Negative space with respect to buccal corridors is an indication for

 # Negative space with respect to buccal corridors is an indication for:

A. Intrusion of maxilla

B. Distalization of molar

C. Expansion of arches

D. Constriction of arches

The correct answer is C. Expansion of arches.

Buccal corridor space is defined as visible maxillary dentition width/ Oral aperture width. The buccal corridor is measured from the mesial line angle of the maxillary first premolars to the interior portion of the commissure of the lips. So negative buccal corridor space indicated mesial-distal width of teeth is less or oral aperture is wide; so arch needs expansion. 

Anchorage conservation is needed most:

 # Anchorage conservation is needed most:

A. Initial alignment  and leveling 

B. Finishing and detailing 

C. Canine retraction if  anterior space closure is done in 2 stage 

D. In case of enmass retraction 

The correct answer is A. Initial alignment and leveling.

Type of tooth movement:  Anchorage varies with the type of tooth movement, whereby, bodily movement requires more anchorage than tipping. The current system of pre-adjusted appliance requires high demands of anchorage during initial stages of the treatment since the first few wires tend to unravel malocclusion according to the expression of bracket prescription whereby tooth axis alignment, tip and crowding are being unravelled simultaneously to bring the teeth in a position called 'slot line up'. 

Chief disadvantage of a nonfunctional fixed space maintainer

 # What is the chief disadvantage of a nonfunctional fixed space maintainer?

A. Prevent lateral jaw growth

B. Difficult to fabricate

C. Difficulty in maintaining proper oral hygiene

D. Continued eruption of opposing tooth

The correct answer is D. Continued eruption of opposing tooth.

Supra eruption of opposing teeth can take place if pontics are not used i.e. non functional fixed space maintainer is used. 

Other disadvantages of fixed space maintainer:

- Expert skill and elaborate instrumentation is needed 

- Decalcification of tooth under bands 

- If functional (pontics) space maintainer is used, it can interfere with vertical eruption of abutment tooth and prevents eruption of replacing permanent teeth if the patient fails to report. 

Molar-incisor hypoplasia in primary teeth

 # Molar-incisor hypoplasia in primary teeth at the occlusal level is due to developmental defect occurring during? 

A. Birth to 12 months 

B. 4th month intra-uterine to birth 

C. 22 months to 26 months 

D 24 months to 48 months 

The correct answer is B. 4th month intra uterine to birth.

# The most common dental complication of problems in utero is enamel hypoplasia. The deciduous teeth most effected by hypoplasia are maxillary incisors. They are the first teeth to start calcification, between the 3rd-4th months of intrauterine life. Amelogenesis of deciduous incisors is nearly completed at term birth. 

#Mineral is deposited in the matrix formed by ameloblastic activity from the fourth month of intrauterine life to form the enamel of the deciduous teeth (which is nothing but, 10-12 months in case of molars and incisors). Any severe illness in the mother is likely to be reflected in diminished amneloblastic activity. 

Guerin’s sign is:

 # Guerin’s sign is: 

A. Ecchymosis at greater palatine foramen 

B. Ecchymosis at mastoid region 

C. Ecchymosis at condylar region 

D. Ecchymosis at infraorbital foramen 

The correct answer is A. Ecchymosis at greater palatine foramen.

Guerin's sign is bruising in the palate in the region of the greater palatine arteries. We present a patient who sustained blunt facial trauma and as a result had a mobile maxilla and a severe malocclusion. An associated laceration in the palate pointed to a split palate confirmed on CT. This is a reminder to clinicians, especially those working in acute medicine to conduct thorough examination of the oral tissues. A laceration in the palate can be easily missed and should be looked for as part of a systematic examination. Intraoperative management may change depending on the fracture pattern and displacement.

Reference: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4184606/

Medical complexity status classification and protocol

Medical complexity status classification and protocol.

Major categories

MCS 0 - Patients with no medical problems

MCS 1 - Patients with controlled or stable medical conditions

MCS 2 - Patients with uncontrolled or unstable medical conditions

MCS 3 - Patients with medical conditions associated with acute exacerbation, resulting in high risk of mortality

Subcategories

A - No anticipated complications

B - Minor complications are anticipated. “Minor complications” are defined as complications that can be successfully addressed in the dental chair

C - Major complications are anticipated. “Major complications” are defined as complications that should be addressed by a medical provider and may sometimes require a hospital setting

According to ASA a patient with an incapacitating systemic disease that is constant threat to life falls under:

# According to ASA a patient with an incapacitating systemic disease that is constant threat to life falls under: 

A. ASA I 

B. ASA II

C. ASA III

D. ASA IV

The correct answer is D. ASA IV

American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) physical status classification system.

ASA I : A normal healthy person

ASA II : A patient with a mild disease

ASA III : A patient with a severe systemic disease

ASA IV : A patient with a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life

ASA VI : A declared brain‐dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes