MCQs on Diseases of Nerves and Muscles - Oral Pathology

# Severe pain which arise after injury to or sectioning of a peripheral sensory nerve is called as:
A. Temporal arteritis
B. Neuralgia
C. Neuritis
D. Causalgia

# The latest drug of the choice in the management in trigeminal neuralgia is:
A. valproic acid
B. carbamazepine
C. Diphenyl hydantoin
D. None of the above

# Facial paralysis is tested by:
A. Whistling
B. chewing
C. Protruding the tongue
D. Swallowing

# Which of the following structures are associated with bells palsy:
A. sub mandibular gland
B. Seventh cranial nerve
C. Temporomandibular joint
D. Glosso-pharyngeal nerve

# Geniculate neuralgia is caused in the nerve:
A. VII
B. IX
C. X
D. II

# All of the following are true about trigeminal neuralgia EXCEPT:
A. it is unilateral
B. it is of throbbing nature
C. it is triggered by touching cheeks, mucosa etc
D. occurs in bouts

# Trotter’s syndrome involves:
A. Pharynx
B. Oropharynx
C. Larynx
D. Nasopharynx

# “Fothergill’s disease” is one of the synonyms of:
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Trigeminal neuralgia
D. Lupus erythematosus

# Lesion of facial nerve at level of stylomastoid foramen leads to:
A. Loss of taste sensation from Ant. 2/3 of tongue
B. Paralysis of orbicularis oculi muscle
C. Loss of innervation to stapedius
D. Loss of lacrimal secretion

# What is non characteristic of Eagle’s syndrome:
A. Excessive lacrimation
B. pain during mandibular movement
C. Stabbing type pain orginate in the tonsillar regions
D. When the jaws are closed the pain subsided

# Which of the following drugs is not effective in case of Trigeminal Neuralgia?
A. Carbamazipine
B. Acetaminophen
C. Phenytoin sodium
D. Baclofen

# Patient comes with pain pharyngeal region and is having carcinoma of nasopharynx. The diagnosis is:
A. Horner’s syndrome
B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
C. Trotter’s syndrome
D. Eagles syndrome

# The characteristic alarm clock headache is a feature of:
A. Auriculotemporal Neuralgia
B. Trigeminal Neuralgia
C. Sphenopalatine Neuralgia
D. Glossopharyngeal Neuralgia

# Anti-convulsants frequently used in management of trigeminal neuralgia are:
A. Phenytoin
B. Gabapentin
C. Baclofen
D. All of the above

# Which of the following Orofacial pain is not associated with vascular origin?
A. Cluster headache
B. Giant cell arteritis
C. Anaesthesia dolorosa
D. Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania

# Patient suffering form Eagle’s syndrome complains of:
A. burning sensations in mouth
B. excessive salivation
C. Glossodynia
D. Dysphagia

# An attack of cluster headache can be aborted by:
A. Morphine administration
B. Breathing oxygen
C. Aspirin administration
D. Sublingual nitroglycerine administration

# Burning Mouth Syndrome describes pain associated with:
A. Oral lichen planus
B. Oral submucous fibrosis
C. Aphthous stomatitis
D. No detectable oral disease

# In an acute attack of migraine, the during of choice:

A. Ergotamine tortrate
B. Methysergide
C. Propranolol
D. Caffeine

# Mask-like appearance of face with narrowing of aperture and rigidity of the mucosa is characteristic of:
A. Progressive systemic sclerosis
B. Tetanus
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Osteomalacia

# A patient shows inability to close the right corner of the mouth is most probably suffering form:
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Bell’s palsy
C. TMJ dysfunction syndrome
D. Multiple sclerosis

# Bell’s palsy is triggered by:
A. Exposure to cold
B. Tooth extraction
C. Local and systemic infection
D. Any of the above

# The following site is the common involvement in case of Myositis ossificans:
A. Massetor
B. Hyoglossus
C. Stylohyoid
D. Lateral pterygoid

# Trigeminal neuralgia:
A. Does not disturb the patient during sleep
B. Can be treated with NSAID’s
C. Always bilateral in distribution
D. Is a hereditary condition

# Carbamazepine has been utilized to successfully diminish attacks in trigeminal neuralgia. During this therapy which of the following is indicated:
A. Clinical observation only
B. Clinical observation and complete blood and platelet counts prior to and at frequent intervals during therapy
C. No monitoring
D. Complete blood investigation only if adverse symptoms arise

# Which syndrome consists of flushing, warmness and perspiration over the cheek and pinna of the ear on the side following the ingestion of highly seasoned food?
A. Fanconi’s
B. Auriculotemporal
C. Horner’s
D. Cushing's

# Facial pain due to elongated styloid process is called?

A. Cowden syndrome
B. Tic doulourex
C. Eagle’s syndrome
D. Reiter’s syndrome

# A neuralgia with trigger zones in the oropharynx and pain in the ear pharynx, nasopharynx, tonsils and posterior tongue is most likely:
A. Trigeminal neuralgia
B. Bell’s palsy
C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
D. Sphenopalatine neuralgia

# Easy fatigability of muscles seen in:
A. Epilepsy
B. MPDS
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Cerebral palsy

# If a patient with Raynaud’s disease puts his hand in cold water, the hand appears:
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. White
D. Blue

# Frey’s syndrome results from surgery of the:
A. Submandibular salivary gland
B. Parotid gland
C. sublingual salivary gland
D. TMJ

# Horner’s syndrome Does NOT include:
A. Ptosis
B. Anhydrosis
C. Flushing
D. Mydriasis

# Trigeminal neuralgia (tic doulourex) is characterized by:
A. Paralysis of one side of the face
B. Uncontrollable twitching of muscles
C. Sharp, excruciating pain of short duration
D. Prolonged episodes of plain on one side of the face

# TENS therapy is useful in:
A. MPDS
B. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Facial palsy
D. Neurosis

# Bell’s Palsy is characterized by:
A. Bilateral involvement of the side of the face
B. Inability to whistle
C. No loss of muscular control
D. Closing of the eyes

Dental Management of Hyperventilation

Dental management of Medical compromised patient _ Hyperventilation
Dental Management of Hyperventilation

Hyperventilation is an increase in the rate or depth of breathing that results in a change in the blood chemistry and usually occurs as a result of anxiety. The dental office is an anxious setting for most people, which is why hyperventilation is a very common emergency seen there.

The most common cause of hyperventilation is anxiety. Although not as common, hyperventilation also may be caused by certain physical conditions, emotional upset, or stress. Children usually cry or scream when frightened, which expresses their fears and prevents hyperventilation from occurring.

Carbon dioxide in the blood automatically triggers the breathing reflex and stimulates respiration. In this way it helps control the breathing process automatically. A person who begins to hyperventilate increases the depth and rate of respirations much like an athlete who has performed strenuous exercise. By increasing respirations, the person exhales a large amount of carbon dioxide. In the athlete, the exercised muscles release carbon dioxide into the blood, which replenishes the excess given off by the rapid breathing. Because dental patients are motionless, however, they have no way of replenishing the carbon dioxide being exhaled. As a result patients can suffer from a lack of carbon dioxide and have difficulty breathing. When there is a lack of carbon dioxide, the patient must consciously work to inhale and exhale.

Signs and Symptoms of Hyperventilation

• Nervousness
• Increase in rate of respirations
• Feeling of suffocation
• Tightness in chest
• Dizziness
• Tingling in extremities

Treatment for Hyperventilation

1. Stop dental treatment
2. Position the patient in a upright position
3. Calm the patient by describing the situation and ask the patient to hold his or her breath “Tell the patient to inhale and hold his or her breath for several seconds before exhaling. This procedure will help increase the level of carbon dioxide.”
4. Have the patient breathe into a paper bag to increase carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. “Never administer oxygen to a hyperventilating patient. Remember, this patient already has too much oxygen and too little carbon dioxide”
5. Administer drug therapy to reduce anxiety such Diazepam (Valium) (only if necessary, as a last resort)

Dental Management of Asthmatic Patient

Dental management of Medically compromised patient _ Asthma
Dental Management of Asthmatic Patient

Asthma is a respiratory disease that causes reversible airway obstruction and a reduced ability to expire or completely empty the lungs of gases. Inflammation is a component of the disease process and results in increased mucous secretions in the lungs and swelling in the bronchioles.

Clinical Manifestations include:
1. Cough
2. Shortness of breath
3. Chest tightness
4. Wheezing.
5. Increased heart rate
6. Nervousness
7. Sweating

The most common form, called extrinsic asthma, develops as a result of allergy to environmental pollutants. It generally occurs during childhood and may or may not extend into adult years.

A second type of asthma is intrinsic asthma, or infectious asthma, is A non-allergic form of asthma usually first occurring later in life that tends to be chronic and persistent rather than episodic , most often seen in patients older than age 35. Unlike the extrinsic asthma patient, this patient may exhibit a chronic cough with sputum production between attacks. Intrinsic asthma usually occurs as a result of some type of bronchial infection.

Oral Complications associated with asthma medications include dry mouth, candidiasis, and an increased dental caries rate.

TREATMENT (Dental Management of Asthmatic Patient)
1. Stop all dental treatment. Be sure to remove all materials and instruments from the patient’s mouth.

2. Position the patient. Raise the patient upright; since the patient will be struggling for air, it will be easier for the patient to breathe if seated upright.

3. Use a bronchodilator. The patient’s bronchodilator should be placed within easy reach in case an attack occurs. If an attack does take place, allow the patient to administer the bronchodilator; patients know what their usual dose involves . The bronchodilator is an aerosol medication that usually includes epinephrine, which relaxes the bronchioles and makes it easier for the patient to breathe.

4. Administer oxygen.

5. Administer epinephrine or another drug intravenously it may be necessary, if the bronchodilator does not relieve the attack.

MCQs on Instruments Used in Oral Surgery

# A straight elevator is properly used to advantage when the:
A. Adjacent tooth is the fulcrum
B. Tooth is isolated
C. Interdental bone is fulcrum
D. Adjacent tooth is not to be extracted

# Most of the elevators used in exodontias works on the principle
A. Class I lever
B. Class II lever
C. Class III lever
D. Wheel and axle

MCQs on Skin and vesiculobullous Lesions - Oral Medicine MCQs - Oral Pathology MCQs

 # All of the following lesions may be classified as Odontogenic Tumors EXCEPT
A. Acanthomatous ameloblastoma
B. Branchial cleft cyst
C. Myxoma
D. Simple ameloblastoma

# Fish net pattern is pemphigus vulgaris is seen in which of the following tests?

A. Direct immunofluorescence
B. Tzanck smear
C. FNAC
D. Histopathology

# All of the following are inherited disorders of connective tissue EXCEPT:
A. Alport syndrome
B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
C. Marfan syndrome
D. McArdle’s disease

MCQs on Oral Mucous Membrane - Oral Anatomy and Histology

 # Which of the following is correct:

A. Non-keratinized epithelium is characterized by absence of stratum granulosum and stratum corneum, The surface cells are nucleated
B. Para-keratinized epithelium is characterized by superficial cells with pyknotic nuclei and absence of stratum granulosum
C. In ortho keratinization the superficial cells lose their nuclei, but stratum granulosum is present
D. All of the above

# Long connective tissue papillae and keratinized epithelia are a feature of these parts of oral mucosa:

A. gingiva and alveolar mucosa

B. Hard palate and gingiva
C. Buccal and alveolar mucosa
D. Hard and soft palate

# All of the following is lined by stratified squamous epithelium, except:

A. Lips
B. Tongue
C. Roof of the soft palate
D. Oropharynx

Enameloplasty is:

  # Enameloplasty is:

A. is same as prophylactic odontomy

B. filling of enamel fissures with amalgam

C. elimination of shallow enamel fissures

D. All of the above

The correct answer is C. Elimination of shallow enamel fissures.

Historically, enameloplasty was utilized as an ultraconservative procedure on the occlusal surfaces, which were deemed to be at risk of the development of a pit or issure caries lesion. Extreme prudence was exercised in the selection of these areas and in the depth of enamel removed. This procedure was never used unless the area could be transformed into a cleansable groove (or fossa) by a minimal reduction of enamel, and unless occlusal contacts could be maintained. This procedure technically included a preparation stage but no restoration stage. Currently, clinical situations such as these (ICDAS 1 or 2) are managed by treatment with luoride or placement of sealants. Research studies support the filling of issures/pits and narrow grooves/fossae (i.e., “sealing”) with low viscosity composite resin materials, without any mechanical alteration (enameloplasty) of the at-risk tooth anatomy.

Additionally, “prophylactic odontotomy” procedures were used in the past. These more aggressive procedures involved preparing developmental or structural imperfections of the enamel that were thought to be at increased risk of caries and filling the preparation with amalgam to prevent caries from developing in these sites. Prophylactic odontotomy is no longer advocated as a preventive measure.

Reference: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, Seventh Edition, Page No 125

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