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30. The daily requirement of vitamin B12 is:

A. 0.25-0.67 mcg per day

B. 3-5 mcg per day

C. 0.5-0.7 mcg per day

D. 1-2 mcg per day

#29. Soldering and welding is not possible in:

A. Stainless steel wire

B. Elgiloy

C. Nitinol

D. TMA

#28 Which of the following tumors is most aggressive? (AIPG 91, AIIMS 2004)
A. Ameloblastoma
B. Odontogenic Myxoma
C. Odontoma
D. Fibrocarcinoma

#27 Width of attached gingiva:
A. Decreases with age
B. Increases with age
C. Remains the same
D. Is not age-related

#26 Buccal surface of posterior teeth are wider than lingual surface mesiodistally except in:
a) Maxillary second premolar
b) Mandibular second premolar
c) Maxillary first molar
d) Mandibular first molar

#MCQ 25- The best method to prevent initiation of caries in a four year old child who has no accessibility to community water fluoridation is:
A. Brushing and flossing
B. 2.2 % NaF Tablet daily
C. 0.05% NaF Mouthwash daily
D. 0.5% NaF toothpaste daily

#MCQ 24 : Dental Stone and Dental Plaster both have a slightly different type of principal component (Calcium sulfate hemihydrate). Dental Plaster has:
A. Beta-hemihydrate and dental stone has gamma hemihydrate
B. Alpha hemihydrate and dental stone has beta hemihydrate
C. Gamma hemihydrate and dental stone has beta hemihydrate
D. Beta hemihydrate and dental stone has alpha hemihydrate

# 23: The tobacco preparation mainly used to clean the tooth is:
A. Dhumti
B. Mishri
C. Khaini
D. Mawa

#22 : Screening for oral cancer comes under which level of prevention?
A. Primary Prevention
B. Secondary Prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Primordial prevention

#21- During the Master cone fitting procedure in the endodontic treatment of a patient's tooth, the patient says he has a "sharp shooting pain in the same tooth that ached earlier". What should be your response and why?

A. Continue with obturation, the anesthetic is simply wearing off
B. Continue with obturation, this is a normal complaint during this part of the procedure
C. Consider looking for an accessory canal and re-filing, there is likely pulpal tissue that has not been properly debrided
D. Irrigate further, the Sodium Hypochlorite should take care of this problem
E. Temporize the tooth and obturate at a later date

#20 - Gingival Extension for a restoration should be:
A. At the gingival crest
B. At least 1 mm above the alveolar crest
C. At least 3 mm above the alveolar crest
D. Doesn't have any relation with the alveolar crest height

#19 - Selective Pressure Impression Technique is indicated in:
A. Firm healthy Mucosal covering over the ridge
B. Flabby ridges
C. Knife edge with movable mucosa
D. When sharp bony spicules are present in the ridge

#18 - The main Purpose of covering the retromolar pad area is:
A. Stability
B. Retention
C. Support
D. Contraction

#17 - Passive Impression Technique Involves:
A. Impression with silicone
B. Impression compound
C. Impression Plaster
D. Alginate

#16 - The amount of water needed to dissolve alpha and beta hemihydrate to react completely with 100 gram of calcium sulphate hemihydrates to convert it to calcium sulphate dihydrate is:
A. 18.6 ml
B. 22.2 ml
C. 30.4 ml
D. 45.3 ml

#15: Diplopia after middle third of face fracture results from entrapment of:
A. Inferior rectus
B. Inferior oblique
C. Lateral rectus
D. Superior oblique

#14: The ideal Treatment for the fracture of the angle of the mandible is:
A. Transosseous wiring
B. Intermaxillary fixation
C. Plating on the lateral side of the body of the mandible
D. Plating at the inferior border of the mandible

#13: Which of the following is the best treatment plan to control rampant caries (many proximal caries that undermine enamel)?
A. Restore all teeth with amalgam as soon as possible
B. Prescribe high fluoride toothpaste, give oral hygiene instruction, and wait until effectiveness has been appraised
C. Restore all teeth with crowns
D. Remove caries and place glass ionomer restorations then complete the treatment plan after the vitality of the teeth has been established

#12 - Which of the following tooth has the highest endodontic failure rate?
A. Maxillary First Molar
B. Maxillary First Premolar
C. Mandibular First Molar
D. Mandibular Second Premolar

#11 Regarding Electric Pulp Test (EPT) for tooth vitality assessment, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT:
A. The objective is to stimulate a pulpal response by subjecting the tooth to an increasing degree of electric current
B. Any restorations in the tooth or the adjacent gingival tissue should not be contacted with the electrolyte or the electrode
C. The test is always performed on the tooth in question prior to testing on a control tooth
D. Gloves should not be worn while performing EPT because it may cause false negative responses

#10 - In Orthodontics, Porcelain brackets have better esthetics as compared to stainless steel brackets. However, a major disadvantage is:
A. Stains over time
B. Require special debonding agents
C. Removing is difficult and causes enamel cracks
D. Channel microfraction while debonding

#9 Treatment of Ludwig's Angina due to pericoronitis with respect to lower third molar :
A. Incision and Drainage, antibiotics and removal of third molar
B. Intubation prior to surgery
C. Incision and drainage, removal of third molar, antibiotics
D. Tracheostomy should be done before any treatment

#8 A dental surgeon has recovered from Hepatitis B after a three months rest. His Laboratory Findings are Normal but he is not allowed to attend to the patients as per the medical board because he is:
A. Healthy carrier
B. Active carrier
C. Convalescent carrier
D. Paradoxical carrier

#7 Which of the following tests for tooth vitality assessment has the highest diagnostic accuracy?
A. Electric Pulp Test
B. Heat Test
C. Cold Test
D. Anesthetic Test

#6 Maximum use of Computers in the field of Dentistry is in the field of:
A. Periodontology
B. Prosthodontics
C. Community Dentistry
D. Operative Dentistry

#5 First Water Fluoridation was done in:
A. Sweden
B. Canada
C. Michigan (USA)
D. California

#4 Which of the following materials cannot be used as a base under composite restorations?
A. Zinc Phosphate
B. Zinc Polycarboxylate
C. Zinc Oxide Eugenol
D. Glass Ionomer Cement

# 3 Which of the following materials could be used for cementing a bridge as well as restoring a cervical lesion?
A. Glass Ionomer cement
B. Zinc Polycarboxylate
C. Zinc Phosphate
D. Zinc Oxide Eugenol

#2 Gutta Percha is plasticized / softened by:
A. Alcohol
B. Chloroform
C. Eugenol
D. EDTA

#1 The Largest Component of Gutta Percha Cones is:
A. Gutta Percha
B. Zinc Oxide
C. Resins and Waxes
D. Coloring Agents

ANSWERS AT THE BOTTOM OF THE PAGE:
1. Mysofascial pain associated with the medial pterygoid muscle is typically referred to
a. posterior part of mouth and throat
b. zygomatic area
c. mandibular teeth
d. forehead

2. Chlorzoxazone is best used for managing :
a. pulpal pain
b. migraine
c. myofascial pain
d. periodontal pain

3. TENS can used for managing
a. phantom pain
b. pain associated with a cracked tooth
c. myofascial pain
d. periodontal pain

4. Crepitus may be appreciated in
a. MPDS
b. Myositis
c. Osteoarthritis of the TMJ
d. Muscle splinting

5. Osteophyte formation may be seen in radiographs of patients having
a. Myositis
b. Osteoarthritis
c. MPDS
d. Trigeminal neuralgia

6. Stones, bones, abdominal groans and psychic moans are characteristic of
a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Hypoparathyroidism
c. Hyperthyroidism
d. Hypothyroidism

7. Generalized loss or partial loss of lamina dura may be seen in
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Hyperparathyroidism
c. Addisons diseases
d. Hypopituitarism

8. OPG should ideally not be used to evaluate
a. impacted teeth
b. fractures of the body of the mandible
c. fractures of the angle of the midline
d. midline structures

9. OPG cannot be used for detecting
a. eruption status of teeth in mixed dentition period
b. impacted third molars
c. incipient carious lesions
d. cystic lesions in the body of the mandible

10. Three dimensional curved zone or image layer in which structures are well defined on panoramic radiographs is termed
a. Ideal image zone
b. Focal trough
c. Focal spot
d. Focal area

11. The foetus is at the greatest risk of teratogens in
a. First trimester
b. Second trimester
c. Third trimester
d. Second and third trimester

12. The safest period for undertaking elective dental treatment is in the
a. First trimester
b. Second trimester
c. First and third trimester
d. Third trimester

13. Granuloma gravidarum is also called:
a. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
b. Pyogenic granuloma
c. Pregnancy tumor
d. Periapical granuloma

14. The best position for a pregnant patient on a dental chair is:
a. left lateral position
b. lying supine
c. lying supine with the legs slightly elevated
d. supine with the head elevated

15. Drug that is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy are:
a. Diazepam
b. Aspirin
c. Acetaminophen
d. Penicillin

16. Drugs that can be given safely in pregnancy include
a. Acetaminophen
b. Diazepam
c. Tetracycline
d. Nitrous oxide

17. The foetus is most sensitive to x rays during:
a. 18-45 days of in utero life
b. 100-150 days of in utero life
c. 160 to 180days of in utero life
d. Over 180 days of in utero life

Answer key
1.a 2.c 3.c 4.c 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. d 9. c 10.b 11.a 12.b 13.c 14.a 15.a 16.a 17.a

#MCQ 15: Diplopia after middle third of face fracture results from entrapment of:

#MCQ 15: Diplopia after middle third of face fracture results from entrapment of:
A. Inferior rectus
B. Inferior oblique
C. Lateral rectus
D. Superior oblique

Ans: A. Inferior rectus

Diplopia is due to interference with the action of extraocular muscles, mainly the inferior rectus and inferior oblique muscles that are in the same fascial sheath.

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#MCQ 14: The ideal Treatment for the fracture of the angle of the mandible is:

##MCQ 14: The ideal Treatment for the fracture of the angle of the mandible is:
A. Transosseous wiring
B. Intermaxillary fixation
C. Plating on the lateral side of the body of the mandible
D. Plating at the inferior border of the mandible

Ans: D. Plating at the inferior border of the mandible

Compression plates are used at the inferior border of mandible below the inferior dental canal. If there is opening of the upper border it is necessary to apply a tension band in the form of arch bar or miniplates at the upper border.

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#MCQ 13: Which of the following is the best treatment plan to control rampant caries?

#MCQ 13: Which of the following is the best treatment plan to control rampant caries (many proximal caries that undermine enamel) ?

A. Restore all teeth with amalgam as soon as possible
B. Prescribe high fluoride tooth paste, give oral hygiene instruction, and wait until effectiveness has been appraised
C. Restore all teeth with crowns
D. Remove caries and place glass ionomer restorations then complete the treatment plan after the vitality of the teeth has been established

Answer: D. Remove caries and place glass ionomer restorations then complete the treatment plan after the vitality of the teeth has been established

Rampant caries control protocols suggest that caries should be removed and glass ionomer cement restorations should be placed until the true pulp status can be assessed.

Removing the caries allows the clinician to see if caries have extended to the pulp cavity.
Placing glass ionomer restorations allows for the affected dentin to be remineralized.

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