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Local anesthetic technique for Hemophilics:
# Which of the following is the preferred local anesthetic technique for hemophilics?
A. Nerve block
B. Supraperiosteal
C. Intraligamentary
D. Field block
The correct answer is C. Intraligamentary
In hemophilics, to avoid complications, Intraligamentary (an intraosseous technique) method of local infiltration technique is preferred. In this technique, the solution is deposited in depth of gingival sulcus. The needle should be inserted apically into the bone until resistance is met.
Local anesthetic with longest duration of action:
# In peripheral nerve block, which of the following local anesthetics has the longest duration of action?
A. Bupivacaine
B. Cocaine
C. Lignocaine
D. Prilocaine
A. Bupivacaine
B. Cocaine
C. Lignocaine
D. Prilocaine
The correct answer is A. BUPIVACAINE
Etidocaine (200 mins) followed by Bupivacaine (180 mins) are long acting anesthetics and this is due to their increased protein binding property.
Past Questions Periodontics AIIMS, July 2014. SR ship
PERIODONTICS
Questions Perio AIIMS, July 2014. SR ship
1. Which of the following is a non resorbable suture
a. Vicryl
b. PGA/PGA
c. Surgical
d. Ethicon
2. Which of the following is the most important virulent factor or P. Gingivalis?
a. Proteases
b. Hmbrac
c. Capsule
d. Polysaccharides
3. Which of the following microbial group is associated with Aa?
a. Yellow
b. Red
c. Green
d. Purple
4. RPP is caused by
a. P. Gingivalis and T. Denticola
b. P. Gingivalis and Aa
c. P. Gingivalis and T. Forsythia
d. P. Gingivalis and P. Intermedia
5. The pH of regular non-stimulated saliva is
a. 5-6
b. 6-7
c. 7-8
d. >7 always
6. What are calcispherites?
a. The calcium which is found in supragingival plaque
b. The calcium found in subgingival plaque
c. The calcium found at minerlisation front
d. The calcium bound phosphate in matrix vesicles
7. Which of the following is the long acting anesthesia?
a. Bupivacaine
b. Mapivaicaine
c. Articaine
d. Prilocaine
8. Which of the following is the most potent APC?
a. Macrophage
b. Neutrophil
c. B-Cell
d. Langerhans cell
9. Most bacterial species of RPP found under
a. Provetella group
b. Bacteroid group
c. Filamentous
d. Black pigmented
10. The salivary gland acini are lined by
a. Cuboidal cells
b. Columnar cell (pyramidal)
c. Myoepithelial cells
d. Columnar ciliated
11. A father presented his son who is 5 years of age, with swelling in the parotid region. The
child is having fever and malaise from last 3 days. He has difficulty swallowing and general
malaise. Biopsy of the parotid gland revealed chronic inflammatory cell infiltration and pus
discharge. The probable diagnose would be
a. Acute bacterial parotitis
b. Mumps
c. Parotid gland tumor
d. Sialolithiasis
12. The artery which loops around superficial temporal artery is
a. Middle meningeal artery
b. Maxillary artery
c. Masseteric artery
d. Temporal artery
13. The posterior pillar of the palatine tonsils is formed by which of the following muscle?
a. Palatoglossal
b. Palatopharyngeal
c. Buccinators
d. Glossopharyngeal
14. The following is the function of a fixer in the development of radiographic films
a. It removes the extra silver halides which are unfixed
b. It strengthens/ fixes the silver halids onto the x-ray film
c. It takes away extra developer solution
d. It binds the developer to the film
15. Which of the following antibiotic can’t be given to a pregnant lady?
a. Doxycycline
b. Penicillin
c. Streptomycin
d. Aminoglycosides
16. The most effective and modern diagnostic aid used for the detection of fractures in the head
and neck region is
a. CBCT
b. 0.8 mm CT
c. MRI
d. Scans using radio-isotopes
17. Which of the following autogenous bone graft is not preferred for grafting- (doubt)
a. Tibial graft
b. Sternal graft
c. Rib graft
d. Ileac crest graft
18. Which of the following mineral is essential for wound healing- (if magnesium is there in
the option then answer will be mg)
a. Selenium
b. Copper
c. Lithium
d. Calcium
19. Which of the following is a diagnostic indicator of viral replication in
hepatitis- b
a. Presence of Hbs-Ag in blood
b. Presence of Hbs-c in blood
c. Presence of Hbs-e in blood
d. Presence of Hbs-ab in blood
20. The MMP,s most commonly associated with acute periodontitis is-
a. MMP-1
b. MMP-2
c. MMP-9
d. MMP-8
21. A known case of Diabetes mellitus has entered the medical emergency/ casualty in the subconscious state, the first step towards the management of this patient would be :
a. Dextrose 5% IV
b. Insulin injection
c. Blood test to monitor the blood glucose
d. HBS IV
22. The time taken for the complete collagen fibres to form during wound healing is
a. 1 week
b. 3 weeks
c. 1 month
d. 6 week
23. The bone graft which is best suited for periodontal regeneration is
a. DMFD
b. FDBG
c. Cortical bone chips from the bone bank
d. Anorganic bone
24. Which of the following treatment modality is safest for the sinus lift procedure
a. Soft lasers
b. Piezoelectric appliances
c. Osteotomes
d. Shwartz membrane lifters
25. The smooth muscles cells have the following shape
a. Cylindrical
b. Spindle
c. Flattened
d. Branched fusiform
26. Which of the following is absent in periodontal ligament fibres
a. Dermatan sulphate
b. Mature elastin fibre
c. Chondroitin sulphate
d. Intermediate plexus
27. The gingival enlargement is the most common finding in the following type of leukemia
a. AML
b. ALL
c. CML
d. CLL
28. Which of the following is not a conditional gingival enlargement
a. Pubertal
b. Pregnancy
c. Drug induced
d. Leukaemic
29. Which of the following are the most radio-sensitive cells in the body
a. Basal cells
b. Lymphoid tissues
c. RBC;s
d. Smooth muscles
30. A child of 5 years of age comes to the department of periodontology with necrotic, bleeding,
gingival, which name one can assign to the present condition-
a. Acute necrotizing gingivitis
b. Necrotizing gingival enlargement
c. Necrotizing gingiva of HIV
d. Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis
31. Which of the following is not a component of posterior triangle of the neck
a. Pheranic nerve
b. External jugular vein
c. Subclavian vessels
d. Hypoglossal nerve
32. A mother brings her daughter of 11 years of age to the clinic severe gingival recessions and
acute gingivitis, the mother said that she had the same problem when she of her age and there was a
complaint of early exfoliation of teeth of her mother. Till the time her mother reached puberty she
lost all her teeth. The probable diagnosis would be
a. RPP
b. AP
c. Chronic periodontitis associated with systematic illness
d. Chronic periodontitis
33. The most effective way to clean the root concavities is –
a. Tooth brush
b. Dental floss
c. Interdental brush
d. Tooth pick
34. The cells that forms the myeline shieth of cranial nerves
a. Schwann cells
b. Oligodendrocytes
c. Glial cells
d. Astral cells
35. The form cells in arteromatous plaque is formed by
a. Oxidized LDL and macrophages
b. LDL and lymphocytes
c. Macrophages and cholesterol
d. Smooth muscles and macrophages
36. Rabies is not caused by
a. Cats
b. Rats
c. Dogs
d. Monkeys
37. The unit to measure the absorbed radiation dose is
a. Siverts
b. Roentgen
c. Joule
d. Rad
38. The premolar which is commonly found to have only one pulp horn
a. Maxillary first
b. Maxillary second
c. Mandibular first
d. Mandibular second
39. The last primary teeth to erupt is
a. Mandibular second molar
b. Mandibular third molar
c. Maxillary second molar
d. Maxillary third molar
40. Inter nuclear inclusion bodies are most commonly found in:
a. Condyloma
b. Papilloma
c. CMV
d. HSV
41. Osseous coagulum is formed by
a. Blood and cortical bone
b. Saline and cortical bone
c. Blood and cancellous bone
d. Saline and cancellous bone
42. The best result after periodontal surgery can be expected in
a. One wall defect
b. Two wall defect
c. Three wall defect
d. Horizontal defect
43. Which of the following local delivery agent is approved by FDA to be used as a monotherapy?
a. Chlorhexidine chip
b. Doxycyclin gel
c. Minocyclin microspheres
d. Tetracycline fibres
44. Lack of primary stability of dental implant will result in
a. Fibrous encapsulation
b. Anti-titanium antibody formation
c. Peri-implant abscess formation
d. Occasional osseointegration
45. Which of the following enhances the cytotoxic effect of aldehydes on human gingival
fibroblasts
a. Gelatin
b. Triclosan
c. Polylactic acids
d. Alcohol containing mouthwashes
46. The cementum of periodontally weak root surfaces may exhibit all of the following except
a. Increased minerlization
b. Decreased minerlization
c. Endotoxin adhesion
d. Increased collagen cross bands
47. The commonly occurring species in human gingival crevice are F. nucleatum and
a. C. rectus
b. P. Gingivalis
c. B. Forsythus
d. A. naeslundii
48. The following antifungal is commonly used in immunocompromised patients for invasive and
systemic infections
a. Terbinafin
b. Flycytosine
c. Griseofulvin
d. Amphotericin B
49. Longest half-life is of
a. Diazepam
b. Larazapam
c. Triazolam
d. Chlorazipam
50. GTR is contraindicated in
a. One wall defect
b. Two wall defect
c. Three wall defect
d. Narrow defects
51. Purple line which follows the contour of the gingival is seen in position of
a. Lead
b. Bismuth
c. Arsenic
d. Mercury
52. Which of the following at the primary colonizers of gingival sulcus
a. Streptococcus and actinomyces
b. Filamenetous spirochetes
c. Gram –ve anerobes
d. Gram +ve anerobes
53. The largest among the tongue papilla are
a. Fungiform
b. Fungiform
c. Filiform
d. Circumvallate
54.
The patient has high cholesterol, strong family history of CHD, smoker and
age… are II variables of –
a. Multiple regression model
b. Linear regression model
c. Linear logistic regression
d. Multiple logistic regression
55. A test can tell 24 out of 80 positive. B test can tell 70 out of 80 positive. And
p value is <0.0005, which means
a. B is more significant in testing a disease than A
b. There are chances that almost every time the same outcome will occur after testing both A and B
c. Test A is more specific than test B
d. Both the test will do qualitative analysis
56. Repeat-1
57. Repeat 19
58. FDA pregnancy-b category NSAID is
a. Tolmetin
b. Naproxen
c. Mefenamic acid
d. Paracetamol
59.
Where the defect is through and through but covered by soft tissue is what
kind of furcation involvement?
a. Grade-I
b. Grade-II
c. Grade-III
d. Grade-IV
60. All are synthetic bone grafts except
a. Bioplast
b. Dentogen
c. Nanogen
d. Nova-bone
61. Which of the following of fibres are absent from intermediate plexus (doubt)
a. Horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Oblique
d. Wavy
62. The first formed bone in an extraction socket is
a. Woven bone
b. Spongy bone
c. Cancellous bone
d. Cortical bone
Prosthodontics Past Questions - February 2018
[LM 675] FEBRUARY 2018 Sub. Code: 4220
FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM
(Common to Final Year Paper VII - Modified Regulation III Candidates and Final Year Paper V - New
Modified Regulation Candidates)
PAPER V – PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE
Q.P Code: 544220
Time: 180 Minutes Maximum: 70 Marks
I. Elaborate on:
(2 x 10 = 20)
1. Define face bow. Discuss the types of face bow and how do you transfer a face bow?
2. Define a major connector. Discuss in detail about various types of maxillary major connector
with diagram.
II. Write Notes on:
(10 x 5 = 50)
1. Selective pressure impression.
2. Significance of rest position of mandible.
3. Abutment’s in FPD.
4. Objectives of surveying.
5. Stability in complete denture.
6. Metal ceramic crowns.
7. Primary stress bearing areas in mandible for complete denture.
8. Methods of establishing support in distal extension partial denture.
9. Gingival retraction techniques.
10. Implant fixture designs.
*******
FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM
(Common to Final Year Paper VII - Modified Regulation III Candidates and Final Year Paper V - New
Modified Regulation Candidates)
PAPER V – PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE
Q.P Code: 544220
Time: 180 Minutes Maximum: 70 Marks
I. Elaborate on:
(2 x 10 = 20)
1. Define face bow. Discuss the types of face bow and how do you transfer a face bow?
2. Define a major connector. Discuss in detail about various types of maxillary major connector
with diagram.
II. Write Notes on:
(10 x 5 = 50)
1. Selective pressure impression.
2. Significance of rest position of mandible.
3. Abutment’s in FPD.
4. Objectives of surveying.
5. Stability in complete denture.
6. Metal ceramic crowns.
7. Primary stress bearing areas in mandible for complete denture.
8. Methods of establishing support in distal extension partial denture.
9. Gingival retraction techniques.
10. Implant fixture designs.
*******
Prosthodontics Past Questions- August 2017
[LL 675] AUGUST 2017 Sub. Code: 4220
FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM
(Common to Final Year Paper VII - Modified Regulation III Candidates and Final Year Paper V - New
Modified Regulation Candidates)
PAPER V – PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE
Q.P Code: 544220
Time: 180 Minutes Maximum: 70 Marks
I. Elaborate on:
(2 x 10 = 20)
1. Define complete denture impression. Write in detail the principles of impression making. Justify
the method you select in complete denture impression.
2. Discuss various components of removable partial denture. Write in detail the direct retainer.
II. Write Notes on:
(10 x 5 = 50)
1. Semi adjustable articulators.
2. Principles of retention in complete dentures.
3. Parts of a face bow.
4. Methods to register vertical dimensions in complete denture.
5. Parts of a surveyor.
6. Finish line in Fixed Partial Denture.
7. Classify direct retainers.
8. Relining methods in Complete Denture.
9. Two stage implants used in prosthodontics.
10. Abutment evaluation in F.P.D.
**
FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM
(Common to Final Year Paper VII - Modified Regulation III Candidates and Final Year Paper V - New
Modified Regulation Candidates)
PAPER V – PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE
Q.P Code: 544220
Time: 180 Minutes Maximum: 70 Marks
I. Elaborate on:
(2 x 10 = 20)
1. Define complete denture impression. Write in detail the principles of impression making. Justify
the method you select in complete denture impression.
2. Discuss various components of removable partial denture. Write in detail the direct retainer.
II. Write Notes on:
(10 x 5 = 50)
1. Semi adjustable articulators.
2. Principles of retention in complete dentures.
3. Parts of a face bow.
4. Methods to register vertical dimensions in complete denture.
5. Parts of a surveyor.
6. Finish line in Fixed Partial Denture.
7. Classify direct retainers.
8. Relining methods in Complete Denture.
9. Two stage implants used in prosthodontics.
10. Abutment evaluation in F.P.D.
**
Prosthodontics Past Questions - February 2017
[LK 675] FEBRUARY 2017 Sub. Code: 4220
FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM
(Common to Final Year Paper VII - Modified Regulation III Candidates and Final Year Paper V - New
Modified Regulation Candidates)
PAPER V – PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE
Q.P Code: 544220
Time: 180 Minutes Maximum: 70 Marks
I. Elaborate on:
(2 x 10 = 20)
1. Define Balanced Occlusion. Write in detail the laws to achieve Balanced Occlusion.
2. Define Surveyor and discuss the parts of surveyor in detail with the help of a diagram.
II. Write Notes on:
(10 x 5 = 50)
1. Classification of Face bow and mention the parts of a face bow with the help of a diagram.
2. Types of Obturators.
3. Remounting procedures in Complete Dentures.
4. Posterior palatal seal in Complete Denture.
5. Component parts in Removable Partial Denture.
6. Finish lines used in Fixed Partial Denture.
7. Adhesive bridges.
8. Parts of two stage implant system with the help a diagram.
9. Post insertion complaints in Complete Denture.
10. Classification system in Removable Partial Denture.
*******
FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM
(Common to Final Year Paper VII - Modified Regulation III Candidates and Final Year Paper V - New
Modified Regulation Candidates)
PAPER V – PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE
Q.P Code: 544220
Time: 180 Minutes Maximum: 70 Marks
I. Elaborate on:
(2 x 10 = 20)
1. Define Balanced Occlusion. Write in detail the laws to achieve Balanced Occlusion.
2. Define Surveyor and discuss the parts of surveyor in detail with the help of a diagram.
II. Write Notes on:
(10 x 5 = 50)
1. Classification of Face bow and mention the parts of a face bow with the help of a diagram.
2. Types of Obturators.
3. Remounting procedures in Complete Dentures.
4. Posterior palatal seal in Complete Denture.
5. Component parts in Removable Partial Denture.
6. Finish lines used in Fixed Partial Denture.
7. Adhesive bridges.
8. Parts of two stage implant system with the help a diagram.
9. Post insertion complaints in Complete Denture.
10. Classification system in Removable Partial Denture.
*******
August 2016 Past Questions - Prosthodontics
[LJ 675] AUGUST 2016 Sub. Code: 4220
FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM
(Common to Final Year Paper VII - Modified Regulation III Candidates and Final Year Paper V - New
Modified Regulation Candidates)
PAPER V – PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE
Q.P Code: 544220
Time: 180 Minutes Maximum: 70 Marks
I. Elaborate on:
(2 x 10 = 20)
1. Define centric relation and mention various methods to register centric relation in complete
denture. Discuss one method in detail.
2. Define pontic in Fixed Partial Denture. Discuss the selection of pontics in clinical
practice.
II. Write Notes on:
(10 x 5 = 50)
1. Direct sequale in wearing CD.
2. Indirect retainers in removable partial dentures.
3. Design of a Class I maxillary partial denture with help of a diagram.
4. Fluid control in Fixed Partial Denture.
5. Hanau’s law of Balanced Occlusion.
6. Rebasing in Complete Denture.
7. Osseointegration in Implants.
8. Phonetics in Complete Denture.
9. Alloys used in Cast Partial Denture.
10. Maxillofacial materials.
******
FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM
(Common to Final Year Paper VII - Modified Regulation III Candidates and Final Year Paper V - New
Modified Regulation Candidates)
PAPER V – PROSTHODONTICS AND CROWN AND BRIDGE
Q.P Code: 544220
Time: 180 Minutes Maximum: 70 Marks
I. Elaborate on:
(2 x 10 = 20)
1. Define centric relation and mention various methods to register centric relation in complete
denture. Discuss one method in detail.
2. Define pontic in Fixed Partial Denture. Discuss the selection of pontics in clinical
practice.
II. Write Notes on:
(10 x 5 = 50)
1. Direct sequale in wearing CD.
2. Indirect retainers in removable partial dentures.
3. Design of a Class I maxillary partial denture with help of a diagram.
4. Fluid control in Fixed Partial Denture.
5. Hanau’s law of Balanced Occlusion.
6. Rebasing in Complete Denture.
7. Osseointegration in Implants.
8. Phonetics in Complete Denture.
9. Alloys used in Cast Partial Denture.
10. Maxillofacial materials.
******
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