MCQs on Growth and Development - Pediatric Dentistry MCQs- Pedodontics MCQs

# Infancy and childhood are dynamic periods of:
A. Dentition
B. Growth and development
C. Head and face
D. Habits

# Developmental milestone provide a framework for observing and monitoring:
A. Child
B. Elderly persons
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

# What plays a role in development of children?
A. Parent and sibling personalities
B. Family socioeconomic status
C. Caregivers nurturing methods
D. None of the above

# Reflexes enables the infant to make purposeful:
A. Movements
B. Support
C. Development
D. None of the above

# Equilibrium in infants begin for walking by:
A. 6 months
B. 2 months
C. 4 months
D. 12 months

# Additional equilibrium responses develop during:

A. 2nd year
B. 4th year
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

# In infants movement of hands and feet is dominated by:

A. Primitive grasp reflex
B. Firm grasp
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

# Palmar grasp develops in which age:
A. 7 months
B. 2 months
C. 4 months
D. None of the above

# Pincer grasp develops in which age:
A. 4 months
B. 5 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months

# Bidextrous grasp develops in which age:
A. 8 months
B. 5 months
C. 12 months
D. None of the above

# Radial digital grasp develops in:
A. 9 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. None of the above

# Scissors grasp develops in:
A. 10 months
B. 8 months
C. 12 months
D. None of the above

# Voluntary release in infants develops at:

A. 5 months
B. 15 months
C. 6 months
D. 7 months

# Skills develop in which direction:
A. Cephalic to caudal
B. Caudal to cephalic
C. Caudal
D. None of the above

# Skills progress from which end:
A. Proximal to distal
B. Proximal to anterior
C. Anterior to posterior
D. None of the above

# Genetic theory of growth was given by:
A. Brodie
B. Scott
C. Sicher
D. None of the above

# Sutural dominance theory was given by:
A. Scott
B. Sicher
C. Moss
D. None of the above

# Cybernetics theory was given by:
A. Petrovic
B. Brodie
C. Moss
D. None of the above

# Stewart gave theory of growth in:
A. 1986
B. 1982
C. 1988
D. 1931

# Scott hypothesis of growth determines growth of:
A. Cartilage
B. Bone
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

# Sutural dominance theory is also known as:
A. Moss hypothesis
B. Sichers hypothesis
C. Cartilaginous theory
D. All of the above

# In sutural dominance theory if sutures are compressed then growth:
A. Impedes
B. No effect
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

#van Limborg's concept of growth was given in:
A. 1970
B. 1988
C. 1999
D. None of the above

# Cybernetics is science dealing with study of complex computers of human:
A. Nervous system
B. Digestive system
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

# Genetic theory by Brodie states that genes control all functions of:
A. Growth and development
B. Growth but not development
C. Neither growth nor development
D. None of the above

# Greatest amount of cranial growth occurs by:
A. Birth to five years
B. 5–6 years
C. 6–7 years
D. 7–9 years

# At birth which of the following structures is nearest the size it will eventually attain in adulthood ?
A. Cranium
B. Mandible
C. Middle face
D. Nasal capsule

# Epigenetic factors controlling the growth of skeleton are:
A. Genetic factors present within skeleton
B. Genetic factors present outside skeleton
C. Local genetic factors
D. General non-genetic factors

# Meckels cartilage give rise to:
A. Condylar process
B. Coronoid process
C. Rest of ramus
D. None of the above

# Which of the following shows 200% growth the adult size from 9 to 10 years?
A. Neural
B. General
C. Lymphoid
D. Muscle

# If a child’s teeth do not form, this will affect the growth of:
A. Maxilla
B. Mandible
C. Whole face
D. Alveolar bone

# After the age of six the increase in the size of the mandible occurs at:
A. Symphysis
B. Between canines
C. Along the lower border
D. Distal to 1st molar

# Growth of maxilla in the vertical direction is due to:
A. Growth of alveolus
B. Growth of sutures
C. Growth of cranial base
D. Growth of synchondrosis

# Growth of cranium continues up to:
A. 2 years
B. 10 years
C. 15 years
D. Grows equally

# Earlier closure of a suture is called:
A. Synchondrosis
B. Synostosis
C. Ankylosis
D. Epiphysis

# The functional matrix concept as revised by Moss does not include:
A. Connected cellular network
B. Mechano transduction
C. Epigenetic epithesis
D. None of the above

# Enlow’s 'V' concept of growth is found in:
A. Cranial base
B. Maxilla only
C. Maxilla and mandible
D. None of the above

# Oral and nasal capsule of functional growth related to:
A. Periosteal matrix
B. Sutural matrix
C. Capsular matrix
D. None of the above

# In Sicher’s theory, suture acts as:
A. Has independent growth potential
B. Dependent on cranial base
C. Used for growth adjustment
D. None of the above

# Mechanism of bone growth is by:
A. Bone deposition and resorption
B. Cortical drift
C. Displacement
D. All of the above

# Functional matrix theory suggests that the determinant growth of skeletal tissue resides in:
A. Skeletal
B. Sutures
C. Cartilages
D. Non-skeletal tissues

# Growth sites in maxilla are:
A. Maxillary tuberosity
B. Sutures
C. Nasal septum
D. All of the above

# Mandible develops from:
A. Meckel's cartilage
B. Ramus
C. None of the above
D. Both of the above

# Maxilla develops by:
A. Endochondral bone formation
B. Intramembranous bone formation
C. Cartilage replacement and intramembranous bone formation
D. Mostly cartilage replacement and a little by intramembranous

# Which secondary cartilage help in development of maxilla?
A. Malar cartilage
B. Meckel's cartilage
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

# Meckel's cartilage gives rise to:
A. Condylar process
B. Coronoid process
C. Rest of ramus
D. None of the above

# Growth of oral structures is mainly influenced by factors:
A. Hereditary
B. Environmental
C. Hereditary influenced by environmental
D. None of the above

# Postnatal development of mandible is based on:
A. Enlow’s principle
B. V principle
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

# Postnatal growth of maxilla is by:
A. Primary displacement
B. Primary and secondary displacement
C. Secondary displacement
D. None of the above

# Spermatid transforms into sperm by process by:
A. Spermatogenesis
B. Spermiogenesis
C. Oogenesis
D. None of the above

# The stage happens three days after fertilization when embryo is about to enter uterus , zygote at this stage is called:
A. Morula
B. Oogonia
C. None of the above
D. Both of the above

# Development of primitive streak forms:
A. Mesoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Ectoderm
D. None of the above

# Bilateral localized thickenings appear over ectoderm overlying frontonasal process called:
A. Nasal placodes
B. Lens placodes
C. None of the above
D. Both of the above

# Lateral part of upper lip is formed by:
A. Mandibular process
B. Maxillary process
C. Frontonasal process
D. None of the above

# Median part of upper lip is formed by:
A. Maxillary process
B. Frontonasal process
C. Mandibular process
D. None of the above

# Stomatodeum is the future:
A. Lip
B. Mouth
C. Teeth
D. None of the above

# Tuberculum impar contribute to formation of:
A. Palate
B. Tongue
C. Lips
D. None of the above

# Medial nasal process and frontonasal process gives rise to:
A. Primary palate
B. Secondary palate
C. None of the above
D. Both of the above

# Growth varies with seasons , it is faster in:
A. Springs
B. Winter
C. Autumn
D. All of the above

# Cephalocaudal gradient of growth extends from:
A. From feet to head
B. From head to feet
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

# Most reliable method of skeletal age assessment is:
A. Hand wrist radiograph
B. Bitewing radiograph
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

# The timing of growth spurts for boys in mixed dentition:
A. 7 to 9 years
B. 8 to 11 years
C. 9 to 12 years
D. None of the above

# The timing of growth spurts for girls in mixed dentition:
A. 7 to 9 years
B. 8 to 11 years
C.9 to 12 years
D. None of the above

# Adolescent growth spurts for boys:
A. 11 to 13 years
B. 14 to 16 years
C. 10 to 12 years
D. None of the above

# Adolescent growth spurts for girls:
A. 11 to 13 years
B. 14 to 16 years
C. 10 to 12 years
D. None of the above

# The term growth trends is given by:
A. Scammon
B. Tweed
C. Sheldon
D. Bjork

# Scammon’s growth curve. False is:
A. Neural tissues --- most of the growth is completed by 6 years
B. Lymphoid tissues --- growth reaches 200% by age 13 and regresses afterwards
C. Genital tissues --- most of growth is completed by age of puberty
D. None of the above

# The normal value of ANB angle is:
A. 4°
B. 2°
C. 6°
D. None

# The technique for diagnosis and treatment planning for growth and development:
A. VTO
B. VTA
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

# If ANB angle is less than 2° this indicates:
A. Class 2 malocclusion
B. Class 3 malocclusion
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

# The growth of neural tissues is nearly complete by:
A. 12–14 years of age
B. 9–12 years of age
C. 6–7 years of age
D. 2–3 years of age

# The type of tissue which proliferate far beyond the adult amount in childhood, and then undergo involution is:
A. Lymphoid tissue
B. Neural tissue
C. General tissue
D. Genital tissue

# The type of tissue that shows a s-shaped growth curve is:
A. Lymphoid tissue
B. Neural tissue
C. General tissue
D. All of the above

# The head occupies:
A. Almost 50% of the total body length at 3rd month of intrauterine life
B. Almost 30% of the total body length at birth
C. Almost 12 % of the total body length of the adult
D. All of the above

# Vital staining done to study the skeletal growth was introduced by:
A. Ten Cate
B. Scammon
C. Belchier
D. John Hunter

# Stain used for vital staining of skeletal tissue is:

A. Eosin
B. Hematoxylin
C. Alizarin
D. All of the above

# Hyperplasia of cell refers to increase in the:
A. Size
B. Number
C. Function
D. All of the above

# Stages of tooth development can be calculated by:
A. Nolla’s method
B. Demirgian method
C. Ericsson’s method
D. Both (a) and (b)

# At birth, which of the following structures is nearest the size it will eventually attain in adulthood:
A. Cranium
B. Mandible
C. Clavicle
D. Middle face

# The inter-incisal angle in primary dentition is around:
A. 120°
B. 90°
C. 150°
D. 180°

# How is the growth curves of lymphoid tissue and genital tissue related to each other?
A. Both curves follow almost a similar path
B. Lymph tissues stop growing when genital tissues begin growing
C. Lymph tissues regress as genital tissues develop
D. Growth curves of both the tissues are not related to each other

# In mandible the main growth site is in the:
A. Gonial angle
B. Inferior alveolar nerve canal
C. Condylar cartilage
D. Posterior border of ramus

# Deficiency of which of the following causes neural tube defects like anencephaly and spina bifida:
A. Iron
B. Folic acid
C. Zinc
D. Calcium

# With a flush terminal plane, permanent first molars will:

A. Initially be class II
B. Initially be class III
C. Immediately assume a normal relationship
D. Erupt immediately into an end to end relationship

# Relative to primary mandibular incisors, permanent mandibular incisors erupt:
A. Lingually
B. Facially
C. Distally
D. Mesially

# Six keys to normal occlusion were given by:
A. Andrew
B. Angle
C. Tweed
D. Steiner

# Supervision of a child’s development of occlusion is most critical at ages:
A. 3–6 years
B. 7–10 years
C. 11–14 years
D. 14–17 years

# The chronological age of the child is calculated by:
A. The maturity of emotions of the child
B. The maturity of bones of the hand and wrist
C. The number of teeth erupted in the oral cavity
D. The birth date

# The chronological age of a child is:
A. Closely related to the dental age
B. Closely related to the skeletal age
C. Closely related to the emotional age
D. Independent of the dental and skeletal ages

# Sucking reflex develops at:
A. 4th week of intra-uterine life
B. 17th–20th week of intra-uterine life
C. At birth
D. 4th week after birth

# Moro’s reflex usually disappears by:
A. 2–3 months
B. 6–12 months
C. 3–4 years
D. Remains life long

# Parachute reflex appears at about:
A. 2–3 months
B. 6–9 months
C. 1–2 years
D. At birth

# The most rapid period of growth is:
A. Puberty
B. 6–8 years
C. 2–3 years
D. 1st year of life

# Maxilla is primarily formed by:
A. Intramembranous bone formation
B. From cartilage
C. Endochondral bone formation
D. Equally by intramembranous and endochondral bone

# If a child’s teeth do not form, this would primarily effect the growth of:
A. Maxilla
B. Alveolar bone
C. Whole face
D. Mandible

# By what age does the Moro reflex disappear?
A. 2–3 months
B. 1 year
C. 24 months
D. 15–18 months

# The approximate age at which the child begins to walk is at:
A. 0–2 months
B. 3–6 months
C. 7–8 months
D. 9–12 months

# By what age does grasp and startle reflex disappear?
A. 12 months
B. 18 months
C. 24 months
D. 36 months

# The most rapid growth in humans occur during:
A. Pre-natal period
B. 6–12 months after birth
C. 3–5 years of life
D. Beginning of teenage years

# Negative growth is a characteristic of:
A. Testis
B. Brain
C. Mandible
D. Thymus

# The implant method of studying growth was proposed by:
A. Scammon
B. Moss
C. Belchier
D. Bjork

# The body tissue that grows rapidly but shows minimal growth after the age of 6–7 years is:
A. Neural tissue
B. Lymphoid tissue
C. Skeletal tissue
D. Genital tissue

# The movement of bone in response to its own growth is termed as:
A. Rotation
B. Secondary displacement
C. Primary displacement
D. Replacement shift

# Relapses occur most frequently following treatment of:
A. Extrusion
B. Intrusion
C. Rotation
D. Tipping

The anterior bite plane should separate the posterior teeth by:

 # The anterior bite plane should separate the posterior teeth by:

A. 3-4 mm

B. 4-5 mm

C. 1.5-2 mm

D. 0.5-1 mm

The correct answer is C. 1.5-2 mm.

- Used for correction of deep bite

- It should provide a clearance of 2-3 mm between upper and lower posterior teeth to provide space for

supraeruption

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Distance from the x-ray source to the subjects in midsagittal plane is

# In standard cephalometric arrangement, the distance from the x-ray source to the subjects in midsagittal plane is:

A. 3 feet

B. 4 feet

C. 5 feet

D. 6 feet

The correct answer is C. 5 feet.

- The distance between X-ray film and midsagittal plane of patient's head is - approximately 18 cm or 7 inches.

- The distance between X-ray tube and midsagittal plane of patients head is 5 feet, 60 inches/ 152.4 cm. (KERALA-15) 

- While taking radiographs the operator should stand at a distance of : 6 feet

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Open ended lined cones reduce:

 # Open ended lined cones reduce:

A. Intensity of scattered radiation

B. Intensity of primary radiation

C. Level of scattered radiation

D. All of the above

The correct answer is C. Level of scattered radiation.

The position-indicating device (PID), or cone, appears as an extension of the x-ray tubehead and is used to direct the x-ray beam. Three basic types of PIDs are currently used: (1) conical, (2) rectangular, and (3) round.

The conical PID appears as a closed, pointed plastic cone. When x-rays exit from the pointed cone, they penetrate the plastic and produce scatter radiation. To eliminate cone-produced scatter radiation, the conical PID is no longer used in dentistry. Open-ended, lead-lined rectangular or round PIDs limit the occurrence of scatter radiation.

Both rectangular and round PIDs are typically available in two lengths: short (8-inch) long (16-inch). The long PID is preferred because less divergence of the x-ray beam occurs.

Of the three types of PID, the rectangular type is most effective in reducing patient exposure.

Reference: Dental Radiography Principles and Technique, Fourth Edition, Iannucci and Howerton Page NO 48

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Inherited as an autosomal dominant trait

 # Which one is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait?

A. Lichen planus

B. Bullous Pemphigoid

C. Pemphigus vulgaris

D. White sponge nevus

The correct answer is D. White sponge nevus.

Familial white folded dysplasia is a relatively uncommon condition of the oral mucosa described by Cannon in 1935. The disease appears to follow a hereditary pattern as an autosomal dominant trait but with irregular penetrance and no definite sex predilection.

Reference: Shafer's textbook of oral pathology

Side effects of Nitrous oxide

 # Which of the following side effects is seen commonly with the administration of nitrous dioxide and oxygen?

A. Hallucinations and dreams

B. Tachycardia

C. Tremors

D. Nausea

The correct answer is D. Nausea.

Nitrous oxide:

■ “Laughing gas.”

■ Minimum 30% O2 delivery.

■ Potent analgesic.

■ Weak general anesthetic.

■ No biotransformation.

■ Side effects: Headaches, nausea/vomiting, lethargy, and diffusion hypoxia.

Reference: First Aid for NBDE Part 2, 2008, Page no 92

MCQs on Diseases of Nerves and Muscles - Oral Pathology

# Severe pain which arise after injury to or sectioning of a peripheral sensory nerve is called as:
A. Temporal arteritis
B. Neuralgia
C. Neuritis
D. Causalgia

# The latest drug of the choice in the management in trigeminal neuralgia is:
A. valproic acid
B. carbamazepine
C. Diphenyl hydantoin
D. None of the above

# Facial paralysis is tested by:
A. Whistling
B. chewing
C. Protruding the tongue
D. Swallowing

# Which of the following structures are associated with bells palsy:
A. sub mandibular gland
B. Seventh cranial nerve
C. Temporomandibular joint
D. Glosso-pharyngeal nerve

# Geniculate neuralgia is caused in the nerve:
A. VII
B. IX
C. X
D. II

# All of the following are true about trigeminal neuralgia EXCEPT:
A. it is unilateral
B. it is of throbbing nature
C. it is triggered by touching cheeks, mucosa etc
D. occurs in bouts

# Trotter’s syndrome involves:
A. Pharynx
B. Oropharynx
C. Larynx
D. Nasopharynx

# “Fothergill’s disease” is one of the synonyms of:
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Trigeminal neuralgia
D. Lupus erythematosus

# Lesion of facial nerve at level of stylomastoid foramen leads to:
A. Loss of taste sensation from Ant. 2/3 of tongue
B. Paralysis of orbicularis oculi muscle
C. Loss of innervation to stapedius
D. Loss of lacrimal secretion

# What is non characteristic of Eagle’s syndrome:
A. Excessive lacrimation
B. pain during mandibular movement
C. Stabbing type pain orginate in the tonsillar regions
D. When the jaws are closed the pain subsided

# Which of the following drugs is not effective in case of Trigeminal Neuralgia?
A. Carbamazipine
B. Acetaminophen
C. Phenytoin sodium
D. Baclofen

# Patient comes with pain pharyngeal region and is having carcinoma of nasopharynx. The diagnosis is:
A. Horner’s syndrome
B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
C. Trotter’s syndrome
D. Eagles syndrome

# The characteristic alarm clock headache is a feature of:
A. Auriculotemporal Neuralgia
B. Trigeminal Neuralgia
C. Sphenopalatine Neuralgia
D. Glossopharyngeal Neuralgia

# Anti-convulsants frequently used in management of trigeminal neuralgia are:
A. Phenytoin
B. Gabapentin
C. Baclofen
D. All of the above

# Which of the following Orofacial pain is not associated with vascular origin?
A. Cluster headache
B. Giant cell arteritis
C. Anaesthesia dolorosa
D. Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania

# Patient suffering form Eagle’s syndrome complains of:
A. burning sensations in mouth
B. excessive salivation
C. Glossodynia
D. Dysphagia

# An attack of cluster headache can be aborted by:
A. Morphine administration
B. Breathing oxygen
C. Aspirin administration
D. Sublingual nitroglycerine administration

# Burning Mouth Syndrome describes pain associated with:
A. Oral lichen planus
B. Oral submucous fibrosis
C. Aphthous stomatitis
D. No detectable oral disease

# In an acute attack of migraine, the during of choice:

A. Ergotamine tortrate
B. Methysergide
C. Propranolol
D. Caffeine

# Mask-like appearance of face with narrowing of aperture and rigidity of the mucosa is characteristic of:
A. Progressive systemic sclerosis
B. Tetanus
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Osteomalacia

# A patient shows inability to close the right corner of the mouth is most probably suffering form:
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Bell’s palsy
C. TMJ dysfunction syndrome
D. Multiple sclerosis

# Bell’s palsy is triggered by:
A. Exposure to cold
B. Tooth extraction
C. Local and systemic infection
D. Any of the above

# The following site is the common involvement in case of Myositis ossificans:
A. Massetor
B. Hyoglossus
C. Stylohyoid
D. Lateral pterygoid

# Trigeminal neuralgia:
A. Does not disturb the patient during sleep
B. Can be treated with NSAID’s
C. Always bilateral in distribution
D. Is a hereditary condition

# Carbamazepine has been utilized to successfully diminish attacks in trigeminal neuralgia. During this therapy which of the following is indicated:
A. Clinical observation only
B. Clinical observation and complete blood and platelet counts prior to and at frequent intervals during therapy
C. No monitoring
D. Complete blood investigation only if adverse symptoms arise

# Which syndrome consists of flushing, warmness and perspiration over the cheek and pinna of the ear on the side following the ingestion of highly seasoned food?
A. Fanconi’s
B. Auriculotemporal
C. Horner’s
D. Cushing's

# Facial pain due to elongated styloid process is called?

A. Cowden syndrome
B. Tic doulourex
C. Eagle’s syndrome
D. Reiter’s syndrome

# A neuralgia with trigger zones in the oropharynx and pain in the ear pharynx, nasopharynx, tonsils and posterior tongue is most likely:
A. Trigeminal neuralgia
B. Bell’s palsy
C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
D. Sphenopalatine neuralgia

# Easy fatigability of muscles seen in:
A. Epilepsy
B. MPDS
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Cerebral palsy

# If a patient with Raynaud’s disease puts his hand in cold water, the hand appears:
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. White
D. Blue

# Frey’s syndrome results from surgery of the:
A. Submandibular salivary gland
B. Parotid gland
C. sublingual salivary gland
D. TMJ

# Horner’s syndrome Does NOT include:
A. Ptosis
B. Anhydrosis
C. Flushing
D. Mydriasis

# Trigeminal neuralgia (tic doulourex) is characterized by:
A. Paralysis of one side of the face
B. Uncontrollable twitching of muscles
C. Sharp, excruciating pain of short duration
D. Prolonged episodes of plain on one side of the face

# TENS therapy is useful in:
A. MPDS
B. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Facial palsy
D. Neurosis

# Bell’s Palsy is characterized by:
A. Bilateral involvement of the side of the face
B. Inability to whistle
C. No loss of muscular control
D. Closing of the eyes