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MCQs in Orthodontics - Cephalometry


# Frankfort's horizontal plane (FHP) is formed by joining:
A. Porion and Orbitale
B. Nasion and Sella
C. Porion and Sella
D. Porion and Nasion

# Most anterior part of the chin is:
A. Gonion
B. Pogonion
C. Menton
D. Gnathion
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Lok Sewa Aayog 2071 Key A - 8th Level Dental Surgeon Question Paper

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 1. Petechial hemorrhage is characteristic of which of the following condition?
A. Agranulocytosios
B. Neutropenia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Thrombocytopenic purpura


2. A patient with mitral valve replacement  will require which of the following preoperatively?
A. Benzathene Penicillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Procaine penicillin
D. Vibramycin


3. Cyanosis of lips is a common finding in all EXCEPT:
A. Polycythemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Congenital heart disease


4. Most common oral change of nutritional anemia is:
A. Atrophic glossitis
B. Leukoplakia
C. Lichen planus
D. Hypertrophic glossitis


5. Chemotherapeutic agent has following side effects EXCEPT:
A. Hair loss
B. Diarrhoea
C. Hypertension
D. Mucositis

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Unit 1- Genetics, Growth and Development and Immunology - BPKIHS Past Questions Collection

ANATOMY

 2016
1. Mention the types of chromosomal structural aberrations. 5
2. Draw a well labeled any 5 symbols used in making the pedigree. 5
3. Draw a labeled histological diagram of lymph node. 5
4. List the ethical principles in genetics. 5
5. List the indications for prenatal diagnosis. 5

2015
1. Mention splenic circulation with well labeled diagram. 5
2. Draw any five symbols of pedigree chart. 5
3. Mention the criteria for X-linked recessive disorders and any two examples of it. 5
4. Mention the indications for prenatal diagnosis. 5
5. Write any five chromosomal structural aberrations. 5

2014
1. Explain the pattern of inheritance in Autosomal Recessive inheritance with example. 5
2. Write a short note on age related histological changes in thymus. 5
3. Discuss about the splenic circulation. 5
4. Elaborate the process of Karyotyping. 5
5. List the indication of prenatal diagnosis. 5

2013
1. Classify chromosomal disorders. 5
2. Define genetic counseling and list its procedures. 5
3. Draw a labeled histological diagram of Thymus. 5
4. Write the theories of Splenic circulation. 5
5. List the indications for prenatal diagnosis. 5

2012
1. List the entities in white and red pulp of spleen and illustrate these in a labelled diagram. 2+2+1=5
2. Describe the structure of a splenic venous sinusoid. 5
3. Mention any five structural chromosomal aberrations with diagrams. 5
4. List the criteria for autosomal dominant inheritance. And list four examples of autosomal dominant disease conditions. 2.5+2.5=5
5. Classify lymphoid organs with examples. Write the relations of spleen. 2+3=5

2011
1. Illustrate with a labeled diagram of the histological features of:
a. Lymph node 4
b. Spleen 4
c. Tonsil 4
d. Name two clinical conditions associated with any two of the above organs. 1.5x2=3
2. Enumerate the indications for prenatal diagnosis. Mention at least five indications. 5
3. What is karyotyping? Name the cells commonly used in Karyotyping. 1+4=5

2010
1. Classify chromosomal disorders with examples of each. 5
2. Describe genetic screening and genetic counselling. 5
3. Draw a labeled diagram of spleen. 5
4. Write the criteria and examples of X-linked dominant disorder. 5
5. Mention the basis of lymph formation and its final destination. 5




PHYSIOLOGY

2016
1. Explain the mechanism by which complement system provides innate immunity. 5
2. Illustrate with the labeled diagram the role of helper T cells in immune response. 5
3. Define aging. Describe briefly about the free radical theory of aging. 5

2015
1. Describe the role of helper T cells in acquired immunity. 5
2. List the theories of aging. Describe briefly the most acceptable one. 5
3. Describe how complement system is activated and list their functions. 5

2014
1. Draw a growth curve depicting the growth of any two organs/systems up to the age of 20 years. List any three important factors involved in growth of a child. 3+3=6
2. Describe the role of T helper cells in acquired immunity. 4
3. Define innate immunity. Describe function of skin as innate immunity. 5

2013
1. Explain the pattern of growth in different parts of body with the help of labeled diagram. 5
2. With the help of flowchart explain how bacterial infection leads to antibody synthesis in peripheral lymphoid organs. 5
3. Explain the effect of aging in blood and immune mechanisms. 5

2012
1. Mention any three age related changes in nervous system. 3
2. Define growth and development. Describe the role of thyroid hormone on it. 2+3=5
3. Define innate immunity. Mention the role of gastric secretion as innate immunity. 1+3=4
4. Mention any three functions of helper T cells. 3

2011
1. Name the abnormalities of growth due to hormonal factors.   5
2. Describe the process of phagocytosis by the neutrophils. 5
3. What is the role of T lymphocytes in immunity? 5

2010
1. Explain the role of helper T cells in the formation of antibodies and regulation of immunity. 4
2. Define growth and development. Describe the physiological changes that occur in a newborn during progress towards adulthood. 2+4=6
3. State the theories of aging. Describe one of them. 2+3=5



BIOCHEMISTRY
2016
1. What is gene therapy? Explain any one mode of gene therapy.
2. Write a short note on epigenetics.
3. Describe the process of termination in prokaryotic transcription.
4. Explain in brief about prokaryotic gene regulation with a suitable example.
5. Describe the steps involved in polymerase chain reaction. Add a note on the biomedical importance of this technique.
6. Enumerate four post-translational modifications with suitable examples.
7. Describe the endocytic mode of antigen processing and presentation.
8. Enlist the different types of mutation. Shortly describe the various DNA repair mechanism occurring in our body.
9. Write the difference between Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic DNA replication.


2015
1. Differentiate cell mediated immunity from humoral mediated immunity. 3
2. Explain point mutation with an example. 3
3. What are histones? Explain their role in the nucleus. 3
4. Illustrate Prokaryotic gene regulation with the help of suitable example. 4
5. Describe Cytosolic pathway (Endogenous antigen) of antigen processing and presentation by T cell. 4
6. How is recombinant DNA prepared in a laboratory? 4
7. Describe the different methods involved in termination of transcription. 4
8. Describe the steps involved in PCR. Add a note on the biomedical importance of this technique. 5
9. List three DNA repair mechanism and explain any one of them with example. 5

2014
1. Explain the mechanism of regulation of gene expression using Lac Operon Model. 5
2. List the steps of PCR. Explain the uses of PCR in medicine. 5
3. Draw an illustrated diagram the regions of eukaryotic typical gene. 5
4. Explain the role of post-translational modifications with two examples. 5
5. Write a brief note on genomic library. 5
6. Explain the molecular defects in xeroderma pigmentosum. 5
7. Define Satellite DNA. How is it categorized? 5

2013
1. Explain the terms affinity, avidity and adjuvants related to immune system. 3
2. What are restriction endonucleases? Highlight their roles in recombinant DNA technology. 4
3. Write the mechanism involved in switching to IgM to IgE. 4
4. Explain the roles of signals that help in termination of RNA synthesis in prokaryotes. 4
5. “Newly replicated two anti-parallel strands of DNA occur simultaneously but in opposite directions.” Justify this statement with the mechanisms involved in it. 5
6. Mention three antigen presenting cells. Explain how class II MHC molecules present antigens. 5
7. Outline the causes of DNA damage and give a brief account of DNA repair system. 5
8. Give a detailed account of the causes, types and effects of mutation. 5

2012
1. Illustrate with a diagram the structural organization of a typical immunoglobulin. 3
2. Explain the role of histones protein in DNA organization. 3
3. Draw a labelled diagram depicting the secondary structure of a typical tRNA muscle and mention the function of the different arms. 3
4. With the help of suitable diagram, describe the regulation of lac-operon in E. coli. 5
5. How are protein synthesized within ribosomes get targeted to the cell membrane?
6. Illustrate diagrammatically the phases of the cell cycle with their regulatory points.
7. What are MHC molecules and state one important application of determination of its expression in cells?
8. Describe the steps involved in Southern blotting and mention its application. 3+2=5
9. What is gene therapy? Describe any two modes of gene therapy. 2+3=5

2011
1. Describe the process involved in replication of DNA.
2. Discuss the types of DNA repair mechanisms.
3. Discuss the process involved in DNA transcription.
4. Define gene therapy. Explain any one mode of gene therapy.
5. Explain the principle of polymerase chain reaction and mention its utility. 5
6. How is the technique of DNA fingerprinting applied in medical sciences?
7. How is an antigen from viral protein processed and presented by antigen presenting cell?
8. Draw a labeled diagram of immunoglobulin G(IgG).

2010
1. Name vectors and its utility in molecular biology.
2. Describe the properties of genetic code.
3. State the steps of recombinant DNA technology? Enlist its two applications in medicine.
4. State the key steps and materials required for PCR.
5. Describe the role of Rho proteins in the termination of translation.
6. Define point mutation. Describe the various consequences of point mutation.
7. Define gene therapy. Explain any one mode of gene therapy.



MICROBIOLOGY
2016
1. Define antigen. Tabulate the differences between T cell dependent and T cell independent antigen. 5
2. In a tabulated form compare and contrast live and inactivated vaccine. 5
3. Write short notes on: 5x2=10
a. Profone phenomenon
b. Opsoniztion

2015
1. List antigen antibody reactions. Describe one type of it with appropriate examples. 5
2. Write short notes on: 5x3=15
a. Innate immunity
b. Complement pathway
c. Immunoglobulin M (IgM)

2014
1. Write short notes on: 5x2=10
a. Role of different non culture techniques used as diagnostic tool in laboratory
b. Live attenuated vaccine.
2. Define complement. Write briefly on its biological functions. 5
3. With a labeled diagram describe the structure of immunoglobulin G. 5

2013
1. Write note on the following:
a. Alternate pathway for the complement activation. 5
b. Biological structures of immunoglobulin G. 5
2. Lab diagnosis of opportunistic mycoses. 5
3. Labelled diagram of HIV. 5

2012
1. List antigen-antibody reactions. Write the principle and application of any one of the reactions. 5
2. Tabulate the difference between live attenuated and killed(inactivated) vaccine. 5
3. Draw a labeled diagram of immunoglobulin. 5
4. Write briefly on characteristics of antigens. 5

2011
1. Define antigen and antibody. Describe any three types of antigen-antibody reactions. 2+3=5
2. Describe any two non-cultural methods for microbial identification. 2.5+2.5=5
3. Describe the different mechanism involved in innate immunity to micro-organisms. 5
4. Draw a well labeled diagram of immunoglobulin G and mention any two biological functions of immunoglobulin. 3+2=5

2010
1. Life cycle of Leishmania donovani. 5
2. Write short note on vaccine. 5
3. Write short note on:
a. Non cultural techniques for diagnosis of Microbial infection. 5
b. Biological properties of IgG. 5


PATHOLOGY
2016
1. Enlist any four structural changes that can be seen in chromosomes. Define any one. 2+1=3
2. Describe the pathogenesis of HIV infection in brief. 3
3. Define hypersensitivity reaction. List the types of it and mention the involved mechanism in them. 1+3=4

2015
1. Explain the mechanism of tissue damage by Type III (three) hypersensitivity reaction. 5
2. Enlist primary immunodeficiency disorders. 5

2014
1. Enumerate the types of hypersensitivity reactions. Give at least two examples of each. Write briefly about the Type II hypersensitivity reaction. 2+1+2=5
2. Mention the effect or mechanisms of Allograft Rejection. Write down the morphological changes which occur in case of kidney. 2.5+2.5=5

2013
1. Define autoimmunity. Describe the mechanism of autoimmunity explaining the concept of central and peripheral tolerance. 1+4=5
2. Name Diagnostic tests for genetic disorders. 5

2012
1. Define Hypersensitivity Reaction. What are its type? Describe each of them with examples. 1+1+3=5
2. Write a short note on Amyloidosis. 5

2011
1. Discuss the pathogenesis of Lysosomal Storage Diseases (LSD). 5
2. Enumerate the different types of Hypersensitivity reactions with an example each. 5

2010
1. Mention about the pathogenesis of Lysosomal storage disease. 5
2. Write in brief the morphology of Transplant rejection reactions(kidneys). 5


PHARMACOLOGY
2016
1. Write the mechanism of action, common side effects, uses and contraindication and precaution of Sirolimus. 5

2015
1. How Azathioprine is effective as immunosuppressive agents? 2.5
2. Why anti-D immunoglobulin is not given to Rho-D positive mother? 2.5

2014
1. Mention the hazards of immunosuppressive therapy. 3
2. Explain the nephrotoxic effects of cyclosporine. 2

2013
1. Write pharmacological effects,side effects, uses and contraindication and precaution of Cyclosporine. 5

2012
1. Mention immunosuppressive agents. Write mechanism of action, side effect, uses and contraindication of Tacrolimus. 5

2011
1. Explain the rationale behind the administration of immunosuppressants in organ transplantation. Name four immunosuppressant agents. 5
2010
1. Write the mechanism of action, common side effects and therapeutic uses of Azathioprine. 5

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Lok Sewa Aayog, Dental Surgeon 8th Level - Second Paper 2070/04/01


 Public Service Commission
Nepal Health Service, Dentistry, 8th Level, Dental Surgeon
Competitive Written Examination
2070/04/01

Time: 3 hours                                                                                               Full Marks: 100

Paper: Second
Subject: Dentistry

Answers to these Questions should be written in separate answer papers according to their respective sections.


Section A

1. Describe the mechanism for the natural arrest of hemorrhage and discuss the investigation of a patient suspected of a bleeding diathesis.  (5+5=10)

2. Give the WHO classification of Salivary Gland Tumors. Enlist the clinical features of pleomorphic adenoma. Add a note on the histopathological features of pleomorphic adenoma.   (3+3+4=10)


Section B

3. A 45 years old male brought to emergency department with history of road traffic accident. What is your line of management from dentofacial trauma aspect?   10

4. Write short notes on:  (2*5=10)
a) Ludwig's angina
b) Trismus

5. Describe acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis with its cause, clinical feature, and management in detail.   (2+4+4=10)

Section C

6. What do you mean by functional appliances? Explain in brief about oral screen.  (4+6=10)

7. Write down the name of five different types of impression material along with their composition and uses. (5+5=10)

8. Define dental implants. Enumerate its advantages and disadvantages. (2+4+4=10)

Section D  

9. Write in Brief: (2*5=10)
a) Black classification of cavities
b) Pulp capping and Pulpotomy

10. a) Name 10 possible causes of malocclusion.   (5)
      b) What do you mean by DMF and DEF in dental survey?    (5)

                                                                 THE END



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Past Question Collection of Lok Sewa Aayog Nepal - 8th Level Officer BDS - Dental Surgeon

 CLICK ON THE QUESTION PAPER YOU WOULD LIKE TO VIEW. 



# 2071 Key A Lok Sewa Aayog Dental Surgeon - 8th Level

# 2072 Key C Lok Sewa Aayog Dental Surgeon - 8th Level

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Lok Sewa Aayog 2073 Key B - 8th Level Dental Surgeon Question Paper

WATCH THIS VIDEO WITH ALL ANSWERS FOR A QUICK REVISION

 



Lok Sewa Aayog Nepal 2073 Key B
MCQs
For 8th Level Dental Surgeon



1. Which of the following medication is required preoperatively for a patient with mitral valve replacement?
A. Ampicillin
B. Cloxacillin
C. Benzathine penicillin
D. Procaine penicillin


2.  A patient comes with severe pain in an extraction socket after 3 days of extraction. Which of the following drugs would you prescribe?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Metronidazole
C. Diclofenac
D. Tramadol


3. The ideal time for repair of a cleft lip is:
A. Immediately after birth
B. 3 weeks to 3 months
C. 3 months to 3 years
D. After puberty


4. In unilateral TMJ ankylosis, the chin is deviated to:
A. The contralateral side
B. The affected side
C. No deviation seen
D. Side where growth is occurring


5. The recurrent ranula is best treated by:
A. Electrosurgery
B. Cryosurgery
C. Marsupialization
D. Sublingual gland excision


6. Dry socket commonly occurs after:
A. 24 hours
B. 2 days
C. 3-4 days
D. 10-15 days


7. Farmer’s lip is also known as:
A. Actinic cheilitis
B. Cheilitis granularis
C. Oral submucous fibrosis
D. Noma


8. Cheilitis granulomatosa, facial paralysis and scrotal tongue is seen in:
A. Miescher syndrome
B. Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
C. Apert syndrome
D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome


9. Which of the following is also known as trench mouth?
A. Noma
B. ANUG
C. Herpes gingivostomatitis
D. Herpes zoster


10. The pain on swallowing or turning the head associated with elongated styloid process is known as:
A. Tic douloureux
B. Gorham syndrome
C. Costen syndrome
D. Eagle’s syndrome


11. All are risk factors EXCEPT:
A. Tobacco smoking
B. Microbial tooth deposit
C. Diabetes
D. Bleeding on probing


12. Nikolsky’s sign is a feature of:
A. Lichen planus
B. Pemphigus
C. Herpes simplex
D. Lupus erythematosus


13. A known case of anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is brought to hospital for treatment. Which area of body do you find mostly affected in this case?
A. Spleen
B. Skin or ectoderm
C. Kidney
D. Thyroid gland


14. If one of your patient is having Fordyce’s granules in his buccal mucosa, what will be your line of treatment?
A. Excision
B. No treatment needed
C. Topical application of steroids
D. Surgery followed by radiotherapy


15. The earliest radiographic sign of osteomyelitis is:
A. Solitary or multiple small radiolucent areas
B. Increased granular radiopacity
C. Blurring of trabecular outlines
D. Formation of sequestrum appearing as radiopaque patches


16. Best X ray view for TMJ is:
A. Lateral skull
B. Lateral oblique
C. Transpharyngeal
D. Panoramic


17. Orthodontic correction of which of the following is most easily retained?
A. Anterior crossbite
B. Spacing
C. Diastema
D. Crowding


18. The ‘ugly duckling stage’ is characterized by:
A. Distoangular axial inclination of the crown of maxillary incisors
B. Deep overbite
C. Mandibular lateral incisors erupting lingual to mandibular central incisors
D. Maxillary lateral incisors erupting lingual to maxillary central incisors


19. When a simple tipping force is applied to the crown of an incisor, the center of rotation is usually located:
A. At the apex
B. At the incisal edge
C. At the cervical line
D. One third the root length from the apex


20. Which of the following conditions is always present in a class II div 2 malocclusion?
A. Open bite
B. Cross bite
C. Deep bite
D. Closed bite


21. In a lateral cephalogram, facial plane runs from:
A. Nasion to pogonion
B. Nasion to gnathion
C. Sella to gnathion
D. Nasion to ANS
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Lok Sewa Aayog 2072 Key C - 8th Level Dental Surgeon Question Paper





1. Guiding planes in cast partial denture:
A. Should be perpendicular to the path of insertions
B. They must always face each other
C. Should be prepared always on the proximal surface of the abutment teeth
D. Should be parallel to the path of insertion

2. Posterior vibrating line is at the junction of:
A. Levator palatini and tensor palatini
B. Levator palatini and muscular portion of the soft palate
C. Aponeurosis of levator palatini and muscular portion of the soft palate
D. Aponeurosis of tensor palatini and muscular portion of soft palate

3. T:B lymphocyte ratio in GCF is:
A. 1:3
B. 2:1
C. 3:1
D. 1:1

4. Hemi-septum is a :
A. One walled defect
B. Two walled defect
C. Three walled defect
D. Infrabony defect

5. First clinical sign of juvenile periodontitis is:
A. Pathologic tooth migration and midline diastema
B. Pain and bleeding
C. Tooth mobility and bone loss
D. Gingival enlargement and pus formation

6. Scaling and root planing elicits:
A. Cell mediated immunity
B. Antibody mediated humoral immunity
C. Non specific immunity
D. No response

7. Drug induced hyperplasia of gingiva is mainly seen in:
A. Marginal gingiva
B. Attached gingiva
C. Palatal gingiva
D. Interdental papilla

8. Chlorhexidine is a useful mouthwash as:
A. It prevents plaque accumulation
B. It prevents bacterial proliferation
C. It breaks down plaque matrix
D. It causes hemostasis

9. Free gingival graft is usually placed on:
A. Periosteum
B. Directly on bone
C. Attached gingiva
D. Movable gingiva

10. Gingivitis in leukemic patient resembles:
A. Pyogenic granuloma
B. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
C. Hairy cell Leukoplakia
D. ANUG

11. The bacteria of oral flora which plays least role in periodontitis is:
A. Actinomyces
B. Actinomycetamcomitans
C. Spirochetes
D. Bacteroides

12. Which of the following is true?
A. Subgingival calculus does not form in absence of supragingival calculus
B. Subgingival plaque has less inorganic content than supragingival calculus
C. The source of minerals is same for both the types of calculus
D. The matrix components of subgingival is different from that of supragingival calculus 

13. Which of the following is the most effective method of preventing dental decay in general population?
A. Oral prophylaxis
B. Systemic fluorides
C. Diet counseling
D. Fluoride mouth wash and toothpaste

14. The kind of sampling that should be done when there is a small group of patients is:
A. Stratified sampling
B. Convenience
C. Systemic sampling
D. Random sampling


15. The crowns of all the permanent teeth, with the exception of the third molars, are calcified by the age of:
A. 6 years
B. 8 years
C. 10 years
D. 12 years

16. Neonatal teeth are: 
A. Present at the time of the birth
B. Erupt during first month of birth
C. Erupt during second or third months after birth
D. Erupt during intrauterine life

17. A healthy six year old child presents with carious maxillary second primary molar with a necrotic pulp. Which treatment would be preferred?
A. Extraction
B. Indirect pulp treatment
C. Pulpotomy
D. Pulpectomy

18. Which teeth are least affected with the nursing bottle syndrome?
A. Maxillary molars
B. Maxillary and mandibular canines
C. Mandibular incisors
D. Maxillary incisors

19. The recommended concentration of fluoride in a community water supply is:
A. 0.1 ppm
B. 0.5 ppm
C. 1 ppm
D. 2 ppm

20. You are treating a child patient. In the process of managing behavior of your patient you plan to induce omission, which refers to:
A. Pleasant consequence following a response
B. Withdrawal of an unpleasant stimulus after a response
C. Removal of a pleasant stimulus after a particular response
D. Presentation of an unpleasant  stimulus after a response

21. What age group of school children below would you apply pit and fissure sealant in a school based oral health program?
A. 3 years
B. 6 years
C. 10 years
D. 16 years

22. The tooth movement most readily accomplished with a removable appliance is:
A. Tipping
B. Torquing
C. Root movement
D. Bodily movement

23. DMF Index was given by:
A. Klein, Palmer, Knutson and Henry in 1938
B. Moller in 1966
C. Gruebbel in 1944
D. Katz in 1980

24. The most common brushing technique used in preschool child is:
A. Fone’s technique
B. Modified Stilman technique
C. Charter’s method
D. Bass method

25. Basal cell carcinomas:
A. Usually metastasize the regional lymph nodes
B. Common on the face and neck
C. Common in females
D. Radio-resistant

26. A patient with grossly contaminated wound presents 12 hours after an accident, his wound should be managed by:
A. Thorough cleaning and primary repair
B. Thorough cleaning with debridement of all dead and devitalized tissue without primary closure
C. Primary closure over a drain
D. Covering the defect with split skin graft after cleaning

27. The most common organism carrying infective endocarditis following dental manipulation is a:
A. Streptococcus viridans
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Group A Streptococci
D. Gram –ve rod

28. Which one of the following can be used in the management of a hemophilic patient?
A. Ascorbic acid
B. Tranexamic acid
C. Acetic acid
D. Palmitic acid

29. What are the main laboratory findings in Rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Elevated ESR and RA factor positive
B. Decreased ESR and RA factor negative
C. Increased level of uric acid in blood
D. Decreased level of calcium in blood


30. Chancre most commonly occurs on:
A. Genitals
B. Tonsils
C. Tongue
D. Floor of the mouth

31. Myocardial infarction (MI) is usually due to EXCEPT:
A. Embolus
B. Thrombus
C. Hemorrhage
D. Spasm

32. Spontaneous bleeding usually occurs with a platelet count of:
A. Less than 50000/mm3
B. 50000-75000/ mm3
C. 75000-100000/ mm3
D. 100000-150000/mm3

33. The immediate step to be taken in maxillofacial injury is: 
A. Correct shock
B. Ensure airway
C. Look for other injuries
D. Rule out cervical spine fracture 

34. Which of the following resembles frog’s belly?
A. Mucocele
B. Ranula
C. Epstein pearl
D. Eruption hematoma

35. Which of the following factors represent the most likely reason for the poor long term prognosis of patients with adenoid cystic carcinoma?
A. Lesions spread early and wide
B. Lesion usually large when discovered
C. Malignant epithelial cells invade nerves
D. Malignant epithelial cells are poorly differentiated

36. The aspirate from a keratocyst will have:
A. A low soluble protein content
B. A high soluble protein content
C. Cholesterol crystal
D. Inflammatory cells

37. The most radiosensitive cells in the body are:
A. Endothelial cells
B. Epithelial cells
C. Red blood cells
D. White blood cells

38. The most common malignant neoplasm of salivary gland is:
A. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D. Oncocytoma

39. Systemic disease associated with hypoplastic teeth:
A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Hypopituitarism
D. Hyperpituitarism

40. Which of the following pathology has its origin due to stimulation of epithelial rest of Malassez?
A. Periapical granuloma
B. Periapical abscess
C. Periapical cyst
D. Condensing osteitis

41. Most common type of carcinoma in men is:
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Osteogenic sarcoma
D. Lymphoma

42. The clinical evidence of dentinogenesis imperfecta is:
A. Defective enamel
B. Defective dentin
C. Obliterated pulp chambers
D. Increased rate of caries

43. Which of the following is characteristic of a primordial cyst?
A. Develops in place of a tooth
B. Attaches to the apex of a tooth
C. Attaches to the crown of the tooth
D. Remains after the tooth is extracted

44. Leukemia should be high on a list of differential diagnosis when which of the following is noted?
A. Spontaneous bleeding
B. Persistent headache
C. Epigastric pain
D. Chronic or acute arthralgia
 

45. In Ramsay Hunt Syndrome, the cranial nerve involved is:
A. Trigeminal
B. Facial
C. Glossopharyngeal
D. Oculomotor nerve

46. Maximum dose of xylocaine without adrenaline that can be given in 60 kg adults is:
A. 600 mg
B. 500 mg
C. 400 mg
D. 300 mg

47. Which of the following is true regarding local anesthesia?
A. They are basic salts of weak acids.
B. Not effective in alkaline pH
C. Form salts with acids
D. They are acidic salts of weak bases

48. A 50 year old patient on oral anticoagulants for cardiac illness, requires tooth extraction. INR value is 1.5, dentist should:
A. Proceed for dental extraction
B. Anticoagulants should be stopped before dental extraction
C. Oral anticoagulants should be stopped and heparin started
D. Additional tests are required

49. Which of the following side effects is seen commonly with the administration of nitrous dioxide and oxygen?
A. Hallucinations and dreams
B. Tachycardia
C. Tremors
D. Nausea



50. A patient with unfavorable fracture of the angle of mandible is best treated by:
A. Closed reduction with IMF
B. Closed reduction with cap splint
C. Open reduction with bone plate fixation
D. Circum-mandibular wiring


51. An oro-antral communication during extraction:
A. Requires no treatment immediately
B. Immediate prolapse of antral living occurs into mouth
C. Reflux of fluids into nasal cavity while drinking can be demonstrated
D. Must be closed surgically immediately


52. 5 cm highly suspicious lesion of the floor of the mouth is to be studied microscopically. A specimen is best obtained by:
A. Incisional biopsy
B. Excisional biopsy
C. FNAC
D. None of the above

53. Cavernous sinus thrombosis following infection of maxillary anterior teeth most often results from spread of infected emboli along the:
A. Pterygoid plexus
B. Ophthalmic vein
C. Facial artery
D. Angular artery

54. Elevated blister like lesion containing clear fluid that are over 1 cm in diameter is known as:
A. Vesicles
B. Bullae
C. Pustules
D. Macules

55. Which one is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait?
A. Lichen planus
B. Bullous Pemphigoid
C. Pemphigus vulgaris
D. White sponge nevus

56. Of the following which view is best to visualize the zygomatic arches?
A. Submentovertex or jug handle view
B. Occipitomental view
C. Orthopantomogram
D. Skull PA view

57. Moth eaten appearance so characteristically seen in radiographs of osteomyelitis is due to:
A. Presence of sequestrum
B. Enlargement of medullary spaces
C. Reduced medullary spaces
D. Narrowing of Volkmann’s canals


58. Sialolith are primarily composed of:
A. Calcium Carbonate
B. Calcium phosphate
C. Potassium chloride
D. Fluorapatite


59. Leukoedema change usually occurs in:
A. 3-5 years
B. Is present congenitally
C. 8-9 year
D. In old age


60. Multiple odontogenic cysts of maxilla are seen in:
A. Marfan syndrome
B. Crouzans disease
C. Gorlin Goltz syndrome
D. Caffey’s disease

61. Fordyce spots are:
A. Fat tissues embedded in buccal mucosa
B. Red spots
C. Present on cheek mucosa lateral to the angle of the mouth
D. All of the above

62. The principal hazard to operator and patient is produced by what type of radiation?
A. Gamma
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. None of the above

63. Open ended lined cones reduce:
A. Intensity of scattered radiation
B. Intensity of primary radiation
C. Level of scattered radiation
D. All of the above

64. In standard cephalometric arrangement, the distance from the x-ray source to the subjects in midsagittal plane is:
A. 3 feet
B. 4 feet
C. 5 feet
D. 6 feet

65. Frankfort’s horizontal plane extends from:
A. Porion to orbitale
B. Nasion to porion
C. Nasion to orbitale
D. Gonion to orbitale
 
66. Apertognathia refers to:
A. Deep bite
B. Small and deviated jaw
C. Open bite
D. Scissor bite

67. Which of the following malocclusion is difficult to treat?
A. Cross bite
B. Open bite
C. Deep bite
D. Proclination

68. Which of the following is tissue borne myofunctional appliance?
A. Functional regulator of Frankel
B. Activator
C. Bionator
D. Twin block

69. The anterior bite plane should separate the posterior teeth by:
A. 3-4 mm
B. 4-5 mm
C. 1.5-2 mm
D. 0.5-1 mm

70. Arch expansion using the midline screw is an example of:
A. Stationary anchorage
B. Reciprocal anchorage
C. Compound anchorage
D. Reinforced anchorage

71. According to Wolff’s law:
A. Human teeth drift mesially as interproximal wear occurs
B. Pressure causes bone resorption
C. The optimal level of force for moving teeth is 10 to 200 g
D. Bone trabeculae line up in response to mechanical stresses

72. A child who had congenital defect of cleft lip and cleft palate is most likely to suffer from which kind of malocclusion?
A. Bilateral Posterior crossbite
B. A collapsed anterior mandibular arch
C. Protrusion and spacing of maxillary anterior teeth
D. Class II division I malocclusion

73. Premaxilla is derived from:
A. Maxillary protuberance
B. Palatine bones
C. Frontonasal process
D. Medial process

74. Quartz is added to gypsum bonded investments to:
A. Increase the strength
B. Counter balance contraction of gypsum during heating.
C. Aid in hygroscopic expansion
D. Increase the shelf life of investment


75. Acid etching of enamel margin:
A. Provides chemical retention with composite bonding directly to the tooth structure
B. Provides mechanical retention
C. Compromises the status of pulp
D. Activates the setting process

76. The gold content of an 18-K alloy is:
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 100%
D. 30%

77. The sprue former during casting should be located:
A. At the thinnest area of the pattern
B. At the largest cusp
C. At the thickest area
D. Anywhere at the most convenient point for casting

78. Compomers are:
A. Metal modified GIC
B. Microfilled composite
C. Resin modified GIC
D. Hybrid composite

79. Which of the following is a severe pulp irritant?
A. GIC
B. Silicate cement
C. Polycarboxylate cement 
D. Calcium hydroxide

80. Surface finish of which of the following type of composite is highest?
A. Microfilled
B. Hybrid
C. Small particle size
D. Traditional

81. The main reason for localized shrinkage porosity in dental casting is:
A. Over heating of the alloy
B. The sprue being too thin
C. Over heating of the investment
D. There being no reservoir
82. Greater the number of cutting blades on a rotary instrument:
A. Greater the cutting efficiency and smoother the surface
B. Lesser the cutting efficiency  and smoother the surface
C. Greater the cutting efficiency and rougher the surface
D. Lesser the cutting efficiency and rougher the surface

83. Palatal root of maxillary first molar is curved:
A. Mesially
B. Lingually
C. Buccally 
D. Distally

84. The area of the tooth having least resistance to caries is:
A. Enamel
B. Dentin
C. D-E junction
D. C-E junction

85. A Peeso reamer is used for:
A. Preparation of post space in the root canal for receiving a post
B. Enlarging the canal orifices during access cavity preparation
C. Removal of the lingual shoulder to improve the access in anterior teeth
D. Cleaning and shaping  of the cervical third at the root canal

86. The greatest improvement in the marginal adaptation of composite restoration is achieved by:
A. Ensuring that the cavity is free of moisture
B. Good packing of the restoration
C. Acid etching
D. Maintaining pressure during settling

87. Gingival margin in class II amalgam restoration  is placed under  the contact point because:
A. It increases the retention of the amalgam
B. It provides enough bulk of the restoration
C. Allows proper finishing of the  gingival margin
D. All of the above

88. All of the following are true of composites EXCEPT:
A. Placed and finished at the same appointment
B. More color stable than unfilled resins
C. Coefficient of thermal expansion close to the tooth structure compared with the unfilled resins
D. Finished surface is less smooth compared to unfilled resins


89. Mineral trioxide aggregate is the material of choice in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Perforations
B. Apexification procedures
C. Direct pulp capping
D. Root canal filling material of primary teeth


90. Which of the following is said to be ideal for hard tissue cutting and drilling?
A. CO2 laser
B. Argon
C. Er:YAG
D. Diode

91. The most generally accepted treatment of horizontal root fracture in the apical third of a maxillary central incisor involves:
A. Splinting with orthodontic bonds and sectional arch wire
B. Frequent pulp testing and radiographic examination
C. Extraction of the tooth
D. Immediate pulp extirpation

92. A common finding associated with the cracked tooth is:
A. Pain on release of biting pressure
B. Pain on application of biting pressure
C. Absence of pain
D. Continuous pain

93. Protrusive records during jaw relations are made for recording: 
A. Centric relation
B. Condylar inclination of both sides
C. Record retruded contact position
D. Terminal hinge axis opening

94. Lost salt technique is used to fabricate:
A. Maryland bridge
B. Rochette bridge
C. Cantilever bridge
D. Virginia bridge

95. In the mandibular posterior region, the following design is indicated for the pontic in the fixed bridge:
A. Ridge lap
B. Modified ridge lap
C. Conical
D. Ovate

96. Parts that offer support for removable partial dentures are following:
A. Rest and reciprocal arm
B. Rest and retentive arm
C. Rest and denture base
D. Rest and minor connector


97. All are the function of immediate obturator except:
A. Restore speech
B. Restore mastication 
C. Restore appearance
D. Support surgical procedure

98. When a removable partial denture is completely seated, the retentive terminals of the retentive clasp arm should be:
A. Passive and apply no pressure on the tooth
B. Contacting the abutment teeth only in the suprabulge area
C. Resting lightly on the height of contour on abutment tooth
D. Applying a definite positive force on the abutment teeth in order to prevent dislodgement of the removable partial denture

99. Group function occlusion in all existing dentition is characterized by having:
A. Total balance in lateral excursion
B. Canine rise in protrusion
C. Long centric from centric relation to centric occlusion
D. Working side contacts from canine to third molar

100. An anterior fixed partial denture is contraindicated when:
A. Abutment tooth are non carious
B. An anterior teeth is inclined  15 degree but is otherwise sound
C. There is considerable resorption of the residual ridge
D. Crowns of the abutment teeth are extremely long owing to gingival recession


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