The Codex Alimentarius Commission accepts that there may be minor differences in opinion in the interpretation of lawful and unlawful animals and in the slaughter act, according to the different Islamic Schools of Thought. As such, these general guidelines are subjected to the interpretation of the appropriate authorities of the importing countries. However, the certificates granted by the religious authorities of the exporting country should be accepted in principle by the importing country, except when the latter provides justification for other specific requirements.
1 SCOPE
1.1 These guidelines recommend measures to be taken on the use of Halal claims in food labeling.
1.2 These guidelines apply to the use of the term halal and equivalent terms in claims as defined in General Standard for the Labelling of Prepackaged Foods and include its use in trademarks, brand names and business names.
1.3 These guidelines are intended to supplement the Codex General Guidelines on Claims and do not supersede any prohibition contained therein.
2 DEFINITION
2.1 Halal Food means food permitted under Islamic Law and should fulfill the following conditions:
2.1.1 does not consist of or contain anything which is considered to be unlawful according to Islamic Law;
The correct answers are highlighted in Green. Once you have finished studying these MCQs, Test yourself by watching the video at the bottom of the page.
# Which of the following drugs is least efficacious in the treatment of temporal lobe epilepsy? (MAN-94, AIIMS-93)
a) Phenobarbitone b) Phenytoin sodium
c) Primidone
d) Carbamazepine
# All are true of diazepenes except: (MAN-02)
a) Benzodiazepam is used in treatment of status epilepticus
b) Benzodiazepam is used in the long term treatment of psychic disorders
c) Clonazepam is used in the treatment of petit mal epilepsy
d) None of the above
# Morphine is contraindicated in all of the following except (MAN-02)
a) Pulmonary oedema
b) Emphysema
c) Bronchial asthma
d) Head injury
# Aspirin produces all of the following effects except: (MAN-02)
a) Frank gastric bleeding
b) Prolonged prothrombin time
c) Platelet dysfunction
d) Constipation
# Which of the following is not a contraindication in the therapy with opioids? (MAN-2K)
a) Use in head injury patient
b) Use in impaired pulmonary function
c) Use of agonist with mixed agonist-antagonist
d) Use in severe constant pain
# Which of the following can be given safely to a patient of congestive heart failure? (MAN-2K)
a) Aspirin
b) Paracetamol
c) Diclofenac sodium
d) Ibuprofen
# A common side effect associated with all NSAID drugs is: (MAN-98)
a) Drowsiness
b) Gastric irritation
c) Xerostomia
d) Constipation
# Which of the following is an irreversible side effect resulting from long term administration of phenothiazine antipsychotics? (MAN-97)
a) Infertility
b) Parkinsonism
c) Tardive dyskinesia
d) B & C
# Verrill's sign is seen in: (MAN-2K, AP-2001)
a) Diazepam administration
b) Digitalis toxicity
c) Paget's disease
d) Unconscious states
# Which of the following anti inflammatory drug is a COX- 2 inhibitor? (AIPG-01)
a) Rofecoxib
b) Ketoprofen
c) Aspirin
d) Sulidec
# One of the benzodiazepines (BDZ) comparatively safe in pregnancy is (Category -B): (KAR-2003)
a) Zolpidem
b) Lorazepam
c) Alprazolam
d) None of them
# Morphine a powerful opioid analgesic drug should be avoided in all the following conditions except: (AIPG-01)
a) Bronchial asthma
b) Left ventricular failure
c) Pancreatitis
d) Constipation
# All the following decrease skeletal muscle tone by CNS effects except: (AIPG-99)
a) Diazepam
b) D-tubocurarine
c) Baclofen
d) Mephensin
# Which of the following anti-epileptic agents causes the reversible side-effect of gingival hyperplasia? (MAN-99)
a) Sodium valproate
b) Ethosuximide
c) Phenobarbitone
d) None of them
# NSAID's have adverse effect on: (AIPG-97)
a) Liver
b) Bone
c) Stomach
d) Kidney
# Salicylate overdose in children causes: (AIPG-93)
a) Crystalluria
b) Reye's syndrome
c) Kernicterus
d) None of them
# Carbamazepine is a type of: (AIPG-97)
a) Antiemetic
b) Anti-inflammatory
c) Antidepressant
d) Antibiotic
# Drug which causes gingival hyperplasia: (AIPG-94)
a) Cyclosporin & Nifedipine
b) None of them
c) Aspirin
d) Erythromycin
# All the following statements about opioids is correct except: (AIPG-2001)
a) Pentazocine shows withdrawal symptoms in opioid dependent patients
b) Pentazocine and buprinorphine
c) Ethomorphine is similar to pethidine chemically
d) Partial agonists are free from classic opioid adverse effects
# A patient on 300 mg of aspirin will show all the following except: (AIIMS-94)
a) Prolonged bleeding time
b) Irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase path way
c) Inhibition of prostaglandin PGI2
d) Inhibition of thromboxane TXA2
# Thiopentone action is terminated by: (AIPG-99)
a) Metabolism
b) Redistribution
c) Excretion
d) Recycling
# Amyl nitrate is most commonly administered: (MAN-98)
a) Sub lingually
b) Orally
c) Intravenously
d) By inhalation
# Clotting time is most likely to be prolonged by the administration of:
a) Barbiturates
b) Vitamin K
c) Acetaminophen
d) Acetyl salicylic acid
# Aspirin acts on which part of brain? (AIIMS-92)
a) Cortex
b) Medulla
c) Substantia gelatinosa
d) Limbic system
# Antagonist of morphine is: (AIPG-93)
a) Nalpuphine
b) Nalosphine
c) Methadine
d) Naloxone
# Carbamazepine is contraindicated in? (AIPG - 14)
a) Temporal lobe epilepsy
b) Juvenile myoclonus epilepsy
c) None of them
d) Generalized tonic clonic
# Phenytoin is associated with: (AIPG-97, 96)
a) Cushing's syndrome
b) Folic acid deficiency
c) Vitamin C deficiency
d) Alzheimer's disease
# Aspirin causes: (AIPG-97)
a) Hemolytic anemia
b) Aplastic Anaemia
c) Hypoprothrombinemia
d) Agranulocytosis
# Aspirin is used in treatment of Myocardial Infarction: (AIPG-02)
a) It inhibits thromboxanes
b) It helps in reducing inflammatory aggregate
c) It stimulates Prostacyclins
d) It is a vasodilator
# Amitryptyline is a: (AP-03)
a) Tricyclic antidepressant
b) Sedative
c) Antibiotic
d) Diuretic
# Drug which is used to control status epitepticus is: (AP-97, AIPG-93)
a) Glyceryl trinitrite
b) Phero barbital
c) Sodium nitroprusside
d) Diazepam
# Narcotic overdose can be antagonized by: (MAN-99)
a) Nalorphine
b) Naloxone
c) Diphenhydramine
d) Atropine
# An attack of migraine can be easily terminated by: (AIPG-99)
a) Acetylcholine
b) Ergotamine
c) Morphine
d) Ibuprofen
# Which of the following drugs causes extra pyramidal symptoms? (PGI-2K)
a) Antibiotics
b) Barbiturates
c) Salicylates
d) Phenothiazines
# Pregnant patient can be safely given: (AP-2K)
a) Paracetamol
b) Barbiturates
c) Tetracycline
d) Metronidazole
# Aspirin is avoided in children with influenza infection because of association of: (KAR-99)
a) Nausea
b) Diarrhoea
c) Acid-base imbalance
d) Reye's syndrome
# Nausea and vomiting that are associated with administration of opioid analgesic is the result of stimulation of the: (MAN-97)
a) Emetic system
b) Opioid receptors in G.I.T.
c) Limbic system
d) Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)
# Prolonged use of aspirin causes: (AIPG-98)
a) Hypophosphatasia
b) Hypercalcemia
c) Hyperprothrombinemia
d) Hypoprothrombinemia
# The intramuscular administration of 0.6 mg of atropine sulphate to a 50 kg adult may produce all of the following: effects except: (AIIMS-93)
a) Mydriasis
b) Bradycardia
c) Decreased sweating
d) Decreased salivation
# Prolonged use of aspirin leads to: (AIPG-98)
a) Carcinoma
b) Bleeding defects
c) Peptic ulcer
d) B & C
# Phenothiazines are used to: (AIPG-2003)
a) Suppress coughing
b) Produce muscle relaxation
c) Alter psychotic behaviour
d) Produce analgesia
# A 50 year old female with end stage renal disease (ESRD), develops pulmonary tuberculosis. Which one of the following drugs should be used in a reduced dose? (KCET-2011)
a) Ethambutol
b) Pyrazamide
c) Isoniazide
d) Rifampicin
# Drug that does not cause sedation: (AIPG-2011)
a) Zopiclone
b) Nitrazepam
c) Buspirone
d) Diazepam
# An attack of bronchial asthma is most likely to be triggered by: (KAR-99)
The correct answers are highlighted in Green. Once you have finished studying these MCQs, Test yourself by watching the video at the bottom of the page.
# A flat, circumscribed discoloration of skin or mucosa that may vary in size and shape is referred to as: (MAN -94,95; AP- 08)
a) Epulis b) Macule
c) Nodule
d) Papule
# A twenty-one-year-old woman complains that regular, gentle brushing of her teeth is painful besides causing profuse bleeding. Oral examination reveals the loss of epithelium from the attached gingiva of both arches. Which of the following dermatological problems is this patient most likely to have? (MAN -95) a) Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid
b) Chronic discoid lupus erythematosus
c) Pemphigus
d) Psoriasis
# Which of the following is an oral manifestation of lichen planus? (MAN -95)
a) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
b) Fordyce spots
c) White, chalky enamel surface d) White radiating lines on the buccal mucosa
# Antinuclear antibodies are seen in: (MAN -98, KCET -07)
a) SLE
b) Systemic sclerosis
c) Morphea
d) All of the above
# Which of the following diseases of the skin is the most likely to be associated with partial anodontia? (MAN -98, KAR -03)
a) erythema multiforme
b) hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
c) keratosis follicularis
d) lichen planus
# Which of the following is absent in CREST syndrome? (KAR -03, PGI -99, MAN -2K)
a) Calcinosis cutis
b) Raynaud's phenomenon
c) Telangiectasia
d) Endocrine disorders
# Nikolsky's sign is positive in: (KAR -03, COMEDK -03)
a) bullous pemphigus
b) epidermolysis bullosa
c) herpes simplex
d) erythema multiforme
# MONRO's abscess are seen in: (MAN -2K, KAR -97,98)
a) Pemphigus
b) Lichen planus
c) Leukoplakia
d) Psoriasis
# In lichen planus the basal cells which are shrunken with an eosinophilic cytoplasm and with a pyknotic and fragmented nuclei are called: (MAN -01)
a) Tzanck cells
b) Civatte bodies
c) Donovan bodies
d) Rushton bodies
# Grinspan syndrome is associated with: (COMEDK -03, 06, KAR-04)
a) Hypertension, diabetes, lichen planus
b) Oral, ocular, genital lesions
c) Hypertension with oral lesions
d) Pemphigus, CHF, diabetes
# Ectodermal dysplasia is: (AIPG-05)
a) Autosomal recessive
b) Autosomal dominant
c) X-linked dominant
d) X-linked recessive
# Which sites are characteristically affected in Stevens- Johnson syndrome? (APPSC -99)
a) Conjunctiva, genitalia, oral mucosa
b) Liver, spleen, pancreas
c) Oral mucosa, lacrimal apparatus, ears
d) Parotid gland, palate, conjunctiva
# Which one of the following is NOT a lichenoid reaction? (COMEDK-14)
a) Graft versus Host disease
b) Fixed drug eruption
c) Secondary syphilis
d) Pemphigus vulgaris
# Oral diagnostic features of scleroderma include all of the following, except: (KAR -2K)
a) Pseudo ankylosis of the T.M. Joint
b) Widening of the oral aperture
c) A hard and a rigid tongue
d) Difficulty in swallowing
# A typical example of an immunologically mediated collagen vascular/connective tissue disorder is: (MCET-14)
a) Lichen planus
b) Pemphigus vulgaris
c) Lupus erythematosus
d) Epidermolysis bullosa
# Fine Needle aspiration biopsy is indicated to diagnose: (KAR -98)
a) Necrotic pulp
b) Pemphigus
c) Traumatic ulcer
d) Chronic gingivitis
# Subepithelial vesicles are characteristic all of the following EXCEPT: (KCET-08)
a) Bullous pemphigoid
b) Pemphigus
c) Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
d) Cicatricial pemphigoid
# Which is a degeneration disorder characterized by atrophic changes of the deeper structures (e.g. fat, muscle, cartilage & bone) involving one side of the face: (AIPG -04, 05)
a) Miescheris syndrome
b) Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
c) Parry Romberg syndrome
d) Scleroderma
# In Cicatrial pemphigoid, which antigen is bound by IgG on the epidermal side of the salt split skin technique: (COMEDK-07)
a) Laminin 5
b) XVII collagen
c) epitigrin
d) BP antigen 1 &2
# L.E. Cell phenomenon in peripheral blood is seen in: (KAR -2K)
a) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
b) Ischemic heart disease
c) Infective endocarditis
d) Rheumatic heart disease
# Erosive lichen planus resembles which of the following: (AIIMS -2K)
a) Monilial gingivitis
b) Acute ulcerative gingivitis
c) Desquamative gingivitis
d) Herpetic gingivitis
# Grinspan syndrome is associated with: (KAR-04)
a) Lichen planus
b) Aphthous ulcer
c) Leukoplakia
d) Oral submucous fibrosis
# Desmoplakin is the target antigen in: (AP-2012)
a) Pemphigus foliaceous
b) Pemphigus Vulgaris
c) Drug-induced pemphigus
d) Paraneoplastic pemphigus
# Unusual extensibility of the tongue is a characteristic feature of: (KAR -03)
a) Syphilis
b) Darier-White disease
c) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
d) Epidermolysis bullosa
# 60 year old diabetic female presented with burning sensation to spicy food, Intraoral examination revealed multiple periodontal abscess and keratotic area in a lace pattern with occasional erosive areas inside the lace pattern. Syndrome associated with this disease is: (COMEDK-14)
a) Peutz jeghers syndrome
b) Sjogren's syndrome
c) Down's syndrome
d) Grinspan syndrome
# En coup de sabre is most likely to be associated with which type of scleroderma?
a) Linear
b) Radicular
c) Vertical
d) Ovoid
# Histopathologic study of lichen planus shows: (AIIMS-99,94; KAR-98)
a) Antiepithelial antibodies
b) Scattered infiltrate with ill-defined lower border
c) Mixed cellular inflammatory infiltrate
d) Presence of T-lymphocytes predominantly
# Cafe au lait macules are seen in: (KCET-10)
a) Albright's syndrome and Bloom's syndrome
b) Von Reklinghausen's neurofibromatosis
c) None of them
d) All of them
# Psoriasis is associated with: (PGI -95)
a) Lupus erythematosus
b) Lupus vulgaris
c) Benign median rhomboid glossitis
d) Geographic tongue
# White radiating lines can be observed in case of lesions of: (AP -2K, AIIMS MAY -2012)
a) Erythema multiforme
b) Lichen planus
c) Pemphigus
d) Leukoplakia
# Pemphigus is characterized by: (AIPG -94, 06)
a) Hyperparakeratosis
b) Hyperorthokeratosis
c) Acantholysis
d) Acanthosis
# 60 year old diabetic female presented with burning sensation to spicy food. Intraoral examination revealed multiple periodontal abscess and keratotic area in a lace pattern with occasional erosive areas inside the lace pattern. Histological feature will be: (COMEDK-14)
a) Saw tooth rete ridges
b) Bulbous rete ridges
c) Elongated rete ridges
d) Flattened rete ridges
# Mucocutaneous lesion associated with neoplasia : (COMEDK-2011)
a) Paraneoplastic pemphigus
b) Parapemphigus
c) Pemphigus vegetans
d) Familial benign pemphigus
# ALL the following are inherited disorders of connective tissue EXCEPT: (KAR- 2013)
a) Marfan syndrome
b) McArdle's disease
c) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
d) Alport syndrome
# Cicatrical pemphigoid is the synonym for: (AP-2012)
a) pemphigus vulgaris
b) mucous membrane pemphigoid
c) paraneoplastic pemphigus
d) Hailey-Hailey disease
# Pathologic calcification is seen in: (COMEDK-09)
a) Scleroderma
b) Lupus erythematosus
c) Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa
d) Lichen planus
# A 3-year-old patient has extensive vesicles on lip, tongue, oral mucous membrane. After 2-4 days vesicles rupture at followed by pseudomembrane formation and also some dermal lesions seen what will be the diagnosis:
a) Steven-Johnson syndrome
b) Herpetic stomatitis
c) ANUG
d) EM
# Oral, ocular and genital lesions are seen in: (AP -04)
a) Erythema multiforme
b) SLE
c) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
d) None of them
# Tzanck smear test is used in the diagnosis of: (KAR -02)
a) Pemphigus
b) ANUG
c) Lichen planus
d) Apthous disease
# Multiple pulp stones are seen in: (COMEDK-10)
a) Down's syndrome
b) Ehler's Danlos syndrome
c) Apert's syndrome
d) Marfan Syndrome
# Erythema multiforme is: (KAR -97)
a) Bacterial infection
b) An acute self-limiting disease, of skin and oral mucous membrane
c) Painless vesicular self-limiting disease
d) A viral disease
# Target Lesions are observed in case of: (COMEDK -03, 06; AP -2K)
a) Erythema multiforme
b) Psoriasis
c) Lichen planus
d) Pemphigus vulgaris
# Lupus erythematosus is: (KAR -03)
a) Autoimmune disorder
b) Neoplastic condition
c) Degenerative condition
d) Reactive Lesion
# Oral Lesions are not seen in: (AP -04)
a) Psoriasis
b) Pemphigoid
c) Candidiasis
d) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
# False about mucous-membrane pemphigoid: (PGI-2014)
a) Twice in female
b) Disease associated antigen are most frequently present in lamina densa
c) Oral mucosa is most frequently involved
d) Autoantibodies towards basement membrane protein
# The swollen degenerating epithelial cell due to acantholysis is: (KAR-04)
a) Tzanck cell
b) Prickle cell
c) Anitschow cell
d) Ghost cell
# Primary lesion in lichen planus is: (KAR -97)
a) Bulla
b) Vesicle
c) Papule
d) Macule
# Koebner's phenomenon is seen with: (KAR -02)
a) Psoriasis
b) Erythema muLtiforme
c) Impetigo
d) Pemphigoid
# Which of the following is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait? (KAR -98rAIIMS -94)
a) Bullous pemphigoid
b) White sponge nevus
c) Lichen planus
d) Pemphigus vulgaris
# Wickham's striae are seen in: (AP -03}
a) Leukoedema
b) Erythema multiforme
c) Lichen planus
d) Leukoplakia
# In ectodermal dysplasia all of the following structures are affected except: (AIPG -94)
a) Teeth
b) Salivary glands
c) Nails
d) Hair
# Ehlers Danlos syndrome is? (AIPG-09)
a) X-Linked recessive
b) X-Linked Dominant
c) Autosomal recessive
d) Autosomal Dominant
# Butterfly rash is typically seen in: (KCET-10)
a) Systemic lupus erythematosus
b) Herpes simplex
c) Scleroderma
d) None of them
# Joint erosions are not a feature of: (AIPG-06)
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Multicentric reticulo-histiocytosis
c) Systemic Lupus eythematosus
d) Psoriasis
# Xeroderma pigmentosum is characterized by: (COMED-2012)
a) Autosomal dominant inheritance
b) Inability to repair sunlight induced damage to DNA
c) Acanthosis of epithelium with elongation of rete ridges
d) Irregular accumulation of melanin in the basal cell layer
# All are diseases of skin except: (AIIMS-09)
a) Keratosis follicularis
b) Erythema multiforme
c) Psoriasis form lesion
d) Erythema migrans
# Intraepithelial vacuolation with formation of vesicle or bulla intraepithelially above the basal layer is characteristically seen in: (AIPG -95)
a) Pemphigus
b) Lichen planus
c) Bullous pemphigoid
d) Candida albicans
# Darier's disease is associated with: (AIPG -04)
a) Vitamin A deficiency and involvement of oral epithelium and skin
b) Diffuse tender ulceration on the palate predominantly
c) Pernicious anaemia
d) Rickets with involvement of teeth and bones
# Which of the following individual show susceptibility to dental caries? (PGI DEC-2013)
a) Down syndrome
b) Pierre robin syndrome
c) Epidermolysis bullosa
d) Hereditary fructose intolerance
# Which of the following is not a type of lichen planus? (KAR -03)
a) Hypertrophic
b) Atrophic
c) Verrucous
d) Erosive
# Autoantibodies Anti Ro and Anti La are completely absent in: (COMEDK-15)
a) Sjogren's syndrome
b) Diffuse Scleroderma
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Systemic lupus erythematosus
# Immunoflourescence is seen at basement membrane as patchy distribution in: (KAR -97)
a) Lichen Planus
b) Pemphigus
c) Pemphigoid
d) Lupus erythematosus
# Histological clefts in lichen planus are: (COMEDK-09)
a) Auspitz's sign
b) Civatte bodies
c) Wickham's Striae
d) Max - Joseph spaces
# Most common lesion in Mucous membrane pemphigoid is: (COMEDK-14)
a) Esophageal ulcer
b) Ulcer of Soft palate
c) Symblepharon
d) Desquamative gingivitis
# Which of the following are seen in ectodermal dysplasia? (AIIMS -90}
a) Defective or absence of sweat glands
b) Hyperpyrexia
c) Protuberant lips and frontal bossing
d) Any of them
# In which of the following disorders a circulating antibody directed to intercellular cementing substance of stratified squamous epithelium is observed: (AIIMS, KAR -03)
a) Pemphigus vulgaris
b) Bullous pemphigoid
c) Verrucous vulgaris
d) Lichen planus
# Fish Net pattern in pemphigus vulgaris is seen in which of the following tests? (KAR-2013)
a) Tzanck smear
b) Histopathology
c) Direct immunofluorescence
d) FNAC
# Intra-epithelial bulla are found in: (AIIMS-98)
a) Pemphigoid
b) Pemphigus
c) Bullous pemphigoid
d) Bullous lichen planus
# A 60-year-old has got severe bulla and target lesion which erythema around halo and genital Lesions: (AIIMS -2K)
a) Herpes zoster
b) Stevens Johnson syndrome
c) Herpes simplex
d) Herpangina
# Bullae formation after striking an intact skin/mucosal surface is known as: (KAR -2K)
a) Chovstek's sign
b) Tinel's sign
c) Babinski's sign
d) Nikolsky's sign
# Hydropic degeneration of the basal cell of the stratum germinativum is a feature of? (PGI-08)
a) Leukoplakia
b) Lichen Planus
c) Pemphigus
d) Syphilis
# Steven-Johnson syndrome involves: (AIPG -98)
a) Type I hypersensitivity reaction
b) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
c) Type II hypersensitivity reaction
d) Type III hypersensitivity reaction
# Lichen planus: (KAR -02)
a) Must be excised
b) Treated only by medication
c) Can undergo malignant change
d) Is an idiosyncrasy reaction
# Oral lesion associated with ulcerative colitis: (COMEDK-10)
a) Pyostomatitis Vegetans
b) Sarcoidosis
c) Lichen planus
d) Dermatitis herpetiformis
# Immunoflourescence test is positive in: (AIPG -95)
a) Psoriasis
b) Lupus erythematosus
c) Scleroderma
d) Myxoedema
# Formation of multiple pinpoint bleeding spots on scratching the skin is characteristic of: (KAR -2K)
The correct answers are highlighted in Green. Once you have finished studying these MCQs, Test yourself by watching the video at the bottom of the page.
# Incompatible blood transfusion leads to all except:
a) Increased plasma bilirubin b) Increased plasma prothrombin
c) Jaundice
d) Renal failure
# The best method of controlling bleeding is to:
a) Apply a tourniquet b) Apply direct pressure to the injury
c) Compress pressure points between the injury and the heart
d) Bandage the area
# Secondary hemorrhage appears in:
a) 7-14-days
b) Within 6 hours
c) Due to Slipping of ligature
d) Bleeding disorders
# Clotting capacity of blood after storage:
a) Improves
b) Not altered if kept at 4°C
c) Not altered if used within 3 days
d) Diminishes
# The sodium excretion shut down following trauma remains for:
a) 6 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 36 hours
d) 48 hours
# A patient of burns should be given:
a) 5% dextrose
b) Hypertonic saline 0.9%
c) Dextrose saline
d) Human albumin 4.5%
# Whole blood is stored at:
a)18-22 degree C
b) 4-8 degree C
c) 0 degree C
d) At room temperature
# SAG-M blood is useful in:
a) Anaemia
c) Burns
b) Haemophilia A
d) DIC
# Following infection can be transmitted by blood transfusion:
a) HIV
c) Malaria
b) Hepatitis B
d) All of the above
# Hemorrhage occurring due to raised blood pressure is :
a) Reactionary
b) Secondary
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
# Reactionary haemorrhage occurs:
a) Within 24 hours of surgery
b) After 48 hours of surgery
c) After 72 hours of surgery
d) After 7-14 days of surgery
# Surgery should be carried out in a haemophilic patient if
the factor VIII concentration is raised to:
a) 2 - 20%
b) 20 - 40%
c) 50 - 100%
d) 100%
# Which of the following statements is true?
a) Elderly patients sustaining trauma should be given packed RBC
b) One unit of blood raises Hb% concentration by 1 gm%
c) Massive blood transfusion leads to hyperkalemia
d) All of the above
# Following trauma or surgery which of the following fluids
should be avoided?
a) 5% dextrose
b) Isotonic saline
c) Ringers lactate
d) Blood
# Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
a) Thrombocytopenia - platelet rich plasma
b) Haemophilia - Cryoprecipitate
c) Burns - Packed red cells
d) DIC - fibrinogen
# Massive blood transfusions may be complicated by:
a) Hypokalemia
b) Hypercalcemia
c) Leucopenia
d) Coagulopathy
# Hypovolemic shock is seen when fluid loss is:
a) 10 - 20%
b) 20 - 45%
c) 50 - 70%
d) 70 - 80%
# Patient with severe acidosis is treated with:
a) i.v. NaHCo3
b) Ringers lactate
c) Dextrose
d) None of the above
# Common reaction to blood transfusion may include all except: (KAR -01)
a) Fever
b) Hypocalcemia
c) Hemolysis
d) Urticaria
# Stored plasma is deficient in: (KAR -01)
a) Factors 7 and 8
b) Factors 2 and 5
c) Factors 5 and 8
d) Factors 7 and 9
# Shock is a circulatory disturbance characterized by: (AIPG -03)
a) Increased blood
b) Elevated body temperature
c) Increased atmospheric pressure
d) Decreased volume of circulating blood
# The best dressing for open wounds is: (AIPG -99)
# Buccal surface of posterior teeth are wider than lingual surface mesiodistally except in:
a) Maxillary second premolar
b) Mandibular second premolar
c) Maxillary first molar
d) Mandibular first molar
The correct answer is C. Maxillary First Molar.
A measurement of the crown buccolingually and mesial to the buccal and lingual grooves is greater than the measurement on the portion of the crown that is distal to these developmental grooves. Also, a measurement of the crown immediately lingual to contact areas mesiodistally is greater than the measurement immediately buccal to the contact areas. Thus, it is apparent that the maxillary first molar crown is wider mesially than distally and wider lingually than buccally.
1. The jugulodigastric lymph node is the most common lymph node involved in tonsillar infections and oral cancer, and hence, should be thoroughly examined while examining the cervical group of lymph nodes.
2. Many drugs can produce gingival swelling – most commonly implicated are phenytoin, ciclosporin and calcium channel blockers.
3. The most common salivary lesion causing a swelling is the mucocele, usually caused by extravasation of saliva from a damaged minor salivary gland duct and seen in the lower labial mucosa, sometimes caused by retention within a gland.
4. Sialadenitis most commonly manifests in the parotid gland (parotitis). The organisms most commonly isolated from bacterial ascending sialadenitis are Alpha-haemolytic streptococci, such as Streptococcus viridans and Staphylococcus aureus , the latter frequently being penicillin-resistant.
5. Amalgam tattoo is the most common cause of a single patch of macular blue-black pigmentation, does not change significantly in size or colour, is painless and is usually seen in the mandibular gingiva or at least close to the teeth or an apicectomy where there has been a retrograde amalgam root end filling.
6. Ramsay–Hunt syndrome, caused by varicella-zoster virus infection, which allegedly involves the facial nerve at the geniculate ganglion.
7. Oral Squamous cell Carcinoma (OSCC) is among the 10 most common cancers worldwide: around 300 000 new cases worldwide annually, amounting to around 3% of total cancers.
8. Behçet syndrome (BS), sometimes also known as Adamantiades syndrome and Behçet disease, is a potentially lethal condition. It is a triple symptom complex of aphthous-like ulcers with genital ulceration and eye disease (especially iridocyclitis), though a number of other systemic manifestations may also be seen, characterized by necrotizing vasculitis.
9. Bell palsy is most commonly caused by inflammation and oedema in the facial nerve canal, usually in the stylomastoid canal, causing demyelination of the facial nerve (seventh cranial nerve) usually due to HSV (Herpes Simplex Virus).
Dental Practice management is a broad topic that includes setting up a dental clinic, hiring of adequate number of staffs that are well versed with the work they are supposed to do in an efficient manner and in perfect harmony to increase the net revenue of the clinic, materials supply management, patients' record management, patients' appointment management, cashflow management and many more. Let's discuss about the importance of appointments for better efficiency and maximizing the revenue in least possible chairside time.
Not every dentist is well acquainted with the managerial skills that is necessary to run a dental clinic. Some acquire it naturally on the go after establishing a dental clinic and some struggle for years due to lack of the skill and experience too many patients in some particular days and not a single patient some unfortunate day. More often than not, once a dental clinic is well-established and with good track record of providing good dental care, there will be problem of having too many patients rather than having too few patients. This is where the one aspect of dental practice management - Appointment system becomes of paramount importance.
Though, it seems cumbersome to keep records of appointment time and follow that strictly, it has infinite perks. Some advantages of keeping strict patient appointments are:
A. You can give enough time to each patient. You need not hurry that there are too many patients at a particular time. Your workload is relatively constant at a pace you have set for yourself. The inter-patient time gap is minimized and patients examined/treated per unit time rises several folds.
B. You can set different time hours for different types (age groups/profession) of patients and prepare your instruments for the same. Charging a bit more for treatment provided during off-hours for employed patients who cannot take a leave is not unethical at all. You provide a great value of service and get increased return for yourself.
C. You can reduce the number of staffs and Dental Chairs required as per the workload and minimize unnecessary expenditure. False indication of patient overload and temptation to add another dental chair and dentist is also avoided. Adding up dental chairs and dentists without actually having sufficient patients all the time would be hazardous to your practice and sometimes you have to sell the equipments at a great loss or downsize on staffs.
D. Better Patient Care: Each patient feels that he is important for you because you have set a separate time for him. Your dedication to him and meticulous clinical care will make you a trustworthy clinician for him.
E. You can actually reduce the clinic opening hours. When you figure out the number of patients coming everyday, you can set your opening hours as per the requirement.
