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 # RPI clasp in a distal extension cast partial denture:
A. Used for buccally tilted molar
B. Provides push type retention
C. Provides pull type retention
D. Is contraindicated



The correct answer is:

B. Provides push type retention

Explanation:

The RPI clasp (Rest, Proximal plate, I-bar) system in a distal extension removable partial denture provides push-type retention because the I-bar clasp moves in a downward direction towards the gingiva when the denture base moves occlusally during function. This ensures that forces are directed in a manner that minimizes torque on the abutment tooth and enhances tissue support.

Breakdown of Key Features:

  1. Rest: Positioned mesially to redirect forces along the long axis of the abutment tooth.
  2. Proximal Plate: Contacts the guiding plane to stabilize the denture and control path of insertion and removal.
  3. I-bar clasp: Engages an undercut and moves gingivally (pushes) as the denture is seated or when occlusal forces displace the denture base.

The push-type action of the I-bar helps maintain a stress-relieving design by allowing movement and reducing torque on the abutment during function.


Mass chemoprophylaxis for anemia in a population

 # What is recommended for mass chemoprophylaxis for anemia in a population?
A. Ferrous sulphate
B. Ferrous fumarate+ vit B12 + Folic acid + Vit. C
C. Intravenous iron
D. Oral iron supplements


The correct answer is: B. Ferrous fumarate + Vitamin B12 + Folic acid + Vitamin C

Explanation:

Mass chemoprophylaxis for anemia in a population focuses on addressing the most common causes of anemia, such as iron deficiency, folate deficiency, and vitamin B12 deficiency. The combination of Ferrous fumarate, Vitamin B12, Folic acid, and Vitamin C is recommended because:

  • Ferrous fumarate: Provides a bioavailable form of iron.
  • Vitamin B12 and Folic acid: Address common deficiencies leading to megaloblastic anemia.
  • Vitamin C: Enhances the absorption of iron from the gastrointestinal tract.

Other options:

  • A. Ferrous sulphate: Provides iron but does not address other nutritional deficiencies like folic acid or vitamin B12.
  • C. Intravenous iron: Used for individuals with severe anemia or malabsorption but not practical for mass chemoprophylaxis.
  • D. Oral iron supplements: Covers iron deficiency only and lacks the broader nutritional supplementation needed for population-wide anemia control.

Public Health Context:

In population-level interventions, a combination therapy like in option B is effective and feasible to address the multifactorial nature of anemia in resource-limited settings.

The patient has a nasal fracture. What will be the test for confirmation of CSF leakage?

 # The patient has a nasal fracture. What will be the test for confirmation of CSF leakage?
A. CT scan 
B. Decreased glucose
C. Increased glucose
D. Transferrin beta


The correct answer is: D. Transferrin beta

Explanation:
Beta-2 transferrin is a specific marker for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). It is not found in blood, nasal mucus, or other bodily fluids, making it a reliable test for confirming CSF leakage in cases like nasal fractures or head trauma.

Other options:

  • A. CT scan: Useful for identifying fractures or other structural damage but not specific for confirming CSF leakage.
  • B. Decreased glucose: Not a specific marker; glucose levels in nasal secretions can vary for other reasons.
  • C. Increased glucose: Similarly nonspecific; glucose levels alone are not definitive for detecting CSF leakage.

Note: CSF leakage is often suspected if clear fluid drains from the nose (rhinorrhea) or ears (otorrhea), especially after trauma. Beta-2 transferrin testing is the gold standard for confirmation.

Civil Braces and Dental Care pvt. ltd - Dental Clinic in Kathmandu

 Name of Dental Clinic: Civil Braces and Dental Care pvt. ltd 
Address (Full): Anamnagar, Kathmandu (Infront of Bajeko Sekuwa)
Year of Establishment: 2024
Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr. Seeta Sapkota
CONTACT NUMBER: 9845592841
NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 20943



Which one of the following drug does not cause gingival hyperplasia?

 # Which one of the following drug does not cause gingival hyperplasia?
A. Cyclosporine
B. Phenytoin
C. Phenobarbital
D. Nifedipine


The correct answer is: C. Phenobarbital

Explanation:

Gingival hyperplasia is a common side effect of certain drugs due to their impact on fibroblast activity and collagen metabolism.

  • Cyclosporine: An immunosuppressant commonly associated with gingival hyperplasia.
  • Phenytoin: An antiepileptic drug that frequently causes gingival overgrowth.
  • Nifedipine: A calcium channel blocker linked to gingival hyperplasia, especially in patients with poor oral hygiene.
  • Phenobarbital: An antiepileptic and sedative-hypnotic drug that does not typically cause gingival hyperplasia.

Which lesion is easy to detect radiographically?

 # Which lesion is easy to detect radiographically?
A. An incipient lesion 
B. One that crosses the dentinoenamel junction (DEJ) 
C. One confined to enamel 
D. One with enamel demineralization 


The correct answer is: B. One that crosses the dentinoenamel junction (DEJ)

Explanation:

Lesions that cross the DEJ are easier to detect radiographically because:

  1. Density Difference: When the lesion progresses beyond the DEJ, the change in tissue density between enamel and dentin becomes more pronounced, making it visible on radiographs.
  2. Dentin Involvement: Dentin is less mineralized than enamel, so demineralization in this layer appears more distinctly on radiographs.

Other options:

  • A. An incipient lesion: These are confined to the outer enamel and are challenging to detect radiographically due to minimal density changes.
  • C. One confined to enamel: These may be faint or undetectable on radiographs, especially if demineralization is minor.
  • D. One with enamel demineralization: Early enamel demineralization is often too subtle for reliable radiographic detection.
 

Malignant hyperthermia is caused by:

 # Malignant hyperthermia is caused by:
A. Suxamethonium
B. Thiopentone
C. Propofol
D. Cis-atracurium


The correct answer is A. Suxamethonium.

Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a rare but life-threatening condition triggered in susceptible individuals by certain anesthetic agents. Suxamethonium (succinylcholine), a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker, and volatile anesthetic agents (e.g., halothane, sevoflurane) are common triggers. MH is caused by a genetic mutation in the ryanodine receptor (RYR1) or calcium channel, leading to uncontrolled calcium release in skeletal muscle, resulting in hypermetabolism, muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, and rhabdomyolysis.

The other options are not known to cause malignant hyperthermia:

  • Thiopentone: A barbiturate used for induction of anesthesia, not a trigger for MH.
  • Propofol: An intravenous anesthetic, considered safe in MH-susceptible individuals.
  • Cis-atracurium: A non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker, not associated with MH.