MCQs on Occlusion - Oral Anatomy

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# The maxillary teeth which have single antagonist are: (MAN-94, 95)
a) Lateral incisors
b) Permanent canines
c) Permanent central incisors
d) Third molars

# In occlusion, the teeth have: (MAN-94, AIIMS-93)

a) Cusp-to-cusp contact

b) Edge-to-edge contact

c) Marginal contact

d) Surface-to-surface contact

# In normal occlusion, with which groove / surface of the permanent mandibular first molar does the mesiobuccal cusp of the permanent maxillary first molar occlude:

a) Distobuccal groove

b) Mesial Surface

c) Mesiobuccal surface

d) Transverse groove

MCQs in Microbiology - Bacteriology Part 2

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# Malignant pustule is referred to: (KAR-2003, AIIMS-2K)
a) Facio-cervical actinomycosis
b) Cutaneous anthrax
c) Infected squamous cell carcinoma
d) None of the above

# One of the following is a zoonotic disease: (KAR-2001)

a) Anthrax

b) Typhoid

c) Bacillary dysentery

d) Cholera

# Causative agents of "Vincent's angina": (KAR-98, 2001)

a) Borrelia vincenti and Fusobacterium fusiformis

b) Borrelia recurrents and Bacteroides

c) Borrelia burgoloferi and Lactobacillus

d) Leptospira and Treponema pallidum

MCQs on Microbiology - Bacteriology Part 1

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 # The causative organism of syphilis is: (AIPG -94)
a) Borrelia burgolorferi
b) Chalamydia trachomatis
c) Leptospira interrogans
d) Treponema pallidum

# On a stained slide, Clostridium tetani has the appearance of a: (MAN-95)
a) Bunch of grapes
b) Chain of beads
c) Drum stick
d) Safety pin

# An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics. Which of the following organisms is it likely to be? (MAN-95)

a) Escherichia coli

b) Klebsiella pnemoniae

c) Proteus mirabilis

d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

MCQs on Pharmacology - Chemotherapy / Antibiotics

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# The most common side effect of the oral administration of ampicillin is: (MAN-94, AIIMS-93)
a) Anaphylactic shock
b) Diarrhoea
c) Oral candidiasis
d) Renal failure

# Which of the following drugs is likely to damage the eighth cranial nerve when administered for a long period of time? (MAN-94)

a) Ethambutol

b) Isoniazid

c) Rifampicin

d) Streptomycin 

MCQs on Mycology and Parasitology

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# The mechanism by which most fungi cause disease is: (APPSC-99)
a) exotoxin production
b) lecithinase production
c) hypersensitivity
d) coagulase production

# Germ tubes are formed mainly by: (TNPSC-99)

a) Candida albicans

b) Candida stellatoidea

c) Candida tropicalis

d) Candida pseudotropicalis

# Fungal infection of human beings is called as: (KAR-2000)

a) Mucorsis

b) Mycosis

c) Fungosis

d) Micromia

# Fungus capable of forming fungal ball is: (TNPSC-99)

a) Penicillium

b) Aspergillus

c) Mucor

d) Rhizopus

# Aflatoxins are produced by: (KAR-03)

a) Aspergillus niger

b) Aspergillus fumigatus

c) Aspergillus flavus

d) All of the above

# The culture media for fungus is -

a) Tellurite medium

b) NNN medium

c) Chocolate agar medium

d) Sabourauds medium

# A sporangium contains:

a)Spherules

b)Sporangiospores

c)Chlamydospores

d)Oidia

# The medium of choice for culturing yeast form of dimorphic fungi is -

a) Brain - heart infusion

b) Sabouraud's

c) Sabouraud's plus antibiotics

d) Any medium incubated at 35-37°C

# Pseudohyphae are seen in -

a) Alternaria

b) Aspergillus

c) Oosporium

d) Candida albicans

# Dermatophytes are fungi infecting -

a) Subcutaneous tissue

b) Systemic organs

c) Nails, hair and skin

d) Superficial skin and deep tissue

# Candida is most often implicated in causation -

a) Conjunctivitis

b) Tinea capitis

c) Desert rheumatism

d) Thrush

# Asexual spores of fungi are following except -

a) Arthospores

b) Chlamydospores

c) Blastospores

d) Ascospores

# Candida albicans causes all of the following except-

a) Endocarditis

b) Mycetoma

c) Meningitis

d) Oral thrush

# Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except: (AIPG-2001)

a) Giardia lamblia

b) Ascaris lumbriocoides

c) Strongyloides

d) Entamoeba

# Hydatid cyst is: (AIIMS, AIPG-96)

a) Parasitic in nature

b) Fungal

c) Congenital

d) Viral

# Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is: (AIPG-2002)

a) Indirect hemagglutination

b) ELISA

c) Counter immune electrophoresis

d) Microscopy

# L.D. bodies are seen in: (KAR-2000)

a) Kala azar

b) Toxoplasmosis

c) Malaria

d) Sleeping sickness

# Megaloblastic anemia is caused by: (KAR-97)

a) Dog tapeworm

b) Hookworm

c) Fish tapeworm

d) Threadworm

# Causative organism of Kala azar is: (KAR-97)

a) Plasmodium ovale

b) Leishmania donovani

c) Entamoeba histolytica

d) Toxoplasma

# Black Water Fever is caused by:

a)Plasmodium vivax

b)Plasmodium falciparum

c)Leishmania donovani

d)Microfilaria

# How is Gutta Percha Sterilized?

# Gutta Percha can effectively be sterilized by? (AIIMS-07)
a) Dry heat
b) Autoclaving
c) Hot salt sterilizer
d) Chemical solutions

Answer: D. Chemical Solutions

Gutta-percha cones may be kept sterile in screw-capped vials containing alcohol. A Gutta percha cone freshly removed from the manufacturer’s box should be immersed in 5.2% sodium hypochlorite for 1 minute, then rinse the cone with hydrogen peroxide and dry it between 2 layers of sterile gauze. 

MCQs on Cleft Lip and Palate - Oral Surgery

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# Cleft lip is operated at what age: (MAN -01)
a) 1 month
b) 6 months
c) 10 weeks
d) 1 year

# The ideal time of repair of cleft of hard palate is: (KAR -03)

a) At birth

b) Between 3-6 months of age

c) Between 12-15 months of age

d) After 2 years of age

# The ideal time of repair of cleft lip is: (KAR -03)

a) At birth

b) Between 3-6 months of age

c) At 1 - 1 1/2 years of age

d) At 1 1/2 to 2 years of age

# Pierre Robbin syndrome is:

a) Cleft palate with syndactyly

b) Cleft palate with mand. hypoplasia and respiratory obstruction

c) Cleft lip with mandibular hypoplasia

d) Cleft lip

# Hynes pharyngoplasty is used to improve a child's:

a) Appearance

b) Teething

c) Speech

d) Feeding

# Unilateral clefts are most common on:

a) Left side

b) Right side

c) Median

d) None of the above

# Commonest type of cleft lip is:

a) Bilateral

b) Midline

c) Combined with cleft palate

d) Unilateral

# Speech problems in cleft palate patients are due to: (AIIMS -97)

a) Lisping of tongue

b) Inability of soft palate to stop air to go into nasopharynx

c) Inability of learning process

d) All of the above

# Cleft lip is due to non-union of: (AIIMS -95)

a) Maxillary process with MNP

b) MNP - LNP

c) MNP - MNP

d) All of the above

#  A prosthetic appliance given to cover the palatal defect in patients with cleft palate is called: (AIIMS -03)

a) Artificial velum

b) Obturator

c) Removable prosthetic appliance

d) None of the above

#  Surgery on the hard palate of a 3 years old cleft patient may inhibit growth, causing the facial profile to become: (AIPG -03, AIIMS -91)

a) Straight

b) Elongated

c) Shortened

d) More concave

# The repair of cleft palate is primarily done for: (PGI-06)

a) Correction of speech

b) Correction of esthetics

c) Induce growth of maxilla

d) Induce growth of mandible

# Which of the following shows the lowest frequency of cleft lip and palate? (AIPG-07)

a) Negroes

b) Afghanese

c) American Indian

d) Indian

# The oral cleft problem occurs between the period of: (KCET-07)

a) 1st and 2nd week of embryo-fetal life

b) 6th and 10th week of embryo-fetal life

c) 3rd week of fetal life

d) None of the above