MCQs on Cleft Lip and Palate - Oral Surgery

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# Cleft lip is operated at what age: (MAN -01)
a) 1 month
b) 6 months
c) 10 weeks
d) 1 year

# The ideal time of repair of cleft of hard palate is: (KAR -03)

a) At birth

b) Between 3-6 months of age

c) Between 12-15 months of age

d) After 2 years of age

# The ideal time of repair of cleft lip is: (KAR -03)

a) At birth

b) Between 3-6 months of age

c) At 1 - 1 1/2 years of age

d) At 1 1/2 to 2 years of age

# Pierre Robbin syndrome is:

a) Cleft palate with syndactyly

b) Cleft palate with mand. hypoplasia and respiratory obstruction

c) Cleft lip with mandibular hypoplasia

d) Cleft lip

# Hynes pharyngoplasty is used to improve a child's:

a) Appearance

b) Teething

c) Speech

d) Feeding

# Unilateral clefts are most common on:

a) Left side

b) Right side

c) Median

d) None of the above

# Commonest type of cleft lip is:

a) Bilateral

b) Midline

c) Combined with cleft palate

d) Unilateral

# Speech problems in cleft palate patients are due to: (AIIMS -97)

a) Lisping of tongue

b) Inability of soft palate to stop air to go into nasopharynx

c) Inability of learning process

d) All of the above

# Cleft lip is due to non-union of: (AIIMS -95)

a) Maxillary process with MNP

b) MNP - LNP

c) MNP - MNP

d) All of the above

#  A prosthetic appliance given to cover the palatal defect in patients with cleft palate is called: (AIIMS -03)

a) Artificial velum

b) Obturator

c) Removable prosthetic appliance

d) None of the above

#  Surgery on the hard palate of a 3 years old cleft patient may inhibit growth, causing the facial profile to become: (AIPG -03, AIIMS -91)

a) Straight

b) Elongated

c) Shortened

d) More concave

# The repair of cleft palate is primarily done for: (PGI-06)

a) Correction of speech

b) Correction of esthetics

c) Induce growth of maxilla

d) Induce growth of mandible

# Which of the following shows the lowest frequency of cleft lip and palate? (AIPG-07)

a) Negroes

b) Afghanese

c) American Indian

d) Indian

# The oral cleft problem occurs between the period of: (KCET-07)

a) 1st and 2nd week of embryo-fetal life

b) 6th and 10th week of embryo-fetal life

c) 3rd week of fetal life

d) None of the above

# Father of Health Statistics is:

# Father of Health Statistics is:
A. John Snow
B. John Graunt
C. Fredrick Mckay
D. Pierre Fauchard

Answer: B, John Graunt

Graunt, along with William Petty, developed early human statistical and census methods that later provided a framework for modern demography. He is credited with producing the first life table, giving probabilities of survival to each age. Graunt is also considered as one of the first experts in epidemiology, since his famous book was concerned mostly with public health statistics.

MCQs on Pathology - Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders

The correct answers are highlighted in green. Please read these MCQs once quickly and test yourself by watching the video at the bottom of the page.

# Oedema may be caused by any of the following EXCEPT: (MAN -95)
a) An increase in the plasma protein concentration
b) An increase in the capillary hydrostatic pressure
c) An increase in the capillary permeability
d) Lymphatic obstruction

# The most common site of origin for venous thrombi leading to pulmonary embolism is: (KCET- 09)

a) Ascending aorta

b) Portal vein

c) Deep leg veins

d) Right atrium

# Anasarca means

a) Abnormal inflammatory process

b) Severe generalized swelling

c) Absence of proliferation of vessels following inflammation

d) Presence of pus

# Edema is due to: (KAR -98)

a) Increased albumin in blood and decreased globin

b) Decreased albumin cone, in blood

c) Increased osmotic pressure

d) None of the above

# Which of the following is common in all forms of shock? (MAN -97)

a) Sepsis

b) Hypovolemia

c) Vasoconstriction

d) Impaired tissue perfusion

# All of the following are typically associated with the loss of 40% of the circulating blood volume except: (MAN -94; AIIMS -93)

a) A decrease in the blood pressure

b) A decrease in the central venous pressure

c) A decrease in the heart rate

d) A decrease in the urine output

# In hypovolemic shock: (KAR -02)

a) The central venous pressure is high

b) The extremities are pale, cold and sweating

c) There is always a site of bleeding

d) Urine output is unaffected

# Hypovolemic shock develops after loss of: (KAR -98)

a) 10% blood

b) 20% blood

c) 30% blood

d) 40% blood

# Following is the most important factor in the management of shock: (TNPSC -99)

a) Blood pressure

b) Cardiac output

c) CVP to 8 cm of water

d) Deficiency of effective circulating blood volume

# Heart failure cells are: (MAN -98, COMEDK- 06)

a) Fibrocytes in myocardium

b) Aschoji's giant cells

c) Heamosiderin laden macrophages in alveoli

d) Hypertrophic myocardial fibres 

# Heart failure cells are seen in: (KAR -2K)

a) Heart

b) Lungs

c) Liver

d) Kidney

# Nut meg liver occurs in: (KAR -2K)

a) Jaundice

b) Chronic venous congestion

c) Cirrhosis

d) Hepatocellular carcinoma

# The type of embolism seen in fractures of long bones: (KAR -01)

a) Thrombo embolism

b) Air embolism

c) Fat embolism

d) Amniotic fluid embolism

#  In a thrombus, the dark lines of zahn are due to: (MAN -98)

a) Coagulated fibrin

b) Aggregated proteins

c) Aggregated platelets

d) Aggregated R.B.C

# In hemorrhage lost plasma is replaced by: (AIIMS -96)

a) Bone marrow

b) Kidney

c) Spleen

d) Muscle

#  The common cause of sudden death in myocardial infarction is

a) Congestive heart failure

b) Arrhythmias

c) Pulmonary embolism

d) None of the above

#  Infarcts are not common in

a) Both Liver and Lung

b) Liver

c) Kidney

d) Lung

# Shock is a circulatory disturbance characterized by: (APPSC-99)

a) Increased blood pressure

b) Decreased volume of circulating blood

c) Elevated body temperature

d) Decreased volume of interstitial fluid

# Which of the following statement is incorrect

a) HDL contains the highest cholesterol content

b) Low density lipoproteins has maximum association with atherosclerosis

c) Poly unsaturated fats lowers plasma cholesterol levels

d) High density lipoproteins have protective role in atherosclerosis

# Which of the following symptomatic atherosclerotic disease is correct

a) Lower extremities - claudication gangrene

b) Aorta - Aneurysm, thromboembolism

c) Heart - MI, Ischemic heart disease

d) All of the above 

# The major factors predisposing to thrombogenesis include all of the following except

a) Altered blood flow

b) Endothelial injury

c) Pattern of blood flow

d) Hyper coagulability of blood

# Three days after the onset of myocardial infarction, which enzyme level has the best predictive value

a) Serum CPK

b) Serum SGOT

c) Serum LDH

d) Serum SGPT

# Which of the following is not indicative of hemorrhage?

a) Ecchymosis

b) Petechiae

c) Melanosis

d) Malena

# Which of the following being is the most frequent site of thrombus? (KAR -97)

a) Hepatic vein

b) Pulmonary vein

c) Portal vein

d) Veins of lower extremities

# Ascites seen in alcoholic liver cirrhosis result from:

a) Decreased protein production by liver

b) Due to increased portal hypertension

c) Due to obstruction of bile duct

d) All of them

# An infarct is most frequently characterized by what type of necrosis? (AIPG -98)

a) Caseous

b) Coagulative

c) Fatty

d) Gangrenous

# The most reliable post mortem feature of left sided cardiac failure is:

a) Systemic venous congestion

b) Chronic venous congestion of lungs

c) Enlargement of spleen and liver

d) Oedematous ankles

# Which of the following is correctly matched with the forms of extravasation hemorrhages

a) Petechiae - small pin point hemorrhages

b) Purpura - small areas (1cm) of hemorrhage in to the skin and mucous membrane

c) Ecchymosis - large extravasation of blood in to the skin and mucous membrane

d) All of them

# The most reliable post mortem feature of left sided cardiac failure is

a) Systemic venous congestion

b) Chronic venous congestion of lungs

c) Enlargement of spleen and liver

d) Oedematous ankles

# Extravasation of blood in to the tissues with resulting swelling is called

a) Heamoperitonium

b) Hematoma

c) Heamopericardium

d) Hemothorax

# The infarct of the following organ is invariably haemorrhagic: (COMEDK- 10)

a) Heart

b) Spleen

c) Lung

d) Kidney

# Risk factor for atherosclerosis:

a) Hypertension

b) Diabetes

c) Smoking

d) All of them

# The commonest site of thrombosis is: (AIPG -98)

a) Heart

b) Arteries

c) Veins

d) Capillaries 

# Which of the following predisposes to thrombogenesis?

a) Stasis of blood

b) Endothelial injury

c) Turbulence of blood

d) All of them

# Partial or complete obstruction of some part of the C.V.S by a foreign body transported by the blood stream is termed as: (AIPG -98)

a) Coagulation

b) Ischaemia

c) Thrombosis

d) Embolism

# Which of the following statements is true

a) Arterial thrombi to be white and non occlusive (mural) where as venous thrombi are red and occlusive

b) Arterial thrombi produces ischemia and infarction where as cardiac and venous thrombi cause embolism

c) Venous thrombi are soft, red and gelatinous where as arterial thrombi are firm and white

d) All of them

# Major and frequent influence for thrombus formation is:

a) Fatty streak

b) Hypercoagulability

c) Endothelial damage

d) Alteration in blood flow

# Major site of atherosclerosis

a) Thoracic aorta

b) Coronary artery

c) Abdominal aorta

d) Internal carotid artery

# Active hyperemia is seen in

a) Muscles during exercise

b) Inflammation

c) Blushing

d) All of them

'

# After myocardial infarction all the following enzyme levels are high except: (COMEDK-06)

a) Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)

b) Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH)

c) Creatine phospho kinase (CPK)

d) Serum ornithine carbamyl transferase (SOCT)

# Caissons disease is caused by: (KAR -98; 04)

a) Amniotic fluid embolism

b) Tumour embolism

c) Hyper coagulability

d) Air or gas embolism

# Thrombosis due to hypercoagulability is seen in

a) Severe trauma or burns

b) Cardiac failure

c) Women taking oral contraceptives

d) All of them

# Venous emboli are most often lodged in: (COMEDK- 09)

a) Heart

b) Kidneys

c) Intestines

d) Lungs

# Gamna gandy bodies are seen in: (KAR -01)

a) Lung

b) Kidney

c) Liver

d) Spleen

# Both pale or red infarcts are seen in

a) Lung

b) Kidney

c) Brain

d) Spleen

# Tumor which shows origin from more than one germ layers is known as:

# Tumor which shows origin from more than one germ layers is known as:
A. Teratoma
B. Pleomorphic Tumors
C. Choristoma
D. Hamartoma

The Correct Answer is A. Teratoma
Teratomas are complex tumors composed of tissues derived from more than one of the three germ layers - endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm.

Hamartoma is a mass of disorganized but mature cells indigenous to the particular site.

# Which of the following tumors is most aggressive? (AIPG 91, AIIMS 2004)

# Which of the following tumors is most aggressive? (AIPG 91, AIIMS 2004)

A. Ameloblastoma
B. Odontogenic Myxoma
C. Odontoma
D. Fibrocarcinoma

Answer: B, Odontogenic Myxoma

ODONTOGENIC MYXOMA
- Aggressive, intraosseous neoplasms derived from embryonic odontogenic mesenchyme probably arise from the dental papilla or follicular mesenchyme.

- Nearly all lesions are found in the tooth bearing areas of maxillary and mandibular bone.

- Mandibular lesions are commonly found in the premolar-molar area.

- The lesions often produce multilocular radiolucency with a "soap bubble" or "honey comb" appearance in the bone.

- Thin and extremely delicate septa of bone are often seen to course through the radiolucent area and produce a "spider-web" like or "tennis racket" like appearance.

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MCQs on Tongue - Anatomy MCQs

The correct answers are highlighted in green.

# Protrusion of tongue is brought out by (MAN - 02)
a) Genioglossus
b) Intrinsic muscles of tongue
c) Styloglossus
d) Palatoglossus

# Hypoglossal nerve supplies to all the following muscles EXCEPT (MAN - 99, AP-06)
a) Palatoglossus
b) Genioglossus
c) Hyoglossus
d) Styloglossus

# The lymphatic drainage from the tip of tongue first passes to: (MAR-98)

a) Submental nodes

b) Supra clavicular nodes

c) Sub mandibular nodes

d) Superior deep cervical nodes

# When a patient protrudes his tongue, it deviated to the right. Which of the following nerves is damaged? (MAN-99)

a) Left hypoglossal

b) Glossopharyngeal

c) Right hypoglossal

d) Facial nerve

# Impulses generated in the taste buds of the tongue reach the cerebral cortex vie the: (KAR-97)

a) Thalamus

b) Internal Capsule

c) Cervical spinal nerve

d) Trigeminal nerve 

#  In which of the following papillae of the tongue are the taste buds predominantly located?(AIIMS - 93)

a) Circumvallate

b) Filiform

c) Foliate

d) Fungi form

# Circumvallate papillae are present: (AIPG-2000)

a) Behind sulcus terminalis

b) Front of sulcus terminalis

c) Anterior 2/3 of tongue

d) Lateral border of tongue

# All are structures lying deep to the hyoglossus muscle except:(AIIMS - 98)

a) Hypoglossal nerve

b) Lingual artery

c) Stylohyoid muscle

d) Geniohyoid muscle

# The papillae present on margins of the tongue: (AIPG - 98)

a) Fungiform papillae

b) Filiform papillae

c) Vallate papillae

d) Foliate papillae

# Anterior 2/3rd of tongue arises from: (AIIMS - 90)

a) Hypobranchial eminence

b) Two lingual swellings

c) Tuberculum impar

d) Two lingual Swelling & Tuberculum impar

# Deep surface of hyoglossus is related to: (C0MEDK-06)

a) Hypoglossal nerve

b) Glossopharyngeal nerve

c) Lingual nerve

d) Submandibular Ganglion

# Which of the following muscle of tongue runs from dorsum of tongue to ventral

a) Verticalis

b) Transverse

c) Inferior longitudinal

d) Superior longitudinal 

# The extrinsic muscles that aid in depressing the tongue are the: (KAR -97)

a) Styloglossi and palatoglossi

b) Genioglossi and palatoglossi

c) Hyoglossi and styloglossi

d) Genioglossi and hyoglossi

# Structures related to the medial surface of the hyoglossus muscle include the following EXCEPT: (COMEDK-08)

a) Hypoglossal nerve

b) Glossopharyngeal nerve

c) Stylohyoid ligament

d) Lingual artery

# The mucosa of the posterior third of the tongue is supplied by: (KCET-2009)

a) Trigeminal nerve

b) Facial nerve

c) Mandibular nerve

d) Glossopharyngeal nerve

# The muscles of the tongue are supplied by: (AIPG -99, AIIMS -94)

a) Chorda tympani

b) Hypoglossal

c) Lingual nerve

d) Glossopharyngeal nerve

# Main arterial supply to the tongue is: (AIPG -96)

a) Lingual artery

b) Facial Artery

c) Ascending palatine artery

d) Ascending pharyngeal artery

# Tongue develops from which branchial arches: (AIPG -93)

a) I, II, III

b) I, II, III, IV

c) I,II, IV

d) I, III, IV

# Sensory nerve fibres to posterior one third of the tongue is supplied by: (AIIMS -92)

a) XII cranial nerve

b) X cranial nerve

c) VII cranial nerve

d) IX cranial nerve

# Palsy of the right genioglossus causes:

a) Deviation of soft palate to left

b) Deviation of tongue to left

c) Deviation of tongue to right

d) Deviation of soft palate to right

# Safety muscle of tongue is: (KAR -13)

a) Palatoglossus

b) Styloglossus

c) Genioglossus

d) Hyoglossus

# The Tongue: (PGI-06)

a) Separated from the epiglottis by glossoepiglottic folds

b) Contains 6-10 circumvallate papilla located posterior to sulcus terminals

c) Embryologically derives from 1st branchial arch only

d) Contains foramen caecum which is present on the dorsum of frenulum

# Taste receptors: (GCET-14)

a) Are a type of chemoreceptor

b) All of them

c) Are innervated by afferent fibres of V, VII & IX

d) Primary taste sensations are spatially separated on the surface of the tongue

# Taste sensation is carried by all except: (AIIMS MAY-13)

a) Glossopharyngeal nerve

b) Facial nerve

c) Vagus nerve

d) Trigeminal nerve

# The action of styloglossus muscle is: (AIPG-2010)

a) Elevation of tongue

b) Posteriorly retracts the tongue

c) Protrusion of tongue

d) Depression of tongue

# Lymph from tongue not drained by following vessels: (AIIMS NOV-13)

a) Posterior

b) Central

c) Marginal

d) Ventral

# Tongue movement has its primary effect on: (AIIMS-07)

a) Cheeks

b) Facial musculature

c) Palatoglossus arch

d) Lips

MCQs on NSAIDs and other CNS Drugs - Part 2

#  All of the following statements about pain are correct except: (AIPG-01)
a) Naloxone is a non-competitive antagonist and irreversibly opposes the opioids
b) Analgesia is associated with pi and K receptors
c) Dysphoria is associated with s receptors
d) NSAIDS benefit by preventing prostaglandin synthesis

# Which of the following opioids is not given intrathecally? (AIPG-2011)

a) Sufentanil

b) Morphine

c) Remifentanil

d) Fentanyl

# Which of the following drug is used to counter act the gastric irritation produced by administration of NSAID: (AIIMS-99)

a) Pirenzipine

b) Roxatidine

c) Betaxolol

d) Misoprostol

# All are symptoms of opiate withdrawals except: (AIPG-06)

a) Lacrimation

b) Mydriasis

c) Excessive speech

d) Diarrhea

# Aspirin is contraindicated in: (AP-01)

a) Peptic ulcer

b) Angina

c) Hypertension

d) MI

# Which of the following is a muscle relaxant? (AP-06)

a) Phenylephrine

b) Succinylcholine

c) Hyoscin

d) Pentazocine

# Salicylate administration is contraindicated in pregnancy because:

a) Causes pulmonary hypertension of newborn

b) Readily erases placental barrier

c) Delay onset of labour

d) All of these

# A Hemophiliac patient has rheumatoid arthritis. Which drug might be prescribed to relieve the pain? (KCET-07)

a) Phenylbutazone

b) Acetylsalicylic acid

c) Naproxen

d) Acetaminophen

# Benzodiazepines are true in: (AIIMS-07)

a) After metabolism of other drugs in liver

b) More safe than other sedatives when take in larger amounts

c) Produce distortion in sleep more than other sedatives

d) All have metabolically active substrates

# The rate of injection of intravenous Valium is: (AIPG-05)

a) 2.5 mg / min

b) 2.5 ml / min

c) 1 mg / min

d) 1 ml / min

# Ibuprofen is contraindicated in: (KAR-04)

a) Patients having amoebic dysentery

b) Patients having fever

c) Patients having asthma

d) Patients having bronchitis

# The Ethyl alcohol (Ethanol) is more effective when mixed with water and used as: (KAR-02)

a) 10 to 20 percent

b) 60 to 70 percent

c) 40 to 50 percent

d) 20 to 30 percent

# Which one of the following is NOT an ergot alkaloids? (COMEDK-08)

a) Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)

b) Bromocriptine

c) Ketanserin

d) Methysergide

# An antiepileptic drug used in petitmal epilepsy is: (KAR-2K)

a) Diazepam

b) Phenobarbitonse

c) Ethosuximide

d) Dilantoin sodium

# Benzodiazepine antagonist is: (AIIMS-2008)

a) Naltrexone

b) Naloxone

c) Furazolidone

d) Flumazenil

# Which of the following is a short acting barbiturate?

a) Secobarbital

b) Mephobarbital 

c) Diazepam

d) Phenobarbital

# One of the obvious consequences of alcohol (ethanol), ingestion in many individuals is facial flushing and increased heart rate triggered off by alcohol getting metabolized to: (KAR-98)

a) Propanaldehyde

b) Butanaldehyde

c) Acetaldehyde

d) Formaldehyde

# NSAID which undergoes enterohepatic circulation: (AIPG-2010)

a) Ibuprofen

b) Piroxicam

c) Aspirin

d) Phenylbutazone

# Paracetamol is contraindicated in

a) Chronic hepatitis

b) Bleeding disorders

c) Fever

d) Nephritis

# Which of the following is a non-steroidal anti inflammatory agent with a tendency to produce blood dyscrasias? (APPSC-99)

a) Aspirin

b) Indomethacin

c) B & A

d) Ibuprofen

# An untoward effect of that is common to all phenothiazines is

a) A marked increase in blood pressure

b) Rigidity and tremor at rest, particularly with prolonged use

c) Nausea

d) Suppression of Prolactin

# Buprenorphine acts by following mechanism: (KAR-04)

a) Mu receptor partial agonist

b) Kappa receptor antagonist

c) Mu receptor antagonist

d) Kappa receptor partial agonist

# Drugs like barbiturates precipitate symptoms of porphyria because: (COMEDK-07)

a) They inhibit heme oxygenase

b) They depress ALA synthase

c) They inhibit ALA synthase

d) They induce heme oxygenase

# The principal central action of caffeine is on the: (AIIMS-2K)

a) Spinal cord

b) Cerebral cortex

c) Corpus callosum

d) Hypothalamus

# Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action? (AIPG-06)

a) Rocuronium

b) Atracurium

c) Vecuronium

d) Doxacurium

# Which among the following is a pure antagonist of opioid receptors? (COMEDK-08)

a) Butorphanol

b) Naltrexone

c) Nalbuphine

d) Pentazocine

# Folic acid deficiency occurs in treatment with: (AIIMS-06)

a) Chloramphenicol

b) Phenytoin

c) Cyclosporine

d) Aspirin

# Which among the following may be used as a sedatives-hypnotic? (COMEDK-08)

a) Zolpidem

b) Zolmitriptan

c) Zalcitabine

d) Zileuton

# Which of the following drugs is currently widely used in treating opioid-dependent individuals? (AIPG-03)

a) Pentazocine

b) Methadone

c) Alphaprodine

d) Codeine

# Best and most effective drug to control convulsions in toxicity cases is: (AIPG-97)

a) Phenobarbitone

b) Diazepam

c) Phenytoin

d) Carbamazepine

# Platelet aggregation is inhibited by all except

a) Salicylates

b) Indomethacin

c) Phenobarbitone

d) Dypyradimole

# Respiratory depression is seen with: (PGI-05)

a) Antidepressants

b) Non-barbiturates

c) Synthetic narcotics

d) Tranquilizers

# Barbiturates in pediatrics is: (AIIMS-96)

a) Can be used safely

b) Contraindicated

c) Not much use

d) Low safety

# Which of the following is true about parasympathetic nervous system? (MCET-07)

a) Ach is transmitter at both pre & post synaptic junction

b) It causes dilatation of skeletal muscles

c) Post-ganglionic fibres are longer than pre ganglionic fibres

d) Noradrenalin is the neurotransmitter at post ganglionic junction

# Aspirin is contraindicated in: (AP-2010)

a) Person suffering from chicken pox or small pox

b) Peptic ulcer

c) Hemorrhage

d) All of them

# An anxiolytic, not interacting with GABAergic system and used in generalized anxiety is: (KCET-08)

a) Diazepam

b) Buspiron

c) Alprazolam

d) Phenobarbital

# A patient with grand mal epilepsy would likely be under treatment with: (AIIMS-02)

a) Phenytoin

b) Meprobamate

c) Pentobarbital

d) Trimethadione

# DOPA and 5-Hydroxytryptophan are clinically important because? (AIIMS-2009)

a) They act as neuromodulators

b) They are metabolites of various neurogenic amines

c) They are acidic precursors of Brain amines

d) They cross Blood Brain Barriers

# Gastric irritation is minimum with one of the following non-steroidal anti inflammatory drugs:

a) Indomethacin

b) Meloxicam

c) Tenoxicam

d) Piroxicam

# Acute Barbiturate poisoning results in: (AIIMS-96)

a) Liver failure

b) Renal failure

c) Convulsions

d) Respiratory failure

# The anti-inflammatory analgesic drug the causes least gastrointestinal symptoms is:

a) Phenyl butazone

b) Aspirin

c) Indomethacin

d) Paracetamol