complication of condylar injuries in children:
A. Pain
B. Ankylosis
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Fracture of glenoid fossa

# A fracture mandible should beimmpbilized for an average of:
A. 3 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 9 weeks
D. 12 weeks

# A 7 year old boy presented with fracture of left sub condylar region with occlusion undisturbed, the treatment would be:
A. Immobilization for 7 days
B. Immobilization for 14 days with intermittent active opening
C. No immobilization with restricted mouth opening for 10 days
D. No immobilization and active treatment

# The ideal treatment for fracture of the angle of mandible is:
A. Transosseous wiring
B. Intermaxillary fixation
C. Plating on the lateral side of the body of the mandible
D. Plating at the inferior border of the mandible

# All are true regarding fracture of mandible EXCEPT:
A. Fractures of the mandible are common at the angle of the mandible
B. Fractures of the mandible are effected bythe muscle pull
C. Fractures of the mandible are usually characterised by sublingual hematoma
D. CSF rhinorrhea is a common finding