Macrognathia is not a feature of:

 # Macrognathia is not a feature of:

A. Paget’s disease

B. Leontiasis ossea

C. Acromegaly

D. Parry Romberg Syndrome

The correct answer is D. Parry Romberg Syndrome.

Asymmetry of the face is a feature of Rarry-Romberg syndrome. One side of the face shows relative Micrognathia. 

Parry Romberg syndrome: Genetic disorder characterized by atrophic changes of the deeper structures involving one side of the face (e.g., fat, muscle, cartilage & bone) 

Romberg syndrome: Hemifacial atrophy, progressive atrophy of soft tissue of 1/2 inch of face + contralateral Jacksonian epilepsy & trigeminal neuralgia. 

Taurodontism is characterized by:

 # Taurodontism is characterized by:

A. Hypercementosis

B. Elongated wide pulp canals and short roots

C. Obliterated pulp chambers with secondary dentin deposition

D. Rootless teeth with thin shell of enamel

The correct answer is B. Elongated wide pulp canals and short roots.

Taurodontism (Bull Teeth) is due to failure of hertwig's sheath to invaginate at the proper horizontal level. Mostly molars are involved and the body of tooth is enlarged at expense of roots resulting in rectangular teeth. The roots are short and the pulp chambers are extremely large lacking the usual constriction at cervix of tooth. It has been reported that many patients with Klinefelter syndrome exhibit taurodontism but is not constant feauture of this syndrome.

Developmental enamel defects are most commonly seen in:

 # Developmental enamel defects are most commonly seen in:

A. Primary incisors

B. Primary second molar

C. Permanent incisors

D. Permanent first molar

The correct answer is C. Permanent incisors. 

Clinical studies indicate that most cases of enamel hypoplasia involve those teeth that form within the first year of birth, mainly the central and lateral incisors, cuspids, and first molars. 

• Amelogenesis imperfecta: All teeth of both dentitions are affected to some degree. In some cases, the teeth may appear essentially normal. 

• Hypoplasia due to nutritional deficiency and exanthematous fevers: The teeth most frequently involved are central & lateral incisors, cuspids, and first molars. 

• Enamel hypoplasia due to congenital syphilis: Maxillary & mandibular permanent incisors & the first molars are involved. 

• Enamel Hypoplasia due to local infection or trauma: Most commonly one of the permanent maxillary incisors or a maxillary or mandibular premolar is involved. 

Most commonly submerged tooth is:

 # Most commonly submerged tooth is:

A. Mandibular primary first molar

B. Mandibular primary second molar

C. Maxillary primary first molar

D. Maxillary primary second molar

The correct answer is B. Mandibular primary second molar. 

‘Submerged’ teeth are deciduous teeth, most commonly mandibular second molars, that have undergone a variable degree of root resorption and then have become ankylosed to the bone. This process prevents their exfoliation and subsequent replacement by permanent teeth. After the adjacent permanent teeth have erupted, the ankylosed tooth appears to have submerged below the level of occlusion. This illusion is explained by the fact that there has been continued growth of the alveolar process and also that the crown height of the deciduous tooth is less than that of the adjacent permanent teeth, so that the relative level of occlusion has been changed, not the position of the deciduous tooth. 

The mandibular primary molars are the teeth most often observed to be ankylosed. In unusual cases all the primary molars may become firmly attached to the alveolar bone before their normal exfoliation time. 

Angular osseous defects cannot occur in:

 # Angular osseous defects cannot occur in:

A. Mandibular anterior region

B. Mandibular molar region

C. Maxillary premolar region

D. Maxillary molar region

The correct answer is A. Mandibular anterior region.

Angular osseous defects cannot occur in the mandibular anterior region due to the absence of cancellous bone between the cortical plates.

Which of the following is not a risk indicator for periodontitis?

 # Which of the following is not a risk indicator for periodontitis?

A. HIV/AIDS

B. Bleeding on probing

C. Infrequent dental appointment

D. Osteoporosis

The correct answer is B. Bleeding on probing.

• A risk factor is an environmental, behavioral, or biological factor that, if present directly increases the probability of a disease (or adverse event) occurring and, if absent or removed, reduces that probability.

• A risk indicator is a probable risk factor that has not been confirmed by carefully conducted longitudinal studies. 

• A risk predictor is a characteristic that is associated with an elevated risk for a disease (or adverse event), but may not be part of the causal chain. 

Risk determinants/background characteristics for periodontal disease 

• Genetic Factors 

• Age 

• Gender 

• Socioeconomic status 

• Stress 

Risk indicators for periodontal disease 

• Human Immunodeficiency Virus/Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome 

• Osteoporosis 

• Infrequent Dental Visits 

Risk markers/predictors for periodontal disease 

• Previous History of Periodontal disease 

• Bleeding on Probing 

Workhorse of periodontal therapy is:

 # Workhorse of periodontal therapy is:

A. Double papilla flap

B. Apically repositioned flap

C. Coronally displaced flap

D. Laterally repositioned flap

The correct answer is B. Apically repositioned flap.

An apically displaced (positioned) flap (APF) is a full-thickness or partial-thickness mucoperiosteal flap. It has a relatively high degree of predictability and is a "workhorse" of periodontal therapy.