PGCEE MDS 2022: Behavior modification is based on the principle of:

 # Behavior modification is based on the principle of:

A. Cognitive theory

B. Classical conditioning theory

C. Social learning theory

D. Operant conditioning theory

The correct answer is C. Social learning theory.

Behavior shaping is a form of behavior modification technique based on principles of social learning. It is the procedure that slowly develops desired behavior. The behavior-shaping techniques are:

• Desensitization (TSD)

• Modelling

• Contingency management

PGCEE MDS 2022: The largest component of gutta percha cones is:

 # The largest component of gutta percha cones is:

a) Gutta percha 

b) Zinc oxide

c) Resins and waxes 

d) Coloring agents

The correct answer is B. Zinc oxide.

Composition of gutta percha cones:

(Constituent - Percentage of constituent - Function)

Gutta percha - 20% - Matrix

Zinc oxide - 66% - Filler

Heavy metal sulfates (Bismuth sulphates) - 11% - Radio opacifier

Waxes or resins - 3% - Plasticizer

PGCEE MDS 2022: CSF rhinorrhea is due to:

 # CSF rhinorrhea is due to:

A. Nasal fracture

B. Guerin’s fracture

C. Dural tear

D. Condylar fracture

The correct answer is C. Dural tear.

CSF rhinorrhoea is the result of a dural tear associated with a fracture of the cribriform plate of the ethmoid in Lefort II and III fractures. Cerebrospinal Otorrhoea is due to a fracture of the petrous part of the temporal bone.

CSF mixed with blood produces a double ring (Tramline effect) if dropped on a hospital sheet or pillow.

PGCEE MDS 2022: Extraoral Causes of Halitosis

 # A person has problem of bad odor of mouth. His gingiva is healthy. Other possible cause for this could be:

a) Indigestion 

b) Chronic sinusitis

c) Alcohol intake 

d) Diabetes mellitus

The correct answer is B. Chronic sinusitis.

ENT causes of halitosis include acute pharyngitis, chronic sinusitis and post nasal drip.

PGCEE MDS 2022: The ‘hanging drop appearance’ in the maxillary sinus radiograph indicates:

 # The ‘hanging drop appearance’ in the maxillary sinus radiograph indicates:

a) A nasal polyp 

b) A blow out fracture of the orbit

c) A radiograph artifact 

d) An antrolith

The correct answer is B. A blow-out fracture of the orbit.

Orbital blow out fracture occurs when a rounded object struck the protruding eyeball resulting in a fracture of the orbital floor. "Blow in" fracture is due to inward buckling of the orbital floor. It usually occurs in children and results from trauma to the inferior orbital rim.

Hanging drop sign is best seen in the Water's projection of the face.

Characteristics of blow out fracture:

• Rupture of infraorbital plate and herniation of orbital contents into the maxillary antrum

• Fracture of the orbital floor into the maxillary antrum without the involvement of the orbital rim

• Restriction of lateral and upward movement of the eyeball

• Enophthalmos and profound diplopia

• Hanging drop appearance in the radiograph

PGCEE MDS 2022: Microabrasion is a procedure in clinical orthodontics performed to:

 # Microabrasion is a procedure in clinical orthodontics performed to:

a) Clean the bracket base

b) Clean the arch wire

c) Polishing the bracket

d) Removal of white spot lesions.

The correct answer is D. Removal of white spot lesions.

Microabrasion is a method used to remove surface stains or defects. Enamel microabrasion is a minimally invasive technique for improving the appearance of teeth with superficial enamel irregularities and discoloration defects.  Tooth enamel defects amenable to microabrasion are brown or white stains or spots associated with conditions such as enamel fluorosis, hypomineralisation, decalcified areas around orthodontic brackets, or other intrinsic factors that do not respond to bleaching alone. In fact, microabrasion may be used either prior to and/or after dental bleaching to achieve uniform tooth color for these types of difficult-to-treat teeth.

PGCEE MDS 2022: Best route of heparin administration when IV line cannot be established is:

 # Best route of heparin administration when IV line cannot be established is:

A. Oral

B. Subcutaneous

C. Intramuscular

D. Sublingual

The correct answer is B. Subcutaneous.

Dosage: Heparin is conventionally given i.v. in a bolus dose of 5,000–10,000 U (children 50–100 U/kg), followed by continuous infusion of 750–1000 U/hr. Intermittent i.v. bolus doses of UFH are no longer recommended. The rate of infusion is controlled by aPTT measurement which is kept at 50–80 sec. or 1.5–2.5 times the patient’s pretreatment value. If this test is not available, whole blood clotting time should be measured and kept at ~2 times the normal value.

Deep s.c. injection of 10,000–20,000 U every 8–12 hrs can be given if i.v. infusion is not possible. The needle used should be fine and trauma should be minimum to avoid hematoma formation. Hematomas are more common with i.m. injection—this route should not be used.

Low dose (s.c.) regimen 5000 U is injected s.c. every 8–12 hours, started before surgery and continued for 7–10 days or till the patient starts moving about. This regimen has been found to prevent postoperative deep vein thrombosis without increasing surgical bleeding. It also does not prolong aPTT or clotting time. However, it should not be used in the case of neurosurgery or when spinal anesthesia is to be given. The patients should not be receiving aspirin or oral anticoagulants. It is ineffective in high-risk situations, e.g. hip joint or pelvic surgery.